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  • sql: Group by x,y,z; return grouped by x,y with lowest f(z)

    - by Sai Emrys
    This is for http://cssfingerprint.com I collect timing stats about how fast the different methods I use perform on different browsers, etc., so that I can optimize the scraping speed. Separately, I have a report about what each method returns for a handful of URLs with known-correct values, so that I can tell which methods are bogus on which browsers. (Each is different, alas.) The related tables look like this: CREATE TABLE `browser_tests` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `bogus` tinyint(1) DEFAULT NULL, `result` tinyint(1) DEFAULT NULL, `method` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `url` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `os` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `browser` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `version` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `user_agent` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=33784 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `method_timings` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `method` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `batch_size` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `timing` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `os` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `browser` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `version` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `user_agent` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=28849 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 (user_agent is broken down pre-insert into browser, version, and os from a small list of recognized values using regex; I keep the original user-agent string just in case.) I have a query like this that tells me the average timing for every non-bogus browser / version / method tuple: select c, avg(bogus) as bog, timing, method, browser, version from browser_tests as b inner join ( select count(*) as c, round(avg(timing)) as timing, method, browser, version from method_timings group by browser, version, method having c > 10 order by browser, version, timing ) as t using (browser, version, method) group by browser, version, method having bog < 1 order by browser, version, timing; Which returns something like: c bog tim method browser version 88 0.8333 184 reuse_insert Chrome 4.0.249.89 18 0.0000 238 mass_insert_width Chrome 4.0.249.89 70 0.0400 246 mass_insert Chrome 4.0.249.89 70 0.0400 327 mass_noinsert Chrome 4.0.249.89 88 0.0556 367 reuse_reinsert Chrome 4.0.249.89 88 0.0556 383 jquery Chrome 4.0.249.89 88 0.0556 863 full_reinsert Chrome 4.0.249.89 187 0.0000 105 jquery Chrome 5.0.307.11 187 0.8806 109 reuse_insert Chrome 5.0.307.11 123 0.0000 110 mass_insert_width Chrome 5.0.307.11 176 0.0000 231 mass_noinsert Chrome 5.0.307.11 176 0.0000 237 mass_insert Chrome 5.0.307.11 187 0.0000 314 reuse_reinsert Chrome 5.0.307.11 187 0.0000 372 full_reinsert Chrome 5.0.307.11 12 0.7500 82 reuse_insert Chrome 5.0.335.0 12 0.2500 102 jquery Chrome 5.0.335.0 [...] I want to modify this query to return only the browser/version/method with the lowest timing - i.e. something like: 88 0.8333 184 reuse_insert Chrome 4.0.249.89 187 0.0000 105 jquery Chrome 5.0.307.11 12 0.7500 82 reuse_insert Chrome 5.0.335.0 [...] How can I do this, while still returning the method that goes with that lowest timing? I could filter it app-side, but I'd rather do this in mysql since it'd work better with my caching.

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  • Tearing my hair out - ASP.Net AJAX AutoComplete not working

    - by Dave
    Hope someone can help with this. I've been up and down the web and through this site looking for an answer, but still can't get the Autocomplete AJAX control to work. I've gone from trying to include it in an existing site to stripping it right back to a very basic form and it's still not functioning. I'm having a little more luck using Page Methods rather than a local webservice, so here is my code <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="droptest.aspx.cs" Inherits="droptest" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePageMethods="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" runat="server" MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="getResults" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </form> </body> </html> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Web.Services; public partial class droptest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public string[] getResults(string prefixText, int count) { string[] test = new string[5] { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five" }; return test; } } Tried to keep things as simple as possible, but all I get is either the autocomplete dropdown with the source of the page (starting with the <! doctype...) letter by letter, or in IE7 it just says "UNDEFINED" all the way down the list. I'm using Visual Web Developer 2008 at the moment, this is running on Localhost. I think I've exhausted all the "Try this..." options I can find, everything from adding in [ScriptMethod] to changing things in Web.Config. Is there anything obviously wrong with this code? Only other thing that may be having an effect is in Global.asax I do a Context.RewritePath to rewrite URLs - does this have any effect on AJAX? Thanks for any help you can give.

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  • Lightbox image / link URL

    - by GSTAR
    Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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  • Which third party website thumbnailing services do you use?

