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  • In my cakephp project the save function is not working?

    - by Faheem
    My controller action is: function add() { if (!empty($this-data)) { $this-Customer-create(); if ($this-Customer-save($this-data)) { $this-Session-setFlash('A new Customer has been added'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } else { $this-Session-setFlash('The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } } } My model is: class Customer extends AppModel { var $name = 'Customer'; var $validate = array( 'name' = array( 'length'= array( 'rule' = array('between', 4,50), 'message' = 'Name must be minimum 4 and maximum 50 characters long.' ), 'checkUnique'= array( 'rule' = 'isUnique', 'message' = 'This Name is already registered' ) )); and this is my view: create('Customer',array('action'='add'));? input('Customer.name'); echo $form-input('Customer.balance',array('type'='hidden','default'=0)); ? end('Submit');? every time I submit the form it splashes: The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.

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  • Need some help understanding this problem

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

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  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

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  • Why would the IE Developer Toolbar claim a style is applied, yet that supposed fact is not reflected

    - by Deane
    I have a situation where IE7 is simply not applying styles, even though it claims it is. I have an element on my page. In the CSS, I have defined a rule that should apply "display: none" to it, so it should not be displayed. It's still displaying. I downloaded the IE Developer Toolbar, and found the element in the DOM selector. I right-clicked and selected "Applied Styles." Right there, IE claims that it is applying my "display: none" rule. In fact, the "Applied Styles" dialog confirms everything I think I know about my CSS and how it should be applied. Yet the element remains. Now, I'm not asking anyone to debug my CSS here. I'm asking, if the IE Developer Toolbar claims/confirms this element should be gone, but it's still there...what does that mean, exactly? Since the Toolbar is on my side, I think my CSS is fine. Is there some IE7 bug I'm not considering? Edit: One thing that might be relevant: the LINK elements that load the stylesheets are applied to the page in Javascript, via "document.write". I'm starting to suspect that has something to do with it.

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  • How to implement jsf validator?

    - by Krishna
    HI, I want to know how to implement Validator in JSF. What is the advantages of declaring the validator-id. When it will be called in the life cycle?. I have implemented the following code. Please find out what is wrong in the code. I am not seeing it called anywhere in the life cycle. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE faces-config PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD JavaServer Faces Config 1.1//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-facesconfig_1_1.dtd"> <faces-config> <lifecycle> <phase-listener>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfPhaseListener</phase-listener> </lifecycle> <validator> <validator-id>JsfValidator</validator-id> <validator-class>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfValidator</validator-class> </validator> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>jsfBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>javabeat.net.beans.ManagedBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <navigation-rule> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>success.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> </faces-config> public class JsfValidator implements Validator { public JsfValidator() { System.out.println("Inside JsfValidator Constructor"); } @Override public void validate(FacesContext facesContext, UIComponent uiComponent, Object object) throws ValidatorException { System.out.println("Inside Validator"); } }

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  • Why can't RB-Tree be a list?

    - by Alex
    Hey everyone. I have a problem with the rb-trees. according to wikipedia, rb-tree needs to follow the following: A node is either red or black. The root is black. (This rule is used in some definitions and not others. Since the root can always be changed from red to black but not necessarily vice-versa this rule has little effect on analysis.) All leaves are black. Both children of every red node are black. Every simple path from a given node to any of its descendant leaves contains the same number of black nodes. As we know, an rb-tree needs to be balanced and has the height of O(log(n)). But, if we insert an increasing series of numbers (1,2,3,4,5...) and theoretically we will get a tree that will look like a list and will have the height of O(n) with all its nodes black, which doesn't contradict the rb-tree properties mentioned above. So, where am I wrong?? thanks.

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  • Use properties or methods to expose business rules in C#?

    - by Val
    I'm writing a class to encapsulate some business rules, each of which is represented by a boolean value. The class will be used in processing an InfoPath form, so the rules get the current program state by looking up values in a global XML data structure using XPath operations. What's the best (most idiomatic) way to expose these rules to callers -- properties or public methods? Call using properties Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Call using methods Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval() ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Rules class exposing rules as properties public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule property public bool ProjectRequiresApproval { get { return _amount < threshold } } } Rules class exposing rules as methods public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule method public bool ProjectRequiresApproval() { return _amount < threshold; } } What are the pros and cons of one over the other?

