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  • SpringBatch Jaxb2Marshaller: different name of class and xml attribute

    - by user588961
    I try to read an xml file as input for spring batch: Java Class: package de.example.schema.processes.standardprocess; @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "Process", namespace = "http://schema.example.de/processes/process", propOrder = { "input" }) public class Process implements Serializable { @XmlElement(namespace = "http://schema.example.de/processes/process") protected ProcessInput input; public ProcessInput getInput() { return input; } public void setInput(ProcessInput value) { this.input = value; } } SpringBatch dev-job.xml: <bean id="exampleReader" class="org.springframework.batch.item.xml.StaxEventItemReader" scope="step"> <property name="fragmentRootElementName" value="input" /> <property name="resource" value="file:#{jobParameters['dateiname']}" /> <property name="unmarshaller" ref="jaxb2Marshaller" /> </bean> <bean id="jaxb2Marshaller" class="org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller"> <property name="classesToBeBound"> <list> <value>de.example.schema.processes.standardprocess.Process</value> <value>de.example.schema.processes.standardprocess.ProcessInput</value> ... </list> </property> </bean> Input file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <process:process xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:process="http://schema.example.de/processes/process"> <process:input> ... </process:input> </process:process> It fires the following exception: [javax.xml.bind.UnmarshalException: unexpected element (uri:"http://schema.example.de/processes/process", local:"input"). Expected elements are <<{http://schema.example.de/processes/process}processInput] at org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.JaxbUtils.convertJaxbException(JaxbUtils.java:92) at org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.AbstractJaxbMarshaller.convertJaxbException(AbstractJaxbMarshaller.java:143) at org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller.unmarshal(Jaxb2Marshaller.java:428) If I change to in xml it work's fine. Unfortunately I can change neither the xml nor the java class. Is there a possibility to make Jaxb2Marshaller map the element 'input' to the class 'ProcessInput'?

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  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

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  • Android Google Analytics

    - by ibenot
    I'm trying to use Google Analytics in my Android application with Google Configuration Add .jar in my project Insert this in AndroidManifest Add this in my java file public class MainActivity extends Activity { GoogleAnalyticsTracker tracker; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); tracker = GoogleAnalyticsTracker.getInstance(); tracker.startNewSession("My-UA–XXXXXXXX", this); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button createEventButton = (Button)findViewById(R.id.NewEventButton); createEventButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { tracker.trackEvent( "Clicks", // Category "Button", // Action "clicked", // Label 77); // Value } }); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button createPageButton = (Button)findViewById(R.id.NewPageButton); createPageButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { // Add a Custom Variable to this pageview, with name of "Medium" and value "MobileApp" and // scope of session-level. tracker.setCustomVar(1, "Navigation Type", "Button click", 2); // Track a page view. This is probably the best way to track which parts of your application // are being used. // E.g. // tracker.trackPageView("/help"); to track someone looking at the help screen. // tracker.trackPageView("/level2"); to track someone reaching level 2 in a game. // tracker.trackPageView("/uploadScreen"); to track someone using an upload screen. tracker.trackPageView("/testApplicationHomeScreen"); } }); Button quitButton = (Button)findViewById(R.id.QuitButton); quitButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { finish(); } }); Button dispatchButton = (Button)findViewById(R.id.DispatchButton); dispatchButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { // Manually start a dispatch, not needed if the tracker was started with a dispatch // interval. tracker.dispatch(); } }); } @Override protected void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); // Stop the tracker when it is no longer needed. tracker.stopSession(); } } == And it's ok, no error, compiling and executing but i have created my ua account yesterday (more 24h) and i have nothing in my google analytics panel. My Question : is there an error in my code or i want to wait again ? Live trafic works for Android application (like tradicional website) ??? I have no information about Live trafic (when i play my app, i would like to show the number of person using my application) and Saved trafic (with viewed pages, time) Thank you for your replies and excuse my poor english :) bye

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  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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  • How can I execute an insert with data from a repeater-generated form whose data source is SQL?