    - by Ben Delarre
    I've got a requirement for showing thumbnails of arbitrary websites. I need to be able to show small thumbnails (120px by 90px), and larger thumbnails of around 480px wide. I'll need to specify the queue and invalid placeholder images and preferably have a pingback when the queued images are processed so I can respond appropriately. I'd also need a simple API I can use either directly embedded in my HTML, or from a simple web request to queue the images. I've been looking at various services ranging from low-fi services, to large scale ones - here's some examples: www.bitpixels.com Uses Google AppEngine, seems like a prototype or a toy. Free! www.websnapr.com Tried using this, made a free account and requested a thumbnail. Waited a few minutes and refreshed a couple of times, and ended up having the account banned. Free is tricky yes, but if I can't try it out successfully I'm disinclined to pay. www.shrinktheweb.com Free account seems to be very quick. Lots of documentation on the site, and even covers local caching of the images to your own server (documentation mostly in PHP). Quality of thumbnails look good, and there appear to be sufficient options for setting thumbnail placeholder images and parameters for altering how the thumbnailing is done. Also supports large 'screenshots' of URLs - very useful for me. Discovered the PRO pricing is an à la carte menu, allowing me to select just the features I want and keep the monthly cost low. Excellent stuff, have decided to use this service. www.thumbalizr.com Good coverage of thumbnail sizes and control options - even allowing specification for browser width when thumbnailing. No ping-back, but I can live without that. Supports local caching of images with PHP API, would prefer .NET, but can port it if necessary. Looks like a fairly professional service but seems fairly expensive for the number of thumbnails you get to generate. apologies for lack of proper linking - spam protection! I'm not entirely convinced by any of them, and since this will be a long term service I'd like some stability and support. I'm willing to pay for the service, but I'd want something that fulfills most if not all of my requirements for that. I should also mention that we're hosted on Windows under IIS, so local solutions involving Xvfb and the like sadly can't be used for this project. So my question is: what services do you use? How have they panned out, are you happy with them?

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  • Rewrite Url with apache2

    - by dhalsim
    Hi, I'm experimenting with CodeIgniter PHP framework, this framework works like: http://localhost:7777/~dhalsim/ci/index.php/blog So, I tried to remove index.php part from there. So far I do these: make $config['index_page'] = "index.php"; to $config['index_page'] = ""; make $config['uri_protocol'] = "REQUEST_URI"; from $config['uri_protocol'] = "AUTO"; enable apache mod_rewrite by "a2enmod rewrite" put a .htaccess file to /ci directory: RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^system.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L] And of course restart apache server Here is my apache logs with these configurations: 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] strip per-dir prefix: /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog -> blog 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] applying pattern '^(.*)$' to uri 'blog' 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] RewriteCond: input='/~dhalsim/ci/blog' pattern='^system.*' => not-matched 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] strip per-dir prefix: /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog -> blog 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] applying pattern '^(.*)$' to uri 'blog' 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] RewriteCond: input='/home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog' pattern='!-f' => matched 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] RewriteCond: input='/home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog' pattern='!-d' => matched 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (2) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] rewrite 'blog' -> 'index.php?/blog' 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) split uri=index.php?/blog -> uri=index.php, args=/blog 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] add per-dir prefix: index.php -> /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/index.php 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (2) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] trying to replace prefix /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/ with / 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (5) strip matching prefix: /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/index.php -> index.php 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) add subst prefix: index.php -> /index.php 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (1) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] internal redirect with /index.php [INTERNAL REDIRECT] Here is the result in Firefox: 404 Not Found: The requested URL /index.php was not found on this server. So, what should I do (or where am I wrong) to get work these URLs? http://localhost:7777/~dhalsim/ci/blog/ instead of http://localhost:7777/~dhalsim/ci/index.php/blog/

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  • Multiple Mod_ReWrites on one site - Possible? (Wordpress blog in root directory, CodeIgniter project

