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• Smoke testing a .NET web application

  - by pdr

  I cannot believe I'm the first person to go through this thought process, so I'm wondering if anyone can help me out with it. Current situation: developers write a web site, operations deploy it. Once deployed, a developer Smoke Tests it, to make sure the deployment went smoothly. To me this feels wrong, it essentially means it takes two people to deploy an application; in our case those two people are on opposite sides of the planet and timezones come into play, causing havoc. But the fact remains that developers know what the minimum set of tests is and that may change over time (particularly for the web service portion of our app). Operations, with all due respect to them (and they would say this themselves), are button-pushers who need a set of instructions to follow. The manual solution is that we document the test cases and operations follow that document each time they deploy. That sounds painful, plus they may be deploying different versions to different environments (specifically UAT and Production) and may need a different set of instructions for each. On top of this, one of our near-future plans is to have an automated daily deploy environment, so then we'll have to instruct a computer as to how to deploy a given version of our app. I would dearly like to add to that instructions for how to smoke test the app. Now developers are better at documenting instructions for computers than they are for people, so the obvious solution seems to be to use a combination of nUnit (I know these aren't unit tests per se, but it is a built-for-purpose test runner) and either the Watin or Selenium APIs to run through the obvious browser steps and call to the web service and explain to the Operations guys how to run those unit tests. I can do that; I have mostly done it already. But wouldn't it be nice if I could make that process simpler still? At this point, the Operations guys and the computer are going to have to know which set of tests relate to which version of the app and tell the nUnit runner which base URL it should point to (say, www.example.com = v3.2 or test.example.com = v3.3). Wouldn't it be nicer if the test runner itself had a way of giving it a base URL and letting it download say a zip file, unpack it and edit a configuration file automatically before running any test fixtures it found in there? Is there an open source app that would do that? Is there a need for one? Is there a solution using something other than nUnit, maybe Fitnesse? For the record, I'm looking at .NET-based tools first because most of the developers are primarily .NET developers, but we're not married to it. If such a tool exists using other languages to write the tests, we'll happily adapt, as long as there is a test runner that works on Windows.

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• IPHONE DEVELOPMENT PROFILE EXPIRED - I TRIED EVERYTHING AND YES, I READ THE DOCS

  - by theiphoneguy

  I really combed this site and others. I read and re-read the related links here and the Apple docs. I'm sorry, but either I am obviously missing something right under my nose, or this Apple profile/certificate stuff is a bit convoluted. Here it is: I have a product in the App Store. I have updated it several times and users like it. My development profile recently expired just when I was improving the app for its next release. I can run the app in the simulator. I can compile and put the distribution build on my iPhone just fine. I went to the Apple portal and renewed the development profile. I downloaded it and installed it in Xcode. I see it in the Organize window. I see it on my iPhone. I CANNOT put the debug build on my iPhone to debug or run with Instruments. The message is that either there is not a valid signed profile or it is untrusted. I subsequently tried to download and install the certificate to my Mac's keychain. Still no success. I checked the code signing section of Project settings and also for the target and the root. All appears to indicate that it is using the expected development profile for debug. Yes, I had deleted the old profile from my iPhone, from the Organizer. I cleaned the Xcode cache and all targets. I have done all of this several times and in varying sequences to try to cover every possibility. I am ready to do anything to be able to debug with Instruments in order to check for leaks or high memory usage. Even though the distribution compile runs fine on my iPhone and plays well with other running processes, I will not release anything without a leaks/memory test. Any ideas will be appreciated. If I missed something obvious, please forgive me - it was not due to just posting a question without searching for similar postings. Thanks!

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• Function Point Analysis -- a seriously overestimating technique?

