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  • Error mounting CloudDrive snapshot in Azure

    - by Dave
    Hi, I've been running a cloud drive snapshot in dev for a while now with no probs. I'm now trying to get this working in Azure. I can't for the life of me get it to work. This is my latest error: Microsoft.WindowsAzure.Storage.CloudDriveException: Unknown Error HRESULT=D000000D ---> Microsoft.Window.CloudDrive.Interop.InteropCloudDriveException: Exception of type 'Microsoft.WindowsAzure.CloudDrive.Interop.InteropCloudDriveException' was thrown. at ThrowIfFailed(UInt32 hr) at Microsoft.WindowsAzure.CloudDrive.Interop.InteropCloudDrive.Mount(String url, SignatureCallBack sign, String mount, Int32 cacheSize, UInt32 flags) at Microsoft.WindowsAzure.StorageClient.CloudDrive.Mount(Int32 cacheSize, DriveMountOptions options) Any idea what is causing this? I'm running both the WorkerRole and Storage in Azure so it's nothing to do with the dev simulation environment disconnect. This is my code to mount the snapshot: CloudDrive.InitializeCache(localPath.TrimEnd('\\'), size); var container = _blobStorage.GetContainerReference(containerName); var blob = container.GetPageBlobReference(driveName); CloudDrive cloudDrive = _cloudStorageAccount.CreateCloudDrive(blob.Uri.AbsoluteUri); string snapshotUri; try { snapshotUri = cloudDrive.Snapshot().AbsoluteUri; Log.Info("CloudDrive Snapshot = '{0}'", snapshotUri); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new InvalidCloudDriveException(string.Format( "An exception has been thrown trying to create the CloudDrive '{0}'. This may be because it doesn't exist.", cloudDrive.Uri.AbsoluteUri), ex); } cloudDrive = _cloudStorageAccount.CreateCloudDrive(snapshotUri); Log.Info("CloudDrive created: {0}", snapshotUri, cloudDrive); string driveLetter = cloudDrive.Mount(size, DriveMountOptions.None); The .Mount() method at the end is what's now failing. Please help as this has me royally stumped! Thanks in advance. Dave

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  • Button Click Event Getting Lost

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a Menu and Submenu structure in Silverlight, and I want the submenu to disappear when the parent menu item loses focus - standard Menu behavior. I've noticed that the submenu's click events are lost when a submenu item is clicked, because the parent menu item loses focus and the submenu disappears. It's easier to explain with code: ParentMenuBtn.Click += delegate { SubMenu.Visibility = (SubMenu.Visibility == Visibility.Visible) ? SubMenu.Collapsed : SubMenu.Visible; }; ParentMenuBtn.LostFocus += delegate { SubMenu.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; }; SubMenuBtn.Click += delegate { throw new Exception("This will never be thrown."); }; In my example, when SubMenuBtn is clicked, the first event that triggers is ParentMenuBtn.LostFocus(), which hides the container of SubMenuBtn. Once the container's visibility collapses, the Click event is never triggered. I'd rather avoid having to hide the sub-menu each time, but I'm a little surprised that the Click event is never triggered as a result... I can't put any checks inside the LostFocus() event to see if my SubMenuBtn has focus, because it does not gain focus until after the LostFocus() event is called. In other words, SubMenuBtn.IsFocused = false when LostFocus() is triggered. Anyone have any thoughts about this?

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  • Debugging strategy to find the cause of bad_alloc

    - by SalamiArmi
    I have a fairly serious bug in my program - occasional calls to new() throw a bad_alloc. From the documentation I can find on bad_alloc, it seems to be thrown for these reasons: When the computer runs out of memory (which definitely isn't happening, I have 4GB of RAM, program throws bad_alloc when using less than 5MB (checked in taskmanager) with nothing serious running in the background). If the memory becomes too fragmented to allocate new blocks (which, again, is unlikely - the largest sized block I ever allocate would be about 1KB, and that doesn't get done more than 100 times before the crash occurs). Based on these descriptions, I don't really have anywhere in which a bad_alloc could be thrown. However, the application I am running runs more than one thread, which could possibly be contributing to the problem. By testing all of the objects on a single thread, everything seems to be working smoothly. The only other thing that I can think of that is going on here could be some kind of race-condition caused by calling new() in more than one place at the same time, but I've tried adding mutexes to prevent that behaviour to no effect. Because the program is several hundred lines and I have no idea where the problem actually lies, I'm not sure of what, if any, code snippets to post. Instead, I was wondering if there were any tools that will help me test for this kind of thing, or if there are any general strategies that can help me with this problem. I'm using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008, with Poco for threading.