    - by Sootah
    Currently I am creating a project with CodeIgniter that is contained within a subdirectory of my domain. For this example we'll call it domain.com/test. I also have Wordpress installed on this domain, and all of its files are in the root. For instance, if you navigate to my domain.com then it pulls up the Wordpress blog. I currently have the Wordpress mod_rewrite activated so that it uses friendly-URLs. For those of you that aren't familiar with CodeIgniter, all requests are routed through index.php in the project's root folder. So, in this case, it'd be domain.com/text/index.php. A request to the application would be sent like domain.com/test/index.php/somecontroller/method. What I'd like to do, is for any incoming request that is directed towards the /test/ folder, or some subdirectory therein I'd like it to appropriately rewrite the URL so the index.php isn't included. (As per the example above, it'd end up being domain.com/test/somecontroller/method) For any OTHER request, meaning anything that's not within the /test/ directory, I would like it to route the request to Wordpress. I would imagine it's a simple RewriteCond to make it check to see if the request is for the /test/ directory or a subdirectory therein, but I've no idea how to do it. Perhaps you can't have more than one set of Rewrite Rules per site. I will include the recommended mod_rewrite rules for each application. Wordpress: (Currently used) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> CodeIgniter: (Pulled from their Wiki) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / #Removes access to the system folder by users. #Additionally this will allow you to create a System.php controller, #previously this would not have been possible. #'system' can be replaced if you have renamed your system folder. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^system.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #When your application folder isn't in the system folder #This snippet prevents user access to the application folder #Submitted by: Fabdrol #Rename 'application' to your applications folder name. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^application.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #Checks to see if the user is attempting to access a valid file, #such as an image or css document, if this isn't true it sends the #request to index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L] </IfModule> <IfModule !mod_rewrite.c> # If we don't have mod_rewrite installed, all 404's # can be sent to index.php, and everything works as normal. # Submitted by: ElliotHaughin ErrorDocument 404 /index.php </IfModule> Any and all help is much appreciated!! Thanks, -Sootah

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  • Mapstraction: Changing an Icon's image URL after it has been added?

    - by Paul Owens
    I am trying to use marker.setIcon() to change a markers image. However it appears that although this changes the marker.iconUrl attribute the icon itself is using marker.proprietary_marker.$.icon.image to display the markers image - so the markers icon remains unchanged. Is there a way to dynamically change the marker.proprietary_marker.$.icon.image? Add a marker. Check the icon's image url and the proprietary icon's image - they're the same. Change the icon. Again check the Urls. Now the Icon Url has changed but the marker still shows the old image which is in the proprietary marker object. <head> <title>Map Test</title> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&v=2&key=Your-Google-API-Key" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="mapstraction.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var marker; function getMap(){ map = new mxn.Mapstraction('myMap','google'); map.setCenterAndZoom(new mxn.LatLonPoint(45.559242,-122.636467), 15); } function addMarker(){ marker = new mxn.Marker(new mxn.LatLonPoint(45.559242, -122.636467)); marker.addData({infoBubble : "Text", label : "Label", marker : 4, icon: "http://mapscripting.com/examples/mashups/richter-high.png"}); map.addMarker(marker); } function changeIcon(){ marker.setIcon("http://assets1.mapufacture.com/images/markers/usgs_marker.png"); } function showIconURL(){ alert(marker.iconUrl); } function showProprietaryIconURL(){ alert(marker.proprietary_marker.$.icon.image); } </script> </head> <body onload="getMap()"> <div id="myMap" style="width:627px; height:412px;"></div> <div> <input type="button" value="add marker" OnClick="addMarker();"> <input type="button" value="change icon" OnClick="changeIcon();"> <input type="button" value="show icon URL" OnClick="showIconURL();"> <input type="button" value="show proprierty icon URL " OnClick="showProprietaryIconURL();"> </div> </body> </html>

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  • python Socket.IO client for sending broadcast messages to TornadIO2 server

    - by Alp
    I am building a realtime web application. I want to be able to send broadcast messages from the server-side implementation of my python application. Here is the setup: socketio.js on the client-side TornadIO2 server as Socket.IO server python on the server-side (Django framework) I can succesfully send socket.io messages from the client to the server. The server handles these and can send a response. In the following i will describe how i did that. Current Setup and Code First, we need to define a Connection which handles socket.io events: class BaseConnection(tornadio2.SocketConnection): def on_message(self, message): pass # will be run if client uses socket.emit('connect', username) @event def connect(self, username): # send answer to client which will be handled by socket.on('log', function) self.emit('log', 'hello ' + username) Starting the server is done by a Django management custom method: class Command(BaseCommand): args = '' help = 'Starts the TornadIO2 server for handling socket.io connections' def handle(self, *args, **kwargs): autoreload.main(self.run, args, kwargs) def run(self, *args, **kwargs): port = settings.SOCKETIO_PORT router = tornadio2.TornadioRouter(BaseConnection) application = tornado.web.Application( router.urls, socket_io_port = port ) print 'Starting socket.io server on port %s' % port server = SocketServer(application) Very well, the server runs now. Let's add the client code: <script type="text/javascript"> var sio = io.connect('localhost:9000'); sio.on('connect', function(data) { console.log('connected'); sio.emit('connect', '{{ user.username }}'); }); sio.on('log', function(data) { console.log("log: " + data); }); </script> Obviously, {{ user.username }} will be replaced by the username of the currently logged in user, in this example the username is "alp". Now, every time the page gets refreshed, the console output is: connected log: hello alp Therefore, invoking messages and sending responses works. But now comes the tricky part. Problems The response "hello alp" is sent only to the invoker of the socket.io message. I want to broadcast a message to all connected clients, so that they can be informed in realtime if a new user joins the party (for example in a chat application). So, here are my questions: How can i send a broadcast message to all connected clients? How can i send a broadcast message to multiple connected clients that are subscribed on a specific channel? How can i send a broadcast message anywhere in my python code (outside of the BaseConnection class)? Would this require some sort of Socket.IO client for python or is this builtin with TornadIO2? All these broadcasts should be done in a reliable way, so i guess websockets are the best choice. But i am open to all good solutions.