  - by kizzx2

  I know questions about FPA has been asked numerous times before, but this time I'm taking a more analytical angle at it, backed up with data. 1. First, some data This question is based on a tutorial. He had a "Sample Count" section where he demonstrated it step by step. You can see some screenshots of his sample application here. In the end, he calculated the unadjusted FP to be 99. There is another article on InformIT with industry data on typical hour/FP. It ranges from 2 hours/FP to 27.4 hours/FP. Let's try to stick with 2 for the moment (since SO readers are probably the more efficient crowd :p). 2. Reality check!? Now just check out the screenshots again. Do a little math here 99 * 2 = 198 hours 198 hours / 40 hours per week = 5 weeks Seriously? That sample application is going to take 5 weeks to implement? Is it just my feeling that it wouldn't take any decent programmer longer than one week (I"m not even saying weekend) to have it completed? Now let's try estimating the cost of the project. We'll use New York's minimum wage at the moment (Wikipedia), which is $7.25 198 * 7.25 = $1435.5 From what I could see from the screenshots, this application is a small excel-improvement app. I could have bought MS Office Pro for 200 bucks which gives me greater interoperability (.xls files) and flexibility (spreadsheets). (For the record, that same Web site has another article discussing productivity. It seems like they typically use 4.2 hours/FP, which gives us even more shocking stats: 99 * 4.2 = 415 hours = 10 weeks = almost 3 whopping months! 415 hours * $7.25 = $3000 zomg (That's even assuming that all our poor coders get the minimum wage!) 3. Am I missing something here? Right now, I could come up with several possible explanation: FPA is really only suited for bigger projects (1000+ FPs) so it becomes extremely inaccurate at smaller scale. The hours/FP metric fluctuates abruptly from team to team, project to project. For a small project like this, we could have used something like 0.5 hour/FP or something. (Now this kind of makes the whole estimation thing pointless, unless my firm does the same type of projects for several years with the same team, not really common.) From my experience with several software metrics, Function Point is really not a lightweight metric. If the hour/FP thing fluctuates so much, then what's the point, maybe I could have gone with User Story Points which is a lot faster to get and arguably almost as uncertain. What would be the FP experts' answers to this?

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• What are the weaknesses of this user authentication method?

  - by byronh

  I'm developing my own PHP framework. It seems all the security articles I have read use vastly different methods for user authentication than I do so I could use some help in finding security holes. Some information that might be useful before I start. I use mod_rewrite for my MVC url's. Passwords are sha1 and md5 encrypted with 24 character salt unique to each user. mysql_real_escape_string and/or variable typecasting on everything going in, and htmlspecialchars on everything coming out. Step-by step process: Top of every page: session_start(); session_regenerate_id(); If user logs in via login form, generate new random token to put in user's MySQL row. Hash is generated based on user's salt (from when they first registered) and the new token. Store the hash and plaintext username in session variables, and duplicate in cookies if 'Remember me' is checked. On every page, check for cookies. If cookies set, copy their values into session variables. Then compare $_SESSION['name'] and $_SESSION['hash'] against MySQL database. Destroy all cookies and session variables if they don't match so they have to log in again. If login is valid, some of the user's information from the MySQL database is stored in an array for easy access. So far, I've assumed that this array is clean so when limiting user access I refer to user.rank and deny access if it's below what's required for that page. I've tried to test all the common attacks like XSS and CSRF, but maybe I'm just not good enough at hacking my own site! My system seems way too simple for it to actually be secure (the security code is only 100 lines long). What am I missing? I've also spent alot of time searching for the vulnerabilities with mysql_real_escape string but I haven't found any information that is up-to-date (everything is from several years ago at least and has apparently been fixed). All I know is that the problem was something to do with encoding. If that problem still exists today, how can I avoid it? Any help will be much appreciated.

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• Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

  - by Anonymouse

  At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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• MVC Entity Framework Model not returning correct data