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  • GWT - problems with constants in css

    - by hba
    Hi, I'm new to GWT; I'm building a small sample app. I have several CSS files. I'm able to successfully use the ClientBundle and CssResource to assign styles to the elements defined in my UiBinder script. Now I'd like to take it one step further and introduce CSS constants using @def css-rule. The @def works great when I define a constant and use it in the same CSS file. However I cannot use it in another CSS file. When I try to use the @eval rule to evaluate an existing constant the compiler throws an execption: "cannot make a static reference to the non-static method ". Here is an example of what I'm trying to do: ConstantStyle.css @def BACKGROUND red; ConstantStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String BACKGROUND(); } MyStyle.css @eval BACKGROUND abc.ConstantStyle.BACKGROUND(); .myClass {background-color: BACKGROUND;} MyStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String myClass; } MyResources.java package abc; import ...; interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { @Source("ConstantStyle.css") ConstantStyle constantStyle(); @Source("MyStyle.css") MyStyle myStyle(); } Thanks in advance!

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  • CSSRules is empty

    - by Stephanie
    I have this very simple HTML page, and I'm trying to get the CSSRules of #poulet, but when I'm accessing the documents.styleSheets[0].cssRules I get this error in Chrome v5.0.375.55: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'length' of null Here is what my code looks like: //HTML FILE window.onload = function(){ var test = findKeyframesRule('poulet'); alert(test); } <div id="poulet"> allo </div> //JS FILE function findKeyframesRule(rule) { var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i = 0; i < ss.length; ++i) { for (var j = 0; j < ss[i].cssRules.length; ++j) { if (ss[i].cssRules[j].type == window.CSSRule.WEBKIT_KEYFRAMES_RULE && ss[i].cssRules[j].name == rule) return ss[i].cssRules[j]; } } return null; } //CSS FILE html, body{ background: #cccccc; } #poulet{ border: 10px solid pink; } The files can be found here. I really need help on this one, please!!! D:

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  • [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

    - by DavidYell
    I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

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  • On C++ global operator new: why it can be replaced

    - by Jimmy
    I wrote a small program in VS2005 to test whether C++ global operator new can be overloaded. It can. #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "iomanip" #include "string" #include "new" using namespace std; class C { public: C() { cout<<"CTOR"<<endl; } }; void * operator new(size_t size) { cout<<"my overload of global plain old new"<<endl; // try to allocate size bytes void *p = malloc(size); return (p); } int main() { C* pc1 = new C; cin.get(); return 0; } In the above, my definition of operator new is called. If I remove that function from the code, then operator new in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\crt\src\new.cpp gets called. All is good. However, in my opinion, my implementations of operator new does NOT overload the new in new.cpp, it CONFLICTS with it and violates the one-definition rule. Why doesn't the compiler complain about it? Or does the standard say since operator new is so special, one-definition rule does not apply here? Thanks.

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  • How to Set up Virtual Static Subdomain

    - by Chip D
    Given current rewrite rules at http://www.example.com/: Options +FollowSymlinks +Includes RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.example\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.example.com/$1 [L,R,NE] # Remove all "index.html"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.html(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.html$ /%1 [R=301,L] # Remove all "index.php"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.php(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.php$ /%1 [R=301,L] I'm attempting to serve some site assets (.png|.ico|.jpg|.gif|.css|.js) from a static subdomain like http://static.example.com which my Apache 1.3 shared host (GoDaddy) has mapped to a subdirectory for file management (http://www.example.com/static/). Currently these assets live in same-site subdirectories such as images/, js/, css/, etc. (1) Something...maybe the "+www" rewrite rule?...is not letting me access the subdomain. Is this likely caused by my rewrite rules above, or do I need to set up DNS changes with the host to enable access to the subdirectory, in addition to changing the rewrite rules? (2) Do I have to move those assets to that subdirectory and change all references sitewide? Would that perform the fastest? (3) Or can .htaccess make this much easier? (4) Should my first rewrite rule above include L,R=301,NE instead of [L,R,NE]?

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  • How to detect what allowed character in current Regular Expression by using JavaScript?