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  • Consuming Web Services requiring Authentication from behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about Proxy Authentication, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a SharePoint Web Service consuming desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. It's almost as if the authentication I provide is going to the proxy rather than the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • Consuming SharePoint Web Services fails when behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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  • Android: dynamically setting links to text in strings.xml

    - by Martyn
    I'm trying to make an app with localisation built in, but I want a way that I can create a web link within the text, the URL being defined elsewhere (for ease of maintenance). So, I have my links in res/values/strings.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="link1">http://some.link.com</string> <string name="link2">http://some.link2.com</string> </resources> and my localised text in res/values-en-rGB/strings.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and link1\nMore text and link2.</string> </resources> I've not tested this bit, but from the localization section of developer.android.com it says that this approach to reducing content duplication should work, although I'm not sure what folder I should put Italian, for example. Would it be in 'res/values-it-rIT/strings.xml'? Lets assume that I have various other languages too. I'm looking for a way of taking the base localised 'sampleText' and inserting my html links in, and getting them to work when clicked on. I've tried two approaches so far: 1, Putting some formatting in the 'sampleText' (%s): <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and <a href="%s">link1</a>\nMore text and <a href="%s">link2</a>.</string> and then processing the text like this: TextView tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textHolder); tv.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.sampleText, getResources().getString(R.string.link1), getResources().getString(R.string.link2))); But this didn't work when I click on the link, even though the link text is being put in to the correct places. 2, I tried to use Linkify but the regular expression route may be difficult as I'm looking at supporting non-Latin based languages. I tried to put a custom xml tag around the link text and then do something like this: Pattern wordMatcher = Pattern.compile("<span1>.*</span1>"); String viewURL = "content://" + getResources().getString(R.string.someLink); Linkify.addLinks(tv, wordMatcher , viewURL ); But this didn't work either. So, I'd like to know if there's a way of dynamically adding multiple URLs to different sections of the same text which will link to web content? Thank you, Martyn

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  • What happens when several Java servlet apps running on the same port ?

    - by Frank
    Something strange happened to my servlets and I think I've figured out why, yet I'm more confused. I used Netbean6.7 to develop a Paypal IPN (Instant Payment Notification) message servlet, it listens on port 8080 by default for Paypal IPN messages. I used some sample Java code from it's web site, but when it ran, only about 1 in 10 messages came through, and they looked correct, but why 1 in 10 ? Not 100% or none ? So I asked some questions here and got some advices, one in particular points me to Google's App Engine, so I downloaded it and ran the demo guestbook while my IPN servlet is still running on Netbeans, the strange thing happened, after I entered "appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\bin\dev_appserver.cmd appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\demos\guestbook\war" from the command prompt, I went to the following url on my browser "http://localhost:8080/", I thought I would see the Google demo guestbook page, NO, what I saw was another servlet I developed 2 years ago : "Web Academy", online course registration app. How can that happen ? I never started it, and I haven't touch that project for years. I guess because it's also listening on port 8080, so now I understand why the IPN messages only came through 1 in 10 times, because another servlet was also listening on that port and could have got the messages intended for IPN, or some how those two servlets' processes mixed up and therefore couldn't respond to Paypal properly, and failed. In order to verify some of my guesses, I turn off Netbeans, and ran the Google guestbook again at the prompt, this time on my browser http://localhost:8080/ points to the demo guestbook page. My Urls look like this : [A] Paypal IPN : http://localhost:8080/PayPal_App/PayPal_Servlet [B] Web Academy : http://localhost:8080/ So now, my questions are : <1> Why the "Web Academy" servlet was auto started when I ran the Paypal servlet ? <2> If I change the IPN listening port to 8083, would that mean I can run both of them on my PC at the same time without affecting each other ? <3> But I still don't understand, [A] and [B] look different, if a page for [A] is refreshed, it should show the Paypal content, and another page looking at [B] should show the Web Academy content, and that's exactly what happens when I started Netbeans to run the Paypal servlet, both pages show their respective content correctly side by side without interfering with each other, how come the IPN messages couldn't get through 100% of the time ? <4> In Netbeans how to assign 8080 to servlet [A] and assign port 8083 to servlet [B] ? <5> How to turn off auto start of Web Academy by Netbeans ?