  - by quagland

  Hi, Run into a strange problem while writing an ASP.NET MVC site. I have a view in my SQL Server database that returns a few date ranges. The view works fine when running the query in SSMS. When the view data is returned by the Entity Framework Model, It returns the correct number of rows but some of the rows are duplicated. Here is an example of what I have done: SQL Server code: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[A]( [ID] [int] NOT NULL, [PhID] [int] NULL, [FromDate] [datetime] NULL, [ToDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_A] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC)) ON [PRIMARY] go CREATE TABLE [dbo].[B]( [PhID] [int] NOT NULL, [FromDate] [datetime] NULL, [ToDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_B] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PhID] ASC )) ON [PRIMARY] go CREATE VIEW C as SELECT A.ID, CASE WHEN A.PhID IS NULL THEN A.FromDate ELSE B.FromDate END AS FromDate, CASE WHEN A.PhID IS NULL THEN A.ToDate ELSE B.ToDate END AS ToDate FROM A LEFT OUTER JOIN B ON A.PhID = B.PhID go INSERT INTO B (PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (100, '20100615', '20100715') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (1, NULL, '20100101', '20100201') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (1, 100, '20100615', '20100715') INSERT INTO B (PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (101, '20101201', '20101231') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (2, NULL, '20100801', '20100901') INSERT INTO A (ID, PhID, FromDate, ToDate) VALUES (2, 101, '20101201', '20101231') So now, if you select all from C, you get 4 separate date ranges In the Entity Framework Model (which I call 'Core'), the view 'C' is added. in MVC Controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { CoreEntities db = new CoreEntities(); var clist = from c in db.C select c; return View(clist.ToList()); } } in MVC View: @model List<RM.Models.C> @{ foreach (RM.Models.C c in Model) { @String.Format("{0:dd-MMM-yyyy}", c.FromDate) <span>-</span> @String.Format("{0:dd-MMM-yyyy}", c.ToDate) <br /> } } When I run all this, it outputs this: 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 When it should do this (this is what the view returns): 01-Jan-2010 - 01-Feb-2010 15-Jun-2010 - 15-Jul-2010 01-Aug-2010 - 01-Sep-2010 01-Dec-2010 - 31-Dec-2010 Also, I've run the SQL profiler over it and according to that, the query being executed is: SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], [Extent1].[FromDate] AS [FromDate], [Extent1].[ToDate] AS [ToDate] FROM (SELECT [C].[ID] AS [ID], [C].[FromDate] AS [FromDate], [C].[ToDate] AS [ToDate] FROM [dbo].[C] AS [C]) AS [Extent1] Which returns the correct data So it seems that the entity framework is doing something to the data in the meantime. To me, everything looks fine! Have I missed something? Cheers, Ben

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• Adding a link to image breaks jquery slider, help please!

  - by lewisqic

  Hi All, I am working on a site for a friend and trying to add a link to each image in a slide show. The slide show uses jquery and a script called easySlider1.7.js. Everything works just fine if the images are left alone, but when I try and wrap the images with a link, the slides no longer progress as they should. Here is the live website that is displaying the problem... http://www.splits59.com/ Here is the html code for each of the slide images... <div class="covercontent2box"> <div class="covercontent2"> <div id="slideshow"> <a href="/ashton-jacket-p-107.html"><img src="img/homepagesummer2010_2.2-cut.jpg" class="active" /></a> <a href="/carly-coverup-p-106.html"><img src="img/homepagesummer2010_3.2-cut.jpg" /></a> <a href="/shop-online-bottoms-c-15_14.html"><img src="img/homepagesummer2010_1.2-cut.jpg" /></a> </div> </div> </div> And here is the jquery code on the page that controls the slider... <script type="text/javascript"> function slideSwitch() { var $active = $('#slideshow IMG.active'); if ( $active.length == 0 ) $active = $('#slideshow IMG:last'); // use this to pull the images in the order they appear in the markup var $next = $active.next().length ? $active.next() : $('#slideshow IMG:first'); $active.addClass('last-active'); $next.css({opacity: 0.0}) .addClass('active') .animate({opacity: 1.0}, 1000, function() { $active.removeClass('active last-active'); }); } $(function() { setInterval( "slideSwitch()", 4500 ); }); </script> Does anyone have any idea why adding a link tag to the images breaks the slider? Any help or direction provided would be appreciated. Thanks, Devin

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• WPF Binding when setting DataTemplate Programically

  - by Daniel

  Hello, I have my little designer tool (my program). On the left side I have TreeView and on the right site I have Accordion. When I select a node I want to dynamically build Accordion Items based on Properties from DataContext of selected node. Selecting nodes works fine, and when I use this sample code for testing it works also. XAML code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> <layoutToolkit:AccordionItem Header="Controller Info"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </layoutToolkit:AccordionItem> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; //e.NewValue is a class that contains Name property } } } But the problem occurs when I'm trying to achive this using DateTemplate and dynamically build AccordingItem, the Binding is not working: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> and DateTemplate in my ResourceDictionary <DataTemplate x:Key="dtSceneNodeContent"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { ResourceDictionary rd = new ResourceDictionary(); rd.Source = new Uri("/SilverGL.GUI;component/SilverGLDesignerResourceDictionary.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; AccordionItem accController = new AccordionItem(); accController.Header = "Controller Info"; accController.ContentTemplate = rd["dtSceneNodeContent"] as DataTemplate; accPanel.Items.Add(accController); } else { // Other type of node } } } I really need help with this issue. Thanks for any support. Daniel