    - by Duke
    I'm storing multilingual data in a database whose model is language normalized (like this). For this particular problem the key for the table in question consists of a value entered by the user and a language from the language table. I'd like to dynamically generate a form with input fields for all available languages. The user inputs a key value then goes down a list of field sets filling out the information in each language. In this case there are two fields for every language, a name and a value (the value is language dependent.) I have all existing information displayed on the page with a gridview, below which I have a formview that is always in insert mode allowing the user to enter new data. Within the formview I have a repeater with an SQLDataSource that gets a list of available languages: <asp:Repeater ID="SessionLocaleRepeater" runat="server" DataSourceID="LocaleSQLDataSource" EnableViewState="false"> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <th scope="row"><%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "LocaleName") %></th> <td>Name:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text="" /></td> <td>Number:</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server" Text="" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I figured that in order to insert this data I'd have to execute my sql server insert stored procedure for each item in the repeater; I am trying to use the formview inserting event. The problem is that the repeater isn't databound to the SQLDataSource until after the formview inserting event (inserting event is in PostBackEvent and databind is in PreRender), which means the controls and data are not available when the inserting event is fired. I tried databinding the repeater during the formview inserting event; the controls were available but the data was not. Would this have something to do with how/when the viewstate information is re-added to the controls? From what I've read, Viewstate is one of the first things to be restored. Given the order of events how can I get the data I need for the insert? I'm open to other solutions to creating dynamic input controls, but they will have to query the database to determine how many sets of controls to create.

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  • validate uniqueness amongst multiple subclasses with Single Table Inheritance

    - by irkenInvader
    I have a Card model that has many Sets and a Set model that has many Cards through a Membership model: class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :sets, :through => :memberships end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card belongs_to :set validates_uniqueness_of :card_id, :scope => :set_id end class Set < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships validates_presence_of :cards end I also have some sub-classes of the above using Single Table Inheritance: class FooCard < Card end class BarCard < Card end and class Expansion < Set end class GameSet < Set validates_size_of :cards, :is => 10 end All of the above is working as I intend. What I'm trying to figure out is how to validate that a Card can only belong to a single Expansion. I want the following to be invalid: some_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 25 ) first_expansion = Expansion.new second_expansion = Expansion.new first_expansion.cards = some_cards second_expansion.cards = some_cards first_expansion.save # Valid second_expansion.save # **Should be invalid** However, GameSets should allow this behavior: other_cards = FooCard.all( :limit => 10 ) first_set = GameSet.new second_set = GameSet.new first_set.cards = other_cards # Valid second_set.cards = other_cards # Also valid I'm guessing that a validates_uniqueness_of call is needed somewhere, but I'm not sure where to put it. Any suggestions? UPDATE 1 I modified the Expansion class as sugested: class Expansion < Set validate :validates_uniqueness_of_cards def validates_uniqueness_of_cards membership = Membership.find( :first, :include => :set, :conditions => [ "card_id IN (?) AND sets.type = ?", self.cards.map(&:id), "Expansion" ] ) errors.add_to_base("a Card can only belong to a single Expansion") unless membership.nil? end end This works when creating initial expansions to validate that no current expansions contain the cards. However, this (falsely) invalidates future updates to the expansion with new cards. In other words: old_exp = Expansion.find(1) old_exp.card_ids # returns [1,2,3,4,5] new_exp = Expansion.new new_exp.card_ids = [6,7,8,9,10] new_exp.save # returns true new_exp.card_ids << [11,12] # no other Expansion contains these cards new_exp.valid? # returns false ... SHOULD be true

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  • SQL Server - Get Inserted Record Identity Value when Using a View's Instead Of Trigger

    - by CuppM
    For several tables that have identity fields, we are implementing a Row Level Security scheme using Views and Instead Of triggers on those views. Here is a simplified example structure: -- Table CREATE TABLE tblItem ( ItemId int identity(1,1) primary key, Name varchar(20) ) go -- View CREATE VIEW vwItem AS SELECT * FROM tblItem -- RLS Filtering Condition go -- Instead Of Insert Trigger CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go If I want to insert a record and get its identity, before implementing the RLS Instead Of trigger, I used: DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); With the trigger, SCOPE_IDENTITY() no longer works - it returns NULL. I've seen suggestions for using the OUTPUT clause to get the identity back, but I can't seem to get it to work the way I need it to. If I put the OUTPUT clause on the view insert, nothing is ever entered into it. -- Nothing is added to @ItemIds DECLARE @ItemIds TABLE (ItemId int); INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId INTO @ItemIds VALUES ('MyName'); If I put the OUTPUT clause in the trigger on the INSERT statement, the trigger returns the table (I can view it from SQL Management Studio). I can't seem to capture it in the calling code; either by using an OUTPUT clause on that call or using a SELECT * FROM (). -- Modified Instead Of Insert Trigger w/ Output CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go -- Calling Code INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); The only thing I can think of is to use the IDENT_CURRENT() function. Since that doesn't operate in the current scope, there's an issue of concurrent users inserting at the same time and messing it up. If the entire operation is wrapped in a transaction, would that prevent the concurrency issue? BEGIN TRANSACTION DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = IDENT_CURRENT('tblItem'); COMMIT TRANSACTION Does anyone have any suggestions on how to do this better? I know people out there who will read this and say "Triggers are EVIL, don't use them!" While I appreciate your convictions, please don't offer that "suggestion".