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  • MultiActionController no longer receiving requests?

    - by Stefan Kendall
    I was attempting to make changes to my controller, and all of a sudden, I no longer seem to receive any requests (404 when attempting to hit the servlet mapped URLs). I'm sure I've broken my web.xml or app-servlet.xml, but I just don't see where. I can access index.jsp from tomcat (http://IP/app/index.jsp), but I can't get my servlet mapping to work correctly. Help? web.xml: <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"> <web-app version = "2.4" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd"> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servet-mapping> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/myRequest</url-pattern> </servet-mapping> app-servlet.xml: <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"> <web-app version = "2.4" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd"> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servet-mapping> <servlet-name>app</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/myRequest</url-pattern> </servet-mapping> </web-app>

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  • DriverManager always returns my custom driver regardless of the connection URL

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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  • SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

    - by rhtx
    Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

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  • Accessing different connection strings at runtime in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve? UPDATE: I decided to abandon the modification of Web.config in lieu of a "request-scoped DataContext" pattern that I found here. From the looks of it, I believe it should give me the results I'm looking for. However, during the TextFixtureSetUp, I try to create a new copy of the database for testing purposes, and it fails silently. When I get to the tests, the repository still uses the production database connection string to load data.

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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

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  • How can I read/write data from a file?

    - by samy
    I'm writing a simple chrome extension. I need to create the ability to add sites URLs to a list, or read from the list. I use the list to open the sites in the new tabs. I'm looking for a way to have a data file I can write to, and read from. I was thinking on XML. I read there is a problem changing the content of files with Javascript. Is XML the right choice for this kinda thing? I should add that there is no web server, and the app will run locally, so maybe the problem websites are having are not same as this. Before I wrote this question, I tried one thing, and started to feel insecure because it didn't work. I made a XML file called Site.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Sites> <site> <url> http://www.sulamacademy.com/AddMsgForum.asp?FType=273171&SBLang=0&WSUAccess=0&LocSBID=20375 </url> </site> <site> <url> http://www.wow.co.il </url> </site> <site> <url> http://www.Google.co.il </url> </site> I made this script to read the data from him, and put in on the html file. function LoadXML() { var ajaxObj = new XMLHttpRequest(); ajaxObj.open('GET', 'Sites.xml', false); ajaxObj.send(); var myXML = ajaxObj.responseXML; document.write('<table border="2">'); var prs = myXML.getElementsByTagName("site"); for (i = 0; i < prs.length; i++) { document.write("<tr><td>"); document.write(prs[i].getElementsByName("url")[0].childNode[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td></tr>"); } document.write("</table"); }

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  • Eclipse RCP and JFace: Problems with Images in Context menu and TreeViewer

    - by Juri
    I'm working on an Eclipse RCP application. Today I experienced some troubles when displaying images in the context menu. What I wanted to do is to add a column to my table containing images of stars for representing a user rating. On Windows, this causes some problems, since the star images are squeezed up on the left corner of the table cell instead of expanding on the whole cell, but I'll solve that somehow. In addition I have a context menu on the table, with an entry called "rate" where again the different stars from 1 to 5 (representing the rating level) are shown, such that the user can click on it for choosing different ratings. That works fine on Windows. Now I switched to Linux (Ubuntu) to see how it works out there, and strangely, the stars in the table cell are layed out perfectly, while the stars on the context menu don't even show up. On the context menu I'm using an action class where I'm setting the image descriptor for the star images: public class RateAction extends Action { private final int fRating; private IStructuredSelection fSelection; public RateAction(int rating, IStructuredSelection selection) { super("", AS_CHECK_BOX); fRating = rating; fSelection = selection; setImageDescriptor(createImageDescriptor()); } /** * Creates the correct ImageDescriptor depending on the given rating * @return */ private ImageDescriptor createImageDescriptor() { ImageDescriptor imgDescriptor = null; switch (fRating) { case 0: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_0; case 1: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_1; case 2: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_2; case 3: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_3; case 4: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_4; case 5: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_5; default: break; } return imgDescriptor; } /* * @see org.eclipse.jface.action.Action#getText() */ @Override public String getText() { //return no text, since the images of the stars will be displayed return ""; } ... } Does somebody know why this strange behaviour appears? Thanks a lot. (For some strange reason, the images don't appear. Here are the direct URLs: http://img187.imageshack.us/img187/4427/starsratingho4.png http://img514.imageshack.us/img514/8673/contextmenuproblemgt1.png) //Edit: I did some tries and it seems as if the images just don't appear when using a Checkbox style for the context menu (see constructor of the RateAction). When I switched to a PushButton style, the images appeared, although not correctly scaled, but at least they were shown.