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• Codeigniter validation help

  - by Drew McGhie

  I'm writing a system where users can generate/run queries on demand based on the values of 4 dropdown lists. The lists are dynamically generated based on a number of factors, but at this point, I'm having problems validating the input using codeigniter's built in validation classes. I think I have things out of order, and I've tried looking at the codeigniter site, but I think I'm tripping myself up. in my view(/dashboard/dashboard_index.php), I have the following code block: <?=form_open('dashboard/dashboard_add');?> <select ... name='selMetric'> <select ... name='selPeriod'> <select ... name='selSpan'> <select ... name='selTactic'> <input type="submit" name="submit_new_query" value="Add New Graph" class="minbutton" ></input> <?=form_close();?> Then in my controller, I have the following 2 methods: function index() { $this->load->helper(array('form', 'url')); $this->load->library('validation'); //population of $data $this->load->tile('dashboard/dashboard_index', $data); } function dashboard_add() { $rules['selMetric'] = "callback_sel_check"; $rules['selPeriod'] = "callback_sel_check"; $rules['selSpan'] = "callback_sel_check"; $rules['selTactic'] = "callback_sel_check"; $this->validation->set_rules($rules); $fields['selMetric'] = "Metric"; $fields['selPeriod'] = "Time Period"; $fields['selSpan'] = "Time Span"; $fields['selTactic'] = "Tactic"; $this->validation->set_fields($fields); if ($this->validation->run() == false) { $this->index(); } else { //do stuff with validation information } } Here's my issue. I can get the stuff to validate correctly, but for the number of errors I have, I get Unable to access an error message corresponding to your field name. as the error message for everything. I think my issue that I have the $rules and $fields stuff in the wrong place, but I've tried a few permutations and I just keep getting it wrong. I was hoping I could get some advice on the correct place to put things.

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• Getting access to a binary response byte-by-byte in classic asp/JScript

  - by user89691

  I asked this question a few days ago but it seems to have gone cold fairly quickly. What I want to do is pretty simple and I can't believe someone hasn't figured it out. Solution needs to be JScript classic ASP. I am reading a file from a remote server and I want to process that (binary) file on my server and spit the results back to the client as XML. Here's a simplified version of what I am trying to do. This code runs, or will if the URL is filled in for your site. This test file is readbin.asp. It reads a file called test.bin, and writes the result to a stream. I used a stream because that makes it easier to read the file and parse the contents. Basically I want to: while not end of stream read byte from stream process byte here is readbin.asp: <%@ LANGUAGE = JScript %> <% var url = "http:// (... your URL to the file test.bin goes here...) " ; var xmlhttp = Server.CreateObject ("MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP") ; xmlhttp.open ("GET", url, false) ; xmlhttp.send () ; var BinaryInputStream = Server.CreateObject ("ADODB.Stream") ; BinaryInputStream.Type = 1 ; // binary BinaryInputStream.Open ; BinaryInputStream.Write (xmlhttp.responseBody) ; BinaryInputStream.Position = 0 ; Response.Write ("BinaryInputStream.size = " + BinaryInputStream.size + "<br>") ; Response.Write ("BinaryInputStream = " + BinaryInputStream + "<br>") ; var ByteValue = BinaryInputStream.read (1) ; Response.Write ("ByteValue = " + ByteValue + "<br>") ; Response.Write ("typeof (ByteValue) = " + typeof (ByteValue) + "<br>") ; %> My problem is: how do I get ByteValue as a number 0..255? typeof (ByteValue) is "unknown". Ord?? Byte()?? Asc?? Chr??

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• jQuery tablesorter - loss of functionality after AJAX call