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  • Programmer Puzzle: Encoding a chess board state throughout a game

    - by Andrew Rollings
    Not strictly a question, more of a puzzle... Over the years, I've been involved in a few technical interviews of new employees. Other than asking the standard "do you know X technology" questions, I've also tried to get a feel for how they approach problems. Typically, I'd send them the question by email the day before the interview, and expect them to come up with a solution by the following day. Often the results would be quite interesting - wrong, but interesting - and the person would still get my recommendation if they could explain why they took a particular approach. So I thought I'd throw one of my questions out there for the Stack Overflow audience. Question: What is the most space-efficient way you can think of to encode the state of a chess game (or subset thereof)? That is, given a chess board with the pieces arranged legally, encode both this initial state and all subsequent legal moves taken by the players in the game. No code required for the answer, just a description of the algorithm you would use. EDIT: As one of the posters has pointed out, I didn't consider the time interval between moves. Feel free to account for that too as an optional extra :) EDIT2: Just for additional clarification... Remember, the encoder/decoder is rule-aware. The only things that really need to be stored are the player's choices - anything else can be assumed to be known by the encoder/decoder. EDIT3: It's going to be difficult to pick a winner here :) Lots of great answers!

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  • Push different views from a table.

    - by Tanner
    Hello All, Ive been following a tutorial to implement a search bar ( http://www.iphonesdkarticles.com/2009/01/uitableview-searching-table-view.html ) However I cant seem to push different views. Here is what my didsSelectRowAtIndexPath looks like. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *selectedCountry = nil; if(searching) selectedCountry = [copyListOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; else { NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Countries"]; selectedCountry = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; } //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. if ([[listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual:@"neon"]){ Neon *abo = [[Neon alloc] initWithNibName:@"Neon" bundle:nil]; //dvController.selectedCountry = selectedCountry; [self.navigationController pushViewController:abo animated:YES]; [abo release]; } } And here is the debuger message when I click on neon: 2010-05-09 08:47:27.516 iTeachU[3821:307] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: ' -[NSMutableArray objectAtIndex:]: index 60 beyond bounds [0 .. 0]' ** Call stack at first throw: terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' Program received signal: “SIGABRT”. If anyone has a way to push views based on the cells text it would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

    - by RemotecUk
    Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

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  • C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

    - by Sef
    Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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  • ClassNotFoundException when connecting to Mysql with JDBC

    - by Jacob Lyles
    I'm getting the following error when I try to run a simple Java JDBC program at the command line: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: LoadDriver/java Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: LoadDriver.java at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:315) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:330) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:250) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:398) Here's the simple Java program, copied right out of the JDBC docs: import java.sql.Connection; import java.sql.DriverManager; import java.sql.SQLException; // Notice, do not import com.mysql.jdbc.* // or you will have problems! public class LoadDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { try { // The newInstance() call is a work around for some // broken Java implementations Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; // handle the error } } } Problem is, I'm bloody sure my bash shell $ClASSPATH variable is pointed at the correct .jar file. To be sure, I copied the JDBC .jar to the same directory as my program and ran it as follows: java -classpath ./mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar LoadDriver.java I still get the same error. I'm running under Mac OSX, if it matters.

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  • How to refresh jasper image without flickering?

    - by Aru
    Hi, I am using jasper reports to generate graph. I am refresheing the graph. But the problem is while refreshing the graph it is flickering. Code is- PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); JRDataSource dataSource = createReportDataSource(perfArrayListSample.toArray()); ServletContext context = this.getServletConfig().getServletContext(); File reportFile = new File(context.getRealPath("/cpuUsageGraph.jasper")); if (!reportFile.exists()) throw new JRRuntimeException("File cpuUsageGraph.jasper not found. The report design must be compiled first."); JasperReport jasperReport = (JasperReport)JRLoader.loadObject(reportFile.getPath()); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, new HashMap(), dataSource); JRHtmlExporter exporter = new JRHtmlExporter(); request.getSession().setAttribute(ImageServlet.DEFAULT_JASPER_PRINT_SESSION_ATTRIBUTE, print); exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.JASPER_PRINT, print); exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.OUTPUT_WRITER, out); exporter.setParameter(JRHtmlExporterParameter.IMAGES_URI, "image?ver="+new Date().getTime() +"&image="); exporter.exportReport(); perfArrayListSample.clear(); So how to refresh the graph wihout flickering?