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • SharePoint List Service Recursive not working

    - by stranger001
    Hi, I am using the following code to retrieve the documents in a list. Its working fine. However, it only returns documents and folders in root of the doc library. Is there any thing wrong I am doing here? I am looking for files in sub folders with recursive mode. Service service = new Service(); service.setMaintainSession(true); call = (Call) service.createCall(); call.setTargetEndpointAddress( new java.net.URL("<host>/_vti_bin/lists.asmx") ); call.setOperationName(new QName("http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/","GetListItems")); call.setProperty(Call.SOAPACTION_USE_PROPERTY, new Boolean("true")); call.setProperty(Call.SOAPACTION_URI_PROPERTY,"http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/GetListItems"); call.addParameter(new javax.xml.namespace.QName("http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/", "listName"), new javax.xml.namespace.QName("http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema", "string"), java.lang.String.class, javax.xml.rpc.ParameterMode.IN); MessageElement me = new MessageElement(new QName("QueryOptions")); me.addChildElement(new MessageElement(new QName( "IncludeMandatoryColumns"))).addTextNode("true"); me.addChildElement(new MessageElement(new QName( "ViewAttributes"))).addAttribute(javax.xml.soap.SOAPFactory.newInstance().createName("Scope"), "Recursive"); MessageElement[] me1 = {me}; String strMyString = "" + "<Query>" + "<OrderBy><FieldRef Name=\"ows_Modified\" Ascending=\"TRUE\" /></OrderBy>" + "</Query>"; MessageElement[] meArray = { getMeFromString(strMyString) };// Array call.addParameter("query",org.apache.axis.Constants.XSD_SCHEMA, javax.xml.rpc.ParameterMode.IN); call.addParameter("queryOptions",org.apache.axis.Constants.XSD_SCHEMA, javax.xml.rpc.ParameterMode.IN); call.setReturnType(org.apache.axis.Constants.XSD_SCHEMA); Schema ret = (Schema)call.invoke(new Object[] {"listGUID",meArray, me1 }); public org.apache.axis.message.MessageElement getMeFromString(final String strMyString) { DocumentBuilder docBuilder = null; try { docBuilder = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance().newDocumentBuilder(); } catch (final ParserConfigurationException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (final FactoryConfigurationError e) { e.printStackTrace(); } final StringReader reader = new StringReader(strMyString); final InputSource inputsource = new InputSource(reader); Document doc = null; try { doc = docBuilder.parse(inputsource); } catch (final SAXException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (final IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } final Element ele = doc.getDocumentElement(); final MessageElement msg = new MessageElement(ele); return msg; }

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • c# Lambda Expression built with LinqKit does not compile

    - by Frank Michael Kraft
    This lambda does not compile, but I do not understand why. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Linq.Expressions; using LinqKit; namespace ConsoleApplication2 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var barModel = new BarModel(); string id = "some"; Console.WriteLine(barModel.subFor(id).ToString()); // output: m => (True AndAlso (m.key == value(ConsoleApplication2.Bar`1+<>c__DisplayClass0[ConsoleApplication2.Model]).id)) Console.ReadKey(); var subworkitems = barModel.list.Where(barModel.subFor(id).Compile()); // Exception {"variable 'm' of type 'ConsoleApplication2.Model' referenced from scope '', but it is not defined"} Console.WriteLine(subworkitems.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } } class Bar<TModel> { public Bar(Expression<Func<TModel, string>> foreignKeyExpression) { _foreignKeyExpression = foreignKeyExpression; } private Expression<Func<TModel, string>> _foreignKeyExpression { get; set; } public Expression<Func<TModel, bool>> subFor(string id) { var ex = forTargetId(id); return ex; } public Expression<Func<TModel, bool>> forTargetId(String id) { var fc = _foreignKeyExpression; Expression<Func<TModel, bool>> predicate = m => true; var result = predicate.And(m => fc.Invoke(m) == id).Expand(); return result; } } class Model { public string key; public string value; } class BarModel : Bar<Model> { public List<Model> list; public BarModel() : base(m => m.key) { list = new List<Model>(); } } }