    - by Soul_Master
    In my web application, I create some framework that use to bind model data to control on page. Each model property has some rule like string length, not null and regular expression. Before submit page, framework validate any binded control with defined rules. So, I want to detect what character that is allowed in each regular expression rule like the following example. "^[0-9]$" allow only digit characters like 1, 2, 3. "^[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z_-0-9]+$" allow only a-z, - and _ characters However, this function should not care about grouping, positioning of allowed character. It just tells about possible characters only. By the way, complex regular expression like find two words near(\bword1\W+(?:\w+\W+){1,6}?word2\b) must be ignore to verify and it should return any characters is possible. Do you have any idea for creating this function? PS. I know it easy to create specified function like numeric only for allowing only digit characters. But I need share/reuse same piece of code both data tier(contains all model validator) and UI tier without modify anything. Thanks

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  • What are the best practices for writing maintainable CSS?

    - by Art
    I am just starting to explore this area and wonder what are the best practices when it comes to production of clean, well-structured and maintainable CSSes. There seems to be few different approaches to structuring CSS rules. One of the most commonly encountered ones I saw was throwing everything together in one rule, i.e. margins, borders, typefaces, backgrounds, something like this: .my-class { border-top:1px solid #c9d7f1; font-size:1px; font-weight:normal; height:0; position:absolute; top:24px; width:100%; } Another approach I noticed employed grouping of properties, say text-related properties like font-size, typeface, emphasis etc goes into one rule, backgrounds go into other, borders/margins go into yet another one: .my-class { border-top:1px solid #c9d7f1; } .my-class { font-size:1px; font-weight:normal; } .my-class { height:0; top:24px; width:100%; position:absolute; } I guess I am looking for a silver bullet here which I know I am not going to get, bet nevertheless - what are the best practices in this space?

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  • Enum.TryParse with Flags attribute

    - by Sunny
    I have written code to TryParse enum either by value or by its name as shown below. How can I extend this code to include parsing enums with Flags attribute? public static bool TryParse<T>(this T enum_type, object value, out T result) where T : struct { return enum_type.TryParse<T>(value, true, out result); } public static bool TryParse<T>(this T enum_type, object value, bool ignoreCase, out T result) where T : struct { result = default(T); var is_converted = false; var is_valid_value_for_conversion = new Func<T, object, bool, bool>[]{ (e, v, i) => e.GetType().IsEnum, (e, v, i) => value != null, (e, v, i) => Enum.GetNames(e.GetType()).Any(n => String.Compare(n, v.ToString(), i) == 0) || Enum.IsDefined(e.GetType(), v) }; if(is_valid_value_for_conversion.All(rule => rule(enum_type, value, ignoreCase))){ result = (T)Enum.Parse(typeof(T), value.ToString(), ignoreCase); is_converted = true; } return is_converted; } Currently this code works for the following enums: enum SomeEnum{ A, B, C } // can parse either by 'A' or 'a' enum SomeEnum1 : int { A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 } // can parse either by 'A' or 'a' or 1 or "1" Does not work for: [Flags] enum SomeEnum2 { A = 1, B = 2, C = 4 } // can parse either by 'A' or 'a' // cannot parse for A|B Thanks!

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  • mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

    - by tshabalala
    Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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  • [^.] causing headache in RewriteRule

    - by Ollie2893
    I am struggling with a very basic regex problem in my .htaccess file that I hope someone may be able to shed some light on. The basic premise is that I would like to teach Apache to switch any .html extension into a .var extension. I had thought that the rule would be positively trivial: RewriteRule ^([^.]+)\.html$ $1.var But the [^.] part simply doesn't work. Bizarrely, it works like so RewriteRule ^([^A-Z]+)\.html$ $1.var I do not understand why this latter rule works. Assume I am looking for a file called "index.html" then $1 should match to "index." and the ".html" bit should actually fail to match. To widen the scope of the question slightly, I am actually racking my brain on how to implement a multi-lingual site. I don't like Apache's MultiView option because it forces upon me a flat directory structure with file extensions that aren't recognizable to many development tools. I could go the .var type-map route but am finding that the default config for Apache doesn't support this all that well either (hence my excursions into regex land). So while I am using mod_rewrite, I am thinking that I might go the whole hog: whenever a request for a name.html file is received and this file does not exist, check whether there exists a XX/name.html file instead, where "XX" is the language code according to the user's preferences. This would give me a neater directory structure, though it does perhaps not perform as well as the .var approach in a situation where the language preference of the user's browser is not supported in by my site (in which situation .var would substitute EN or similar). Any thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Subdomain Routing Rules (using chaining) Broke after upgrading to Zend Framework 1.9.5, but only for