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  • Refactoring ADO.NET - SqlTransaction vs. TransactionScope

    - by marc_s
    I have "inherited" a little C# method that creates an ADO.NET SqlCommand object and loops over a list of items to be saved to the database (SQL Server 2005). Right now, the traditional SqlConnection/SqlCommand approach is used, and to make sure everything works, the two steps (delete old entries, then insert new ones) are wrapped into an ADO.NET SqlTransaction. using (SqlConnection _con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { using (SqlTransaction _tran = _con.BeginTransaction()) { try { SqlCommand _deleteOld = new SqlCommand(......., _con); _deleteOld.Transaction = _tran; _deleteOld.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", 5); _con.Open(); _deleteOld.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlCommand _insertCmd = new SqlCommand(......, _con); _insertCmd.Transaction = _tran; // add parameters to _insertCmd foreach (Item item in listOfItem) { _insertCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } _tran.Commit(); _con.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log exception _tran.Rollback(); throw; } } } Now, I've been reading a lot about the .NET TransactionScope class lately, and I was wondering, what's the preferred approach here? Would I gain anything (readibility, speed, reliability) by switching to using using (TransactionScope _scope = new TransactionScope()) { using (SqlConnection _con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { .... } _scope.Complete(); } What you would prefer, and why? Marc

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  • Oracle Data Provider and casting

    - by mrjoltcola
    I use Oracle's specific data provider, not the Microsoft provider that is being discontinued. The thing I've found about ODP.NET is how picky it is with data types. Where JDBC and other ADO providers just convert and make things work, ODP.NET will throw an invalid cast exception unless you get it exactly right. Consider this code: String strSQL = "SELECT DOCUMENT_SEQ.NEXTVAL FROM DUAL"; OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand(strSQL, conn); reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (reader != null && reader.Read()) { Int64 id = reader.GetInt64(0); return id; } Due to ODP.NET's pickiness on conversion, this doesn't work. My usual options are: 1) Retrieve into a Decimal and return it with a cast to an Int64 (I don't like this because Decimal is just overkill, and at least once I remember reading it was deprecated...) Decimal id = reader.GetDecimal(0); return (Int64)id; 2) Or cast in the SQL statement to make sure it fits into Int64, like NUMBER(18) String strSQL = "SELECT CAST(DOCUMENT_SEQ.NEXTVAL AS NUMBER(18)) FROM DUAL"; I do (2), because I feel its just not clean pulling a number into a .NET Decimal when my domain types are Int32 or Int64. Other providers I've used are nice (smart) enough to do the conversion on the fly. Any suggestions from the ODP.NET gurus?

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  • sqrt(int_value + 0.0) -- Does it have a purpose?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, while doing some homework in my very strange C++ book, which I've been told before to throw away, had a very peculiar code segment. I know homework stuff always throws in extra "mystery" to try to confuse you like indenting 2 lines after a single-statement for-loop. But this one I'm confused on because it seems to serve some real-purpose. basically it is like this: int counter=10; ... if(pow(floor(sqrt(counter+0.0)),2) == counter) ... I'm interested in this part especially: sqrt(counter+0.0) Is there some purpose to the +0.0? Is this the poormans way of doing a static cast to a double? Does this avoid some compiler warning on some compiler I do not use? The entire program printed the exact same thing and compiled without warnings on g++ whenever I left out the +0.0 part. Maybe I'm not using a weird enough compiler? Edit: Also, does gcc just break standard and not make an error for Ambiguous reference since sqrt can take 3 different types of parameters? [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ cat calc.cpp #include <cmath> int main(){ int counter=0; sqrt(counter); } [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ g++ calc.cpp /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcpy() is almost always misused, please use strlcpy() /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcat() is almost always misused, please use strlcat() [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $