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  • How to setup Lucene/Solr for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 1 database per client (business customer) 5000 clients Clients have between 2 to 2000 users (avg is ~100 users/client) 100k to 10 million records per database Users need to search those records often (it's the best way to navigate their data) Possibly relevant info: Several new clients each week (any time during business hours) Multiple web servers and database servers (users can login via any web server) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. They use an index per client and store it in the client's database. I'm not sure on the details. And I'm not sure if this is a serious mod to Lucene. The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Where do you store the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • Facebook PHP SDK - can't pass parameters to getLoginUrl()

    - by Elliott
    I'm using the Facebook PHP SDK for simple login with extended permissions. I'm using the example code from the SDK docs, but I found that I need to manually clear out the FB session data otherwise if($user) comes back as true even though the user is logged out. I have the app going to logout.php upon logout; this page clears out the session vars and redirects to the app home page. Once I clear out the FB session data, log in/log out works fine. However, it stops working if I pass $params to the getLoginUrl function. Once I pass any params (I've tried several), the login breaks, either by not bringing up the second extended permissions screen or by refreshing the app page w/out login success. index page and logout page code follow. index.php <?php require 'services/facebook-php-sdk/src/facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '[APP_ID]', 'secret' => '[SECRET]', )); // Get User ID $user = $facebook->getUser(); if($user) { try { // Proceed knowing you have a logged in user who's authenticated. $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); $params = array('next' => 'http://'.$_SERVER["SERVER_NAME"].'/logout.php'); $logout_url = $facebook->getLogoutUrl($params); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); $user = null; } } else { $login_url = $facebook->getLoginUrl($params = array('redirect_uri' => 'http://'.$_SERVER["SERVER_NAME"].'/', 'scope' => 'read_stream')); } ?> <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> </head> <body> <?php if($user) { ?> <p><a href="<?php echo($logout_url); ?>">Log out</a></p> <?php } else { ?> <p><a href="<?php echo($login_url); ?>">Log in</a></p> <?php } ?> </body> </html> logout.php <?php session_start(); $fb_app_id = '[APP_ID]'; unset($_SESSION['fb_'.$fb_app_id.'_code']); unset($_SESSION['fb_'.$fb_app_id.'_access_token']); unset($_SESSION['fb_'.$fb_app_id.'_user_id']); unset($_SESSION['fb_'.$fb_app_id.'_state']); header('Location: http://'.$_SERVER["SERVER_NAME"].'/'); ?>

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  • CLR: Multi Param Aggregate, Argument not in Final Output?

    - by OMG Ponies
    Why is my delimiter not appearing in the final output? It's initialized to be a comma, but I only get ~5 white spaces between each attribute using: SELECT [article_id] , dbo.GROUP_CONCAT(0, t.tag_name, ',') AS col FROM [AdventureWorks].[dbo].[ARTICLE_TAG_XREF] atx JOIN [AdventureWorks].[dbo].[TAGS] t ON t.tag_id = atx.tag_id GROUP BY article_id The bit for DISTINCT works fine, but it operates within the Accumulate scope... Output: article_id | col ------------------------------------------------- 1 | a a b c I only have rudimentary C# API knowledge... C# Code: using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Data.SqlTypes; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Server; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Xml; using System.IO; using System.Collections; using System.Text; [Serializable] [SqlUserDefinedAggregate(Format.UserDefined, MaxByteSize = 8000)] public struct GROUP_CONCAT : IBinarySerialize { ArrayList list; string delimiter; public void Init() { list = new ArrayList(); delimiter = ","; } public void Accumulate(SqlBoolean isDistinct, SqlString Value, SqlString separator) { delimiter = (separator.IsNull) ? "," : separator.Value ; if (!Value.IsNull) { if (isDistinct) { if (!list.Contains(Value.Value)) { list.Add(Value.Value); } } else { list.Add(Value.Value); } } } public void Merge(GROUP_CONCAT Group) { list.AddRange(Group.list); } public SqlString Terminate() { string[] strings = new string[list.Count]; for (int i = 0; i < list.Count; i++) { strings[i] = list[i].ToString(); } return new SqlString(string.Join(delimiter, strings)); } #region IBinarySerialize Members public void Read(BinaryReader r) { int itemCount = r.ReadInt32(); list = new ArrayList(itemCount); for (int i = 0; i < itemCount; i++) { this.list.Add(r.ReadString()); } } public void Write(BinaryWriter w) { w.Write(list.Count); foreach (string s in list) { w.Write(s); } } #endregion }