    - by Dan
    I asked a similar question months ago (see How do I write Routing Chains for a Subdomain in Zend Framework in a routing INI file?), on how to write chaining rules in an app.ini format. The answer to this question worked wonderfully! Now, however, I have upgraded to the latest version of the Zend Framework 1.9.5 (I needed to upgrade for another issue) and now my subdomains no longer work! To clarify, if I visit subdomain.domain.com, it does not recognize my rule. However, if I visit subdomain.domain.com/somepage/ it does recognize my routing rule. Here is my code: ;; the following is apparently being ignored, and does not work routes.manager.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" routes.manager.route = "manager.sitename.com" routes.manager.defaults.module = "manager" ;; this is not being ignored and works! routes.manager.chains.settings.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Static" routes.manager.chains.settings.route = "/settings" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.controller = "manager" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.action = "settings" So for example, if I go to manager.sitename.com, it just redirects to my default index and controller (does not access the module, $this-getRequest()-getModuleName() is blank). However, if I go to manager.sitename.com/settings, the page comes up! This app.ini configuration works fine in ZF 1.7.8, But now since I upgraded to 1.9.5, it no longer works. I have tried adding routes.manager.defaults.controller = "manager" and routes.manager.defaults.action = 'index" to my configuration as well, but this didn't work. There is not much out there on the internet with chaining and app.ini dealing with Zend Framework. Any help on this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Is std::move really needed on initialization list of constructor for heavy members passed by value?

    - by PiotrNycz
    Recently I read an example from cppreference.../vector/emplace_back: struct President { std::string name; std::string country; int year; President(std::string p_name, std::string p_country, int p_year) : name(std::move(p_name)), country(std::move(p_country)), year(p_year) { std::cout << "I am being constructed.\n"; } My question: is this std::move really needed? My point is that compiler sees that this p_name is not used in the body of constructor, so, maybe, there is some rule to use move semantics for it by default? That would be really annoying to add std::move on initialization list to every heavy member (like std::string, std::vector). Imagine hundreds of KLOC project written in C++03 - shall we add everywhere this std::move? This question: move-constructor-and-initialization-list answer says: As a golden rule, whenever you take something by rvalue reference, you need to use it inside std::move, and whenever you take something by universal reference (i.e. deduced templated type with &&), you need to use it inside std::forward But I am not sure: passing by value is rather not universal reference?

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  • Converting IIS Redirect to .htaccess

    - by user1641321
    I am having trouble getting the rewrite to work on an apache server. The end result is so i can make subdomains on the fly just by adding a directory. For example anysubdomain.domain.com will redirect to domain.com/anysubdomain and still appear as anysubdomain.domain.com. Is there anyone out there that convert this for me? <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Subdomain Redirect" patternSyntax="ECMAScript" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(.*)$" /> <conditions trackAllCaptures="true"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^www\.obdevsite\.com" negate="true" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(.*)\.obdevsite\.com" /> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="^(.*)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="/{C:1}/{C:2}" appendQueryString="false" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite>

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  • .htaccess redirect noticably increasing load time

    - by GTCrais
    I set up a SEF link via .htaccess RewriteRule to one of the articles on my website just to see how that works, and it does work but it considerably increases the load time of that particular page. On average the articles (including the one I'm talking about, when not using the rewrite rule) load in about 1.3 seconds. With the rewrite rule, the load time is 3.3 seconds on average until the page displays, and the loader thingy in the firefox tab keeps spinning for another 2 seconds. I have WAMP setup on my computer, and the website is being accessed through no-ip.com. Here is the .htaccess config (very simple, as you can see): Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^o-sw-liji /NewSWL/o-nama.php?body=o-sw-liji In httpd.conf I have this (somewhere I read this might affect the load time for some reason - searching for files through all the directories or something, I don't remember exactly what I read): <Directory /> Options None AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> DocumentRoot "Z:/Program Files (x86)/wamp/www/" <Directory "Z:/Program Files (x86)/wamp/www/"> Options None AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> Any ideas why .htaccess redirect increases the load time by so much? UPDATE: so I put a session based counter in the "o-nama.php" script. Apparently when I access the web via the 'normal' link i.e. 'o-nama.php?body=o-sw-liji', the counter increases by one, as it should - it's one page load. But when the page is accessed through the redirected link, i.e. 'o-nama/o-sharewood-liji' the counter increases by 6-8, which naturally makes the load time a lot longer, since it's loading the same page for 6-8 times. I have no idea why this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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  • IIS redirect url for virtual directory

    - by Jouni
    Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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  • Does any Certificate Authority support both SAN and wildcards?