  - by Nick

  I have recently been experimenting with the tablesorter plugin for jQuery. I have successfully got it up and running in once instance, and am very impressed. However, I have tried to apply the tablesorter to a different table, only to encounter some difficulties... Basically the table causing a problem has a <ul> above it which acts as a set of tabs for the table. so if you click one of these tabs, an AJAX call is made and the table is repopulated with the rows relevant to the specific tab clicked. When the page initially loads (i.e. before a tab has been clicked) the tablesorter functionality works exactly as expected. But when a tab is clicked and the table repopulated, the functionality disappears, rendering it without the sortable feature. Even if you go back to the original tab, after clicking another, the functionality does not return - the only way to do so is a physical refresh of the page in the browser. I have seen a solution which seems similar to my problem on this site, and someone recommends using the jQuery plugin, livequery. I have tried this but to no avail :-( If someone has any suggestions I would be most appreciative. I can post code snippets if it would help (though I know the instantiation code for tablesorter is fine as it works on tables with no tabs - so it's definitely not that!) EDIT: As requested, here are some code snippets: The table being sorted is <table id="#sortableTable#">..</table>, the instantiation code for tablesorter I am using is: $(document).ready(function() { $("#sortableTable").tablesorter( { headers: //disable any headers not worthy of sorting! { 0: { sorter: false }, 5: { sorter: false } }, sortMultiSortKey: 'ctrlKey', debug:true, widgets: ['zebra'] }); }); And I tried to rig up livequery as follows: $("#sortableTable").livequery(function(){ $(this).tablesorter(); }); This has not helped though... I am not sure whether I should use the id of the table with livequery as it is the click on the <ul> I should be responding to, which is of course not part of the table itself. I have tried a number of variations in the hope that one of them will help, but to no avail :-(

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• Contact form problem - I do receive messages, but no contents (blank page).

  - by nitbuntu

  I have a contact form on site which used to work, but since last few months has stopped working properly. This could have been due to some coding error that I can't figure out. What happens is that I receive the messages sent, but they are completely blank, with no contents at all. What could be the problems? I'm attaching first the front-end page, and then the back-end. Sample of contact.php the front-end code:- <div id="content"> <h2 class="newitemsxl">Contact Us</h2> <div id="contactcontent"> <form method="post" action="contactus.php"> Name:<br /> <input type="text" name="Name" /><br /> Email:<br /> <input type="text" name="replyemail" /><br /> Your message:<br /> <textarea name="comments" cols="40" rows="4"></textarea><br /><br /> <?php require("ClassMathGuard.php"); MathGuard::insertQuestion(); ?><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Send" /> * Refresh browser for a different question. :-) </form> </div> </div> Sample of contactus.php (backend code):- <?php /* first we need to require our MathGuard class */ require ("ClassMathGuard.php"); /* this condition checks the user input. Don't change the condition, just the body within the curly braces */ if (MathGuard :: checkResult($_REQUEST['mathguard_answer'], $_REQUEST['mathguard_code'])) { $mailto="[email protected]"; $pcount=0; $gcount=0; $subject = "A Stylish Goods Enquiry"; $from="[email protected]"; echo ("Great, you're message has been sent !"); //insert your code that will be executed when user enters the correct answer } else { echo ("Sorry, wrong answer, please go back and try again !"); //insert your code which tells the user he is spamming your website } while (list($key,$val)=each($HTTP_POST_VARS)) { $pstr = $pstr."$key : $val \n "; ++$pcount; } while (list($key,$val)=each($HTTP_GET_VARS)) { $gstr = $gstr."$key : $val \n "; ++$gcount; } if ($pcount > $gcount) { $comments=$pstr; mail($mailto,$subject,$comments,"From:".$from); } else { $comments=$gstr; mail($mailto,$subject,$comments,"From:".$from); } ?>

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• MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

  - by Michael

  This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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• What variable dictates position of non-focused elements in the roundabout plugin?

  - by kristina childs

  Part of the problem here is that i'm not sure what the best language to use in order to find the solution. I search and searched so please forgive if this is already a thread somewhere. I'm using the roundabout plugin to cycle through 3 divs. Each div is 794px wide, which makes the roundabout-in-focus element 794 and the two not in focus 315.218px wide, positioned so half of each is hidden by the in-focus div. This is all well and good, however the total width of the display needs to stay within 1000px (ideally 980px, but i can fudge if need be.) Basically I want to make the non-focused divs be 3/4 hidden by the in-focus div but for the life of me can't figure out what variables i need to edit in order to do it. Unfortunately it's not one of the many easily-changed options like z-index and minScale. i tried minScale but it's clear this isn't going to work. the plugin outputs this code: <li class="roundabout-moveable-item" style="position: absolute; left: -57px; top: 205px; width: 319.982px; height: 149.513px; opacity: 0.7; z-index: 146; font-size: 5.6px;"> i need to find out what changes the left positioning so it's shifted closer to the center of the stage, like this: <li class="roundabout-moveable-item" style="position: absolute; left: 5px; top: 205px; width: 319.982px; height: 149.513px; opacity: 0.7; z-index: 146; font-size: 5.6px;"> i tried playing with the positioning functions of the plugin but all that did was shift everything in tandem left or right. any help is greatly appreciated. this site is going to be awesome once i figure out all this jquery stuff! here is a link to my .js file: http://avalon.eaw.com/scripts/jquery.roundabout2.js i've got an overflow:hidden on the to help guide the positioning of those no-focused items.