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  • C++ abstract class template + type-specific subclass = trouble with linker

    - by user333279
    Hi there, The project in question is about different endpoints communicating with each other. An endpoint sends events (beyond the scope of the current problem) and can process incoming events. Each event is represented in a generic object as follows: #pragma interface ... // some includes template<typename T> class Event { public: Event(int senderId, Type type, T payload); // Type is an enum Event(int senderId, Type type, int priority, T payload); virtual ~Event(); virtual int getSenderId(); virtual int getPriority(); virtual T getPayload(); void setPriority(const int priority); protected: const int senderId; const Type type; const T payload; int priority; }; It has its implementing class with #pragma implementation tag. An endpoint is defined as follows: #pragma interface #include "Event.h" template<typename T> class AbstractEndPoint { public: AbstractEndPoint(int id); virtual ~AbstractEndPoint(); virtual int getId(); virtual void processEvent(Event<T> event) = 0; protected: const int id; }; It has its implementing class too, but only the constructor, destructor and getId() are defined. The idea is to create concrete endpoints for each different payload type. Therefore I have different payload objects and specific event classes for each type, e.g. Event<TelegramFormatA>, Event<TelegramFormatB> and ConcreteEndPoint for TelegramFormatA, ConcreteEndPoint for TelegramFormatB respectively. The latter classes are defined as class ConcreteEndPoint : AbstractEndPoint<TelegramFormatA> { ... } I'm using g++ 4.4.3 and ld 2.19. Everything compiles nicely, but the linker complaints about undefined references to type-specific event classes, like Event<TelegramFormatA>::Event(....) . I tried explicit instantiation using template class AbstractEndPoint<TelegramFormatA>; but couldn't get past the aforementioned linker errors. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Calling a JAVA method from C++ with JNI, no parameters

    - by PRNDL Development Studios
    Please bear with me, I am an iPhone developer and this whole android this confuses me a bit. I have some c++ methods that are called from a cocos2d-x CCMenuItem. Therefore I cannot send any parameters, according to the docs. I need to open a url with the android browser which will require me to call a JAVA function to start a new intent. I understand that I need to create a VM, however the below code gives me the error: jni/../../Classes/MyClass.cpp:184: error: 'JNI_CreateJavaVM' was not declared in this scope I was looking at this thread: Calling a java method from c++ in Android But he uses parameters, and I can't do that. And I don't see where those are in his code to just make them myself. I don't know what the string should be in the 'Find Class' method. Also, I assume it is pretty terrible to create a new VM instance in every method I need to call. How would I create one as a singleton to use across the board? This is my c++ code called by my menu item: #include <jni.h> ... JavaVM *vm; // Global ... void OptionsScene::website(){ JNIEnv *env; JavaVMInitArgs vm_args; vm_args.version = JNI_VERSION_1_2; vm_args.nOptions = 0; vm_args.ignoreUnrecognized = 1; jint result = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&vm, (void **)&env, &vm_args); // This line still errors jclass clazz = env->FindClass("com/prndl/project/WebExecute"); jmethodID method = env->GetMethodID(clazz, "website", "(Ljava/lang/String;)V"); env->CallVoidMethod(NULL,method); vm->DestroyJavaVM(); And this is the JAVA Method that I need to call: public class WebExecute extends Activity{ public void website(){ Intent browserIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://www.google.com")); startActivity(browserIntent); } } Honestly, I am struggling with this, any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking (xmltask)

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something? EDIT Thanks to the answer from Dimitre Novatchev I was able to find a workaround: <xmltask failwithoutmatch="true" report="false"> <fileset dir="${src.gen}/" includes="**/*-deploy.wsdd" /> <copy path="//*[local-name()='service']" buffer="tmpServiceBuf" append="true" /> </xmltask> <xmltask failwithoutmatch="true" report="false" source="${basedir}/env/axis/WEB-INF/server-config.wsdd" dest="${build.stage}/resources/WEB-INF/server-config.wsdd"> <insert path="//*[local-name()='transport'][last()]" buffer="tmpServiceBuf" position="after" /> </xmltask> Binding namespaces with xmltask (which is the tool that gave me the headaches) seems not to be possible. The code above did the trick.