    - by nicholas a. evans
    My basic quandry is that wildcard certificates don't support subdomains of subdomains, nor do they help with alternate domain names. Basically, if my CN is example.com, I want a Subject Alternative Name field that looks roughly like so: DNS:example.com DNS*.example.com DNS:*.beta.example.com DNS:example.net DNS:*.example.net DNS:*.beta.example.net Using a self-signed cert, I verified that the browsers will work just fine with this. Unfortunately, none of the Certificate Authorities that I looked into (Thawte, GoDaddy, Verisign, Digicert) seemed to support both wildcard certs and Subject Alternative Name (sometimes referred to as "Multiple Domain UCC"). I even called up GoDaddy tech support to confirm. Is there a CA (trusted by 99% of browsers) that supports wildcards for the Subject Alternative Name? One little restriction: I'm saddled with Amazon EC2's single Elastic IP per instance limitation. Here are what I see as my backup plans: set up three extra EC2 instances, each configured for a different IP address and cert, and nginx reverse proxy from three of them into the app server(s) introduces latency(?), and even the cheapest EC2 instance isn't that cheap instead of dedicated reverse proxy instances, setup the four or more almost identical EC2 app servers, with nginx using the port to determine which cert to deliver, and use haproxy to distribute the traffic amongst themselves. complicated to configure and manage? I'm not using the cheapest EC2 instance type for my app servers. If I don't need 4+ app servers for the load, it raises the cost. set up an external server (outside of EC2) that doesn't have EC2's Elastic IP address restrictions, setup all of the alternate IP addresses and certificates on that server, and nginx reverse proxy from that server into the EC2 app servers. extra IP addresses are almost free (still need to pay for the server of course), but don't come with the robust "elasticity" that Amazon's Elastic IPs provide. even more latency than in the first scenario. Are these approaches crazy or reasonable? Do you have another one to suggest?

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  • Contacts Issue: Google Contacts, Nokia 5800 And Outlook, Sync and Images

    - by josecortesp
    Hello everyone, this is a multi-question, so please, feel free to answer just one or all of them. My actual situation is: Google contacts sync with Nokia 5800 using MFE(google sync), using google's fake "exchange server". Outlook sync with google using GoContact Sync software (http://www.webgear.co.nz/Products/GOContactSync.aspx). What I want, a easy(or not) way to correctly sync the three of them, even if I have to change some of my "escenario". I know outlook<-google contacts sync is not good yet, but if someone can suggest me some better SW than GoContact Sync. It'll be good. What I really want is to sync a least name, phone, email and image. Then, is there a way to get all my google contacts to by default use their own google image? I noted that, usually i have to manually choose it, and sometimes it doesn't work. I'll like to use something or someone's service to do this automatically. I have tried some services like Soocial, but it gives me a lot of trouble after the first sync, because soccial can ONLY get ALL your contacts, not just "My Contacts"; and also it gives me like 100 bad contacts in outlook because of their beta client. The final goal of all of this is to Get only "My Contacts" from google in Outlook and in the 5800 with their images Get ALL my contacts with their default image, meaning, the contact's personal image Get a solution to correctly sync the three of them, using Google's as the base for the rest of them. Thanks in advance. Again, feel free to sugest me solutions to just one or all them.

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  • SQL Server instance shuts down

    - by user42119
    I'm currently developing a new ASP.NET project hosted on a Windows Server 2008 RC2 with an SQL Server 2008 Express database. I have three SQL Server instances (for different purposes) running which currently all contain a single database. For apparently no reason, these instances tend to shut down after some days. There might be low or no traffic to these instances, because there might be some days in a row, where I can't develop. It now occurred several times, that one or two of these three instances just shut down, so that I can't access the database, without manually starting the instance. I can't seem to find a event log entry for the shutdown, which is most likely because I just enabled logging (why is the default setting off?). So the questions are: * Why does an SQL Server instance shut down? (Is there such a thing as a "Shut down instance after 3 days of inactivity"? * How can I achieve that the instances are running 24/7? Edit: I solved this problem by writing my own application that checks for the status of the SQL Server services. My program will start via a batch file, that gets called by the Windows Task Scheduler every 5 minutes.

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