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• Multiple checkbox values search javascript

  - by JV10

  I have a list of keywords, and I've created a checkbox for each. My template has a form wrapping the content, so I can't have a nested form around the checkbox list. How can I send the selected checkbox values to my search results page? The form that wraps the content doesn't have any actions or methods applied: <form id="BoostMasterForm" runat="server"> This the HTML markup of my checkbox list: <div class="checkboxes"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="one"> <label>one</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="two"> <label>two</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="three"> <label>three</label> </li> </ul> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </div> How can I use javascript or jQuery to submit the values of the multiple checkbox selections and on submit action them to the following URL: '/imagery/image-search.aspx' The resulting URL for a search where option 1 and 3 are submitted should be: '/imagery/image-search.aspx?search=one%20three' I'm using this javascript that I found on another post, however I need it to append the form an the action and the method. My website is ASP, where this post is for a PHP site: Sending multiple checkbox options $('.options').click(function() { var selectedItems = new Array(); $(".checkboxes input:checkbox[name=search]:checked").each(function() {selectedItems.push($(this).val());}); var data = selectedItems.join('|'); $("#opts").val(data); }); If anyone can help, it'd be greatly appreciated. Cheers, JV

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• php download file slows

  - by hobbywebsite

  OK first off thanks for your time I wish I could give more than one point for this question. Problem: I have some music files on my site (.mp3) and I am using a php file to increment a database to count the number of downloads and to point to the file to download. For some reason this method starts at 350kb/s then slowly drops to 5kb/s which then the file says it will take 11hrs to complete. BUT if I go directly to the .mp3 file my browser brings up a player and then I can right click and "save as" which works fine complete download in 3mins. (Yes both during the same time for those that are thinking it's my connection or ISP and its not my server either.) So the only thing that I've been playing around with recently is the php.ini and the .htcaccess files. So without further ado, the php file, php.ini, and the .htcaccess: download.php <?php include("config.php"); include("opendb.php"); $filename = 'song_name'; $filedl = $filename . '.mp3'; $query = "UPDATE songs SET song_download=song_download+1 WHER song_linkname='$filename'"; mysql_query($query); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($filedl)); header('Content-type: audio/mp3'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($filedl)); readfile('/music/' . $filename . '/' . $filedl); include("closedb.php"); ?> php.ini register_globals = off allow_url_fopen = off expose_php = Off max_input_time = 60 variables_order = "EGPCS" extension_dir = ./ upload_tmp_dir = /tmp precision = 12 SMTP = relay-hosting.secureserver.net url_rewriter.tags = "a=href,area=href,frame=src,input=src,form=,fieldset=" ; Defines the default timezone used by the date functions date.timezone = "America/Los_Angeles" .htaccess Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^(www.MindCollar.com)?$ [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://www.MindCollar.com/$1 [R=301,L] <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /errors/404.php ErrorDocument 403 /errors/403.php ErrorDocument 500 /errors/500.php </IfModule> Options -Indexes Options +FollowSymlinks <Files .htaccess> deny from all </Files> thanks for you time

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• Does the <script> tag position in HTML affects performance of the webpage?

  - by Rahul Joshi

  If the script tag is above or below the body in a HTML page, does it matter for the performance of a website? And what if used in between like this: <body> ..blah..blah.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> ... some text here too ... </body> Or is this better?: <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. </body> Or this one?: <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> </body> Need not tell everything is again in the <html> tag!! How does it affect performance of webpage while loading? Does it really? Which one is the best, either out of these 3 or some other which you know? And one more thing, I googled a bit on this, from which I went here: Best Practices for Speeding Up Your Web Site and it suggests put scripts at the bottom, but traditionally many people put it in <head> tag which is above the <body> tag. I know it's NOT a rule but many prefer it that way. If you don't believe it, just view source of this page! And tell me what's the better style for best performance.

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• Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

  - by Tim

  I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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• how do I make my submenu position dynamic based on the distance to the edge of the window?