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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • Accessing a web service and a HTTP interface using certificate authentication

    - by ADC
    It is the first time I have to use certificate authentication. A commercial partner expose two services, a XML Web Service and a HTTP service. I have to access both of them with .NET clients. What I have tried 0. Setting up the environment I have installed the SSLCACertificates (on root and two intermediate) and the client certificate in my local machine (win 7 professional) using certmgr.exe. 1. For the web service I have the client certificate (der). The service will be consumed via a .NET proxy. Here's the code: OrderWSService proxy = new OrderWSService(); string CertFile = "ClientCert_DER.cer"; proxy.ClientCertificates.Add(new System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate(CertFile)); orderTrackingTO ot = new orderTrackingTO() { order_id = "80", tracking_id = "82", status = stateOrderType.IN_PREPARATION }; resultResponseTO res = proxy.insertOrderTracking(ot); Exception reported at last statement: The request failed with an empty response. 2. For the HTTP interface it is a HTTPS interface I have to call through POST method. The HTTPS request will be send from a .NET client using HTTPWebRequest. Here's the code: string PostData = "MyPostData"; //setting the request HttpWebRequest req; req = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(url); req.UserAgent = "MyUserAgent"; req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; req.ClientCertificates.Add(new System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate(CertFile, "MyPassword")); //setting the request content byte[] byteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(PostData); Stream dataStream = req.GetRequestStream(); dataStream.Write(byteArray, 0, byteArray.Length); dataStream.Close(); //obtaining the response WebResponse res = req.GetResponse(); r = new StreamReader(res.GetResponseStream()); Exception reported at last statement: The request was aborted: Could not create SSL/TLS secure channel. 3. Last try: using the browser In Chrome, after installing the certificates, if I try to access both urls I get a 107 error: Error 107 (net::ERR_SSL_PROTOCOL_ERROR) I am stuck.

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  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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  • HttpWebResponse get mixed up when used inside multiple threads

    - by Holli
    In my Application I have a few threads who will get data from a web service. Basically I just open an URL and get an XML output. I have a few threads who do this continuously but with different URLs. Sometimes the results are mixed up. The XML output doesn't belong to the URL of a thread but to the URL of another thread. In each thread I create an instance of the class GetWebPage and call the method Get from this instance. The method is very simple and based mostly on code from the MSDN documentation. (See below. I removed my error handling here!) public string Get(string userAgent, string url, string user, string pass, int timeout, int readwriteTimeout, WebHeaderCollection whc) { string buffer = string.Empty; HttpWebRequest myWebRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(userAgent)) myWebRequest.UserAgent = userAgent; myWebRequest.Timeout = timeout; myWebRequest.ReadWriteTimeout = readwriteTimeout; myWebRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pass); string[] headers = whc.AllKeys; foreach (string s in headers) { myWebRequest.Headers.Add(s, whc.Get(s)); } using (HttpWebResponse myWebResponse = (HttpWebResponse)myWebRequest.GetResponse()) { using (Stream ReceiveStream = myWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) { Encoding encode = Encoding.GetEncoding("utf-8"); StreamReader readStream = new StreamReader(ReceiveStream, encode); // Read 1024 characters at a time. Char[] read = new Char[1024]; int count = readStream.Read(read, 0, 1024); int break_counter = 0; while (count > 0 && break_counter < 10000) { String str = new String(read, 0, count); buffer += str; count = readStream.Read(read, 0, 1024); break_counter++; } } } return buffer; As you can see I have no public properties or any other shared resources. At least I don't see any. The url is the service I call in the internet and buffer is the XML Output from the server. Like I said I have multiple instances of this class/method in a few threads (10 to 12) and sometimes buffer does not belong the the url of the same thread but another thread.

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