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  • How to avoid my this facebook app api login page?

    - by user1035140
    I got a problem regrading with my apps which is once I go to my apps, it sure will show me a login page instead of allow page? it always display the login page 1st then only display allow page, I had tried other apps, if I am 1st time user, It sure will appear the allow page only, it did not show me the login page. my question is how to I avoid my login page direct go to allow page? here is my login page picture here is my apps link https://apps.facebook.com/christmas_testing/ here is my facebook php jdk api coding <?php $fbconfig['appid' ] = "XXXXXXXXXXXXX"; $fbconfig['secret'] = "XXXXXXXXXXXXX"; $fbconfig['baseUrl'] = "myserverlink"; $fbconfig['appBaseUrl'] = "http://apps.facebook.com/christmas_testing/"; if (isset($_GET['code'])){ header("Location: " . $fbconfig['appBaseUrl']); exit; } if (isset($_GET['request_ids'])){ //user comes from invitation //track them if you need header("Location: " . $fbconfig['appBaseUrl']); } $user = null; //facebook user uid try{ include_once "facebook.php"; } catch(Exception $o){ echo '<pre>'; print_r($o); echo '</pre>'; } // Create our Application instance. $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, )); //Facebook Authentication part $user = $facebook->getUser(); $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl( array( 'scope' => 'email,publish_stream,user_birthday,user_location,user_work_history,user_about_me,user_hometown' ) ); if ($user) { try { // Proceed knowing you have a logged in user who's authenticated. $user_profile = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { //you should use error_log($e); instead of printing the info on browser d($e); // d is a debug function defined at the end of this file $user = null; } } if (!$user) { echo "<script type='text/javascript'>top.location.href = '$loginUrl';</script>"; exit; } //get user basic description $userInfo = $facebook->api("/$user"); function d($d){ echo '<pre>'; print_r($d); echo '</pre>'; } ?

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  • jQuery getScript function with frames

    - by user210099
    Hello.. I'm a novice at Javascript/Jquery programming, so an apology if this is a simple/silly question. I am trying to use the jQuery .getScript() function to refresh part of an existing webpage. This webpage must be run on a local file system, and a large amount of the formatting is done using frames. Right now, there’s three main frames- a sidebar which displays possible “scopes” to choose from, a main frame which displays the majority of the contents of the webpage, and a footer frame. The main entry into the page is in an index.html file, which loads a sidebar.html, main.html, and footer.html file into each of the respective frames. In turn, the main.html has a number of javascript files which it loads, the main being a main.js, which contains numerous functions to format/process the contents for this main window. After loading this javascript file, main.html loads a few javascript files, which contain the data which is going to be displayed in the main frame. These files that are loaded have a fixed data structure, and are dependent on the functions that were loaded by the main.js file. Loading the webpage works fine now, but when a user tries to switch to another “scope”, the whole webpage is reloaded to make the switch. The only difference in the webpage is the content in the main.js frame, loaded in by a different set of .js files. Enough text, let’s look at some code. When the webpage loads, I tried to add a simple call to the getScript function in a .js file at the index.html level which handles switching scopes. This file, newFile, has different data definitions than the previously loaded oldFile.js which was loaded in the main.html file. $.getScript(/js/newFile.js); However this doesn’t work, since newFile.js depends on a parseData() function which is in main.js. If I open firebug up, parseData is not located in the dom tab, which I assume is related to some scoping issue with the main.html and main.js file existing in a different frame. I tried to do some targeting to the correct “frame” but I don’t think I understand jQuery enough to know what is happening. $(window.parent.frames[0]).getScript(/js/newFile.js); Any suggestions? If I were to type into firebug console “parseData” it can not find it: “ReferenceError: parseData is not defined” However, if I type in window.parent.frames[1].parseData, it can find the function. Sorry about all the rambling and poor understanding of javascript. Hopefully someone can provide some assistance! Thanks

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  • Disregard a particular TD element