  - by Mario Antoci

  I'm trying to write a jQuery script that will find the distance to the right edge of the browser window from my css class element and then position the child submenu dropdowns to the right or left depending on the available space to the right. Also it needs to revert to the default settings on hoverout. Here is what I have so far but it's not calculating properly. $(document).ready(function(){ $('#dnnMenu .subLevel').hover(function(){ if ($(window).width() - $('#dnnMenu .subLevel').offset().left - '540' >= '270') { $('#dnnMenu .subLevelRight').css('left', '270px');} else {$('#dnnMenu .subLevelRight').css('left', '-270px');} }); $(document).ready(function () { function HoverOver() { $(this).addClass('hover'); } function HoverOut() { $(this).removeClass('hover'); } var config = { sensitivity: 2, interval: 100, over: HoverOver, timeout: 100, out: HoverOut }; $("#dnnMenu .topLevel > li.haschild").hoverIntent(config); $(".subLevel li.haschild").hover(HoverOver, HoverOut); }); Basically I tried to take the width of the current window, minus the distance to the left edge of the browser of the first level submenu, minus the width of both elements together which would equal 540px, to calculate the distance to the right edge of the window when the first level submenu is hovered over. if the distance to the right of my first level submenu element is less than 540px then the second level sub menu css property is changed to position to the left instead of right. I also know that it needs to revert back to default after hover out so it can recalculate the distance from other positions within the menu structure and still have those second level submenus with enough room to still display on the right of the first level. here is css for the elements in question. #dnnMenu .subLevel{ display: none; position: absolute; margin: 0; z-index: 1210; background: #639ec8; text-transform: none;} #dnnMenu .subLevelRight{ position: absolute; display: none; left: 270px; top: 0px;} The site's not live yet and I tried to create a jsfiddle but it doesn't look right. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best Regards, Mario

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• Detecting abuse for post rating system

  - by Steven smethurst

  I am using a wordpress plugin called "GD Star Rating" to allow my users to vote on stories that I post to one of my websites. http://everydayfiction.com/ Recently we have been having a lot of abuse of the system. Stories that have obviously been voted up artificially. "GD Star Rating" creates some detailed logs when a user votes on a story. Including; IP, Time of vote, and user_adgent, ect.. For example this story has 181 votes with an average of 5.7 http://www.everydayfiction.com/snowman-by-shaun-simon/ Most other stories only get around ~40 votes each day. At first I thought that the story got on to a social bookmarking site Digg, Stumbleupon ect... but after checking the logs I found that this story is getting the same amount of traffic that a normal story gets ~2k-3k. I checked if all the votes for this perpendicular story where coming from a the same IP address. I could see this happening if a user was at a school's computer lab using all their lab computers to vote up this story. Not one duplicate IP address in the log for this story. SELECT ip, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY (ip ) ORDER BY count DESC Next I thought that a use might be using a proxy to vote up a story. I checked this by grouping all the browser user_agent together to see if there a single browser voting in a perpendicular way. At most 7 users where using a similar browser but voted sporadically (1-5), no evidence of wrong doing. SELECT user_agent, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY ( user_agent) ORDER BY count DESC I check was to see if all the votes came in at a once. Maybe someone has a really interesting bot that can change the user_adgent and uses proxies, ect... At most 5 votes came with in 2 mins of each other. It doesn't seem to be any regularity on how people vote (IE a 5 vote does not come in once a min) SELECT * FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id =3932 AND vote=5 ORDER BY wp_gdsr_votes_log.voted DESC The obvious solution to this problem is to force people to login before they are allowed to vote. But I would prefer to not have to go down that route unless it is absolutely necessary. I'm looking for suggestions on things to test for to detect the abuse.

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• Approach for authentication and storing user details.

  - by cappuccino

  Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

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• AJAX XML reply node value iteration

  - by XpiritO

  Hi there, guys. I would really appreciate to get your help on this, as I can't seem to detect and solve the problem I'm having with an AJAX functionality on a site that I'm currently developing. I have a webform that makes an asynchronous call to a handler (.ashx) that delivers a XML response that is later processed by a Javascript client-side function that places it's contents into the user-interface. I'm attaching an example of the response generated by my handler, and what I would like to know is how can I get all the <body> element innerHTML (with the text and child nodes) contents to append it to a <span> element on the user-interface. Can anyone help me out with this? XML Response returned by the handler (checked via Firebug): <message> <content> <messageId>2</messageId> <from>Barack Obama</from> <fromMail>[email protected]</fromMail> <subject>Yes, we can... get World Peace</subject> <body>Hello, dear citizen. I'm sending you this message to invite you to join us! <a href="http://www.whitehouse.gov">Test link</a> Thank you for your time.</body> </content> </message> Client-side Javascript function to affect the user-interface innerHTML property with the data returned via AJAX: function GetMessageContentsCallback(args, resp) { //XML Parser try { //Internet Explorer xmlDoc = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOM"); xmlDoc.async = "false"; xmlDoc.loadXML(resp); } catch (e) { parser = new DOMParser(); xmlDoc = parser.parseFromString(resp, "text/xml"); } var msgReply = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('message')[0]; var ajaxRespondeBodyInnerHTML = msgReply.getElementsByTagName(body)[0].firstChild.nodeValue; //this currently only delivers inner text content, without the <a href... bit and subsequent text document.getElementById("bodySpan").innerHTML = ajaxRespondeBodyInnerHTML; }

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• Creating a generic NotFound View in ASP.MVC

  - by George

  Hello guys, I'm having a problem to create a generic View to represent NotFound pages. The view is created and it's fine. I need to know how i can direct the user to the NotFound view in my Controllers and how to render a specific "Return to Index" in each controller. Here is some code: public class NotFoundModel { private string _contentName; private string _notFoundTitle; private string _apologiesMessage; public string ContentName { get; private set; } public string NotFoundTitle { get; private set; } public string ApologiesMessage { get; private set; } public NotFoundModel(string contentName, string notFoundTitle, string apologiesMessage) { this._contentName = contentName; this._notFoundTitle = notFoundTitle; this._apologiesMessage = apologiesMessage; } } // NotFound View <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Geographika.Models.NotFoundModel>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> <%= Html.Encode(Model.ContentName) %> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2><%= Html.Encode(Model.NotFoundTitle) %></h2> <p><%= Html.Encode(Model.ApologiesMessage) %></p> <!-- How can i render here a specific "BackToIndexView", but that it's not bound to my NotFoundModel? --> </asp:Content> // Controller piece of code // // GET: /Term/Details/2 public ActionResult Details(int id) { Term term = termRepository.SingleOrDefault(t => t.TermId == id); if (term == null) return View("NotFound"); // how can i return the specific view that its not bound to Term Model? // the idea here would be something like: // return View("NotFound",new NotFoundModel("a","b","c")); else return View("Details", term); } I'm not sure how to redirect to a whole different page. Can anyone give me any pointers? Thanks

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• Google Code + SVN or GitHub + Git

  - by Nazgulled

  Let me start by telling you that I never used anything besides SVN and I'm also a Windows user. I have a couple of simple projects that are open-source, others are on there way when I'm happy enough to release their source code but either way, I was thinking of using Google Code and SVN to share the source code of my projects instead of providing a link to the source on my website. This as always been a pain cause I had to update the binaries and the code every time I released a new version. This would also help me out to have a backup of my code some where instead of just my local machine (I used to have a local Subversion server running). What I want from a service like this is very simple... I just want a place to store my source code that people can download if they want, allows me to control revisions and provide a simple and easy issue system so people can submit bugs and stuff like that. I guess both of them have this. But I don't want to host any binaries in their websites, I want this to be hosted on my website so I can control download statistics with my own scripts, I also don't have the need for wiki pages as I prefer to have all the documentation in my own website. Does anyone of this services provide a way to "disable" features like wiki and downloads and don't show them at all for my project(s)? Now, I'm sure there are lots of pros and cons about using Google Code with SVN and GitHub with Git (of course) but here's what it's important for me on each one and why I like them: Google Code: As with any Google page, the complexity is almost non-existent Everyone (or almost) as a Google account and this is nice if people want to report problems using the issues system GitHub: May (or may not) be a little more complex (not a problem for me though) than Google's pages but... ...has a much prettier interface than Google's service It needs people to be registered on GitHub to post about issues I like the fact that with Git, you have your own revisions locally (can I use TortoiseGit for this or?) Basically that's it, not much I know... What other, most common, pros and cons can you tell me about each site/software? Keep in mind that my projects are simple, I'm probably the only one who will ever develop these projects on these repositories (or maybe not, for now I will)

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• markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

  - by spirytus

  For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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