    - by RussellDias
    Below I have the code that allows me to edit a table row inline. However it edits ALL of the TDs within that row. My problem, along with the code, are stated below. Any help is appreciated. <tbody> <tr> <th scope="row">Test</th> <td class="amount">$124</td> <td class="amount" id="" >$154</td> <td class="diff">- 754</td> </tr> </tbody> The above table is just a sample. What I have been trying to accomplish is, to simply edit the TDs within that particular row, but I need it to disregard the diff TD. I'm fairly new to jQuery and have got the following code via the help of a jQuery book. $(document).ready(function() { TABLE.formwork('#current-expenses'); }); var TABLE = {}; TABLE.formwork = function(table){ var $tables = $(table); $tables.each(function () { var _table = $(this); _table.find('thead tr').append($('<th class="edit">&nbsp;</th>')); _table.find('tbody tr').append($('<td class="edit"><input type="button" value="Edit"/></td>')) }); $tables.find('.edit :button').live('click', function(e) { TABLE.editable(this); e.preventDefault(); }); } TABLE.editable = function(button) { var $button = $(button); var $row = $button.parents('tbody tr'); var $cells = $row.children('td').not('.edit'); if($row.data('flag')) { // in edit mode, move back to table // cell methods $cells.each(function () { var _cell = $(this); _cell.html(_cell.find('input').val()); }) $row.data('flag',false); $button.val('Edit'); } else { // in table mode, move to edit mode // cell methods $cells.each(function() { var _cell = $(this); _cell.data('text', _cell.html()).html(''); if($('td.diff')){ var $input = $('<input type="text" />') .val(_cell.data('text')) .width(_cell.width() - 16); _cell.append($input); } }) $row.data('flag', true); $button.val('Save'); } } I have attempted to alter the code so that it would disregard the diff class TD, but have had no luck so far.

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  • Animating and moving a draggable shape in KineticJS's dragend event

    - by user3712941
    I would like to animate moving a draggable shape to another position after it has been dragged in KineticJS. I would like to animate the movement of the shape over a period of time (for example, over 1 second). For example, I create a draggable shape and save its initial xy coordinates. I register a "dragend" event on this shape. Then, I drag the shape to a new position. When I release the drag, the dragend event is called. In that event function, I want to animate/ease the shape back to its original position. See my JSFiddle for a complete example: DragSample. (function () { //create variables at global scope var layer; var stage; var triangle; var triangleLastX = 190; var triangleLastY = 120; var tween; function initTween() { tween = new Kinetic.Tween({ node: triangle, duration: 1, easing: Kinetic.Easings.EaseInOut, x: 400, y: 200, }); } this.init = function () { layer = new Kinetic.Layer(); stage = new Kinetic.Stage({ container: 'container', width: 800, height: 600 }); triangle = new Kinetic.RegularPolygon({ x: 190, y: 120, sides: 3, radius: 80, fill: '#00D2FF', stroke: 'black', strokeWidth: 4, draggable: true }); triangle.on('dragstart', function () { triangleLastX = triangle.attrs.x; triangleLastY = triangle.attrs.y; }); triangle.on('dragend', function () { tween.play(); stage.draw(); }); layer.add(triangle); stage.add(layer); initTween (); } window.onload = init(); })(); I have tried doing this several ways. The last way I attempted to do this was using Kinetic's Tween(), however, when I play this Tween from the dragend event handler function, it moves the shape back to its original position immediately (i.e. the position when the drag started), then applies the Tween. Is there any way to achieve animating the movement of a draggable shape to its original position (or any other position for that matter) in dragend using KineticJS?

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  • A question about making a C# class persistant during a file load

    - by Adam
    Apologies for the indescriptive title, however it's the best I could think of for the moment. Basically, I've written a singleton class that loads files into a database. These files are typically large, and take hours to process. What I am looking for is to make a method where I can have this class running, and be able to call methods from within it, even if it's calling class is shut down. The singleton class is simple. It starts a thread that loads the file into the database, while having methods to report on the current status. In a nutshell it's al little like this: public sealed class BulkFileLoader { static BulkFileLoader instance = null; int currentCount = 0; BulkFileLoader() public static BulkFileLoader Instance { // Instanciate the instance class if necessary, and return it } public void Go() { // kick of 'ProcessFile' thread } public void GetCurrentCount() { return currentCount; } private void ProcessFile() { while (more rows in the import file) { // insert the row into the database currentCount++; } } } The idea is that you can get an instance of BulkFileLoader to execute, which will process a file to load, while at any time you can get realtime updates on the number of rows its done so far using the GetCurrentCount() method. This works fine, except the calling class needs to stay open the whole time for the processing to continue. As soon as I stop the calling class, the BulkFileLoader instance is removed, and it stops processing the file. What I am after is a solution where it will continue to run independently, regardless of what happens to the calling class. I then tried another approach. I created a simple console application that kicks off the BulkFileLoader, and then wrapped it around as a process. This fixes one problem, since now when I kick off the process, the file will continue to load even if I close the class that called the process. However, now the problem I have is that cannot get updates on the current count, since if I try and get the instance of BulkFileLoader (which, as mentioned before is a singleton), it creates a new instance, rather than returning the instance that is currently in the executing process. It would appear that singletons don't extend into the scope of other processes running on the machine. In the end, I want to be able to kick off the BulkFileLoader, and at any time be able to find out how many rows it's processed. However, that is even if I close the application I used to start it. Can anyone see a solution to my problem?

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  • PHP Array Not Working in Function

    - by lemonpole
    Hello all. I'm currently experimenting with arrays in PHP, and I created a fake environment where a team's information will be displayed. $t1 = array ( "basicInfo" => array ( "The Sineps", "December 25, 2010", "lemonpole" ), "overallRecord" => array (0, 0, 0, 0), "overallSeasons" => array ( 1 => array (14, 0, 0), 2 => array (9, 5, 2), 3 => array (12, 4, 0), 4 => array (3, 11, 2) ), "games" => array ( "<img src=\"images/cs.gif\" alt=\"Counter-Strike\" />", "<img src=\"images/cs.gif\" alt=\"Counter-Strike\" />", "<img src=\"images/cs.gif\" alt=\"Counter-Strike\" />", "<img src=\"images/cs.gif\" alt=\"Counter-Strike\" />" ), "seasonHistory" => array ( "Season I", "Season II", "Season III", "Season IV" ), "divisions" => array ( "Open", "Main", "Main", "Invite" ) ); // Displays the seasons the team has been in along // with the record of each season. function seasonHistory() { // Make array variable local-scope. global $t1; // Count the number of seasons. $numrows = count($t1["seasonHistory"]); // Loop through all the variables until // it reaches the last entry made and display // each item seperately. for($v = 0; $v <= $numrows; $v++) { // Echo each season. echo "<tr><td>{$t1["games"][$v]}</td>"; echo "<td>{$t1["seasonHistory"][$v]}</td>"; echo "<td>{$t1["divisions"][$v]}</td></tr>"; } } I have tested several possible problems out and after narrowing them down I have come down to one conclusion and that is my function is not connecting to the array for some reason. I don't know what else to do because I thought making the array global would fix that problem. What works: I can echo $t1["games"][0] on the page I need it to display and it gives me the content. I tried echo $t1["games"][0] INSIDE the function and then calling the function and it doesn't display anything.

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  • SSIS - user variable used in derived column transform is not available - in some cases

    - by soo
    Unfortunately I don't have a repro for my issue, but I thought I would try to describe it in case it sounds familiar to someone... I am using SSIS 2005, SP2. My package has a package-scope user variable - let's call it user_var first step in the control flow is an Execute SQL task which runs a stored procedure. All that SP does is insert a record in a SQL table (with an identity column) and then go back and get the max ID value. The Execute SQL task saves this output into user_var the control flow then has a Data Flow Task - it goes and gets some source data, has a derived column which sets a column called run_id to user_var - and saves the data to a SQL destination In most cases (this template is used for many packages, running every day) this all works great. All of the destination records created get set with a correct run_id. However, in some cases, there is a set of the destination data that does not get run_id equal to user_var, but instead gets a value of 0 (0 is the default value for user_var). I have 2 instances where this has happened, but I can't make it happen. In both cases, it was just less that 10,000 records that have run_id = 0. Since SSIS writes data out in 10,000 record blocks, this really makes me think that, for the first set of data written out, user_var was not yet set. Then, after that first block, for the rest of the data, run_id is set to a correct value. But control passed on to my data flow from the Execute SQL task - it would have seemed reasonable to me that it wouldn't go on until the SP has completed and user_var is set. Maybe it just runs the SP, but doesn't wait for it to complete? In both cases where this has happened there seemed to be a few packages hitting the table to get a new user_var at about the same time. And in both cases lots of data was written (40 million rows, 60 million rows) - my thinking is that that means the writes were happening for a while. Sorry to be both long-winded AND vague. A winning combination! Does this sound familiar to anyone? Thanks.

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