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  • How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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  • Best approach to storing image pixels in bottom-up order in Java

    - by finnw
    I have an array of bytes representing an image in Windows BMP format and I would like my library to present it to the Java application as a BufferedImage, without copying the pixel data. The main problem is that all implementations of Raster in the JDK store image pixels in top-down, left-to-right order whereas BMP pixel data is stored bottom-up, left-to-right. If this is not compensated for, the resulting image will be flipped vertically. The most obvious "solution" is to set the SampleModel's scanlineStride property to a negative value and change the band offsets (or the DataBuffer's array offset) to point to the top-left pixel, i.e. the first pixel of the last line in the array. Unfortunately this does not work because all of the SampleModel constructors throw an exception if given a negative scanlineStride argument. I am currently working around it by forcing the scanlineStride field to a negative value using reflection, but I would like to do it in a cleaner and more portable way if possible. e.g. is there another way to fool the Raster or SampleModel into arranging the pixels in bottom-up order but without breaking encapsulation? Or is there a library somewhere that will wrap the Raster and SampleModel, presenting the pixel rows in reverse order? I would prefer to avoid the following approaches: Copying the whole image (for performance reasons. The code must process hundreds of large (= 1Mpixels) images per second and although the whole image must be available to the application, it will normally access only a tiny (but hard-to-predict) portion of the image.) Modifying the DataBuffer to perform coordinate transformation (this actually works but is another "dirty" solution because the buffer should not need to know about the scanline/pixel layout.) Re-implementing the Raster and/or SampleModel interfaces from scratch (but I have a hunch that I will be unable to avoid this.)

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  • asp.net MVC HandleError

    - by boris callens
    How do I go about the [HandleError] filter in asp.net MVC Preview 5? I set the customErrors in my web.config file <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error.aspx"> <error statusCode="403" redirect="NoAccess.htm"/> <error statusCode="404" redirect="FileNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors> and put [HandleError] above my Controller Class like this: [HandleError] public class DSWebsiteController: Controller{ [snip] public ActionResult CrashTest() { throw new Exception("Oh Noes!"); } } Then I let my controllers inherit from this class and call CrashTest() on them. Visual studio halts at the error and after pressing f5 to continue, I get rerouted to Error.aspx?aspxerrorpath=/sxi.mvc/CrashTest (where sxi is the name of the used controller. Off course the path cannot be found and I get "Server Error in '/' Application." 404. This site was ported from preview 3 to 5. Everything runs (wasn't that much work to port) except the error handling. When I create a complete new project the error handling seems to work. Ideas? --Note-- Since this question has over 3K views now, I thought it would be beneficial to put in what I'm currently (asp.net mvc 1.0) using. In the mvc contrib project there is a brilliant attribute called "RescueAttribute" You should probably check it out too ;)

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  • Force Oracle error on fetch

    - by Dan
    I am trying to debug a strange behavior in my application. In order to do so, I need to reproduce a scenario where an SQL SELECT query will throw an error, but only while actually fetching from the cursor, not while executing the query itself. Can this be done? Any error will do, but ORA-01722: invalid number seems like the obvious one to try. I created a table with the follwing: KEYCOL INTEGER PRIMARY KEY OTHERCOL VARCHAR2(100) I then created a few hundred rows with unique values for the primary key and the value l for the othercol. I then ran a SELECT * query, picked a row somewhere in the middle, and updated it to the string abcd. I ran the query SELECT KEYCOL, TO_NUMBER(OTHERCOL) FROM SOMETABLE hoping to get some rows of good data an then an error later. But I keep getting ORA-01722: invalid number on the execute step itself. I have gotten this behavior programmatically using ADO (with server-side cursor) and JDBC, as well as from PL/SQL Developer. How can I get the result I'm looking for? thanks Edit - meant to add, when using ADO, I am only calling Command.Execute. I am not creating or opening a Recordset.

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  • HttpWebRequest Timeouts After Ten Consecutive Requests

    - by Bob Mc
    I'm writing a web crawler for a specific site. The application is a VB.Net Windows Forms application that is not using multiple threads - each web request is consecutive. However, after ten successful page retrievals every successive request times out. I have reviewed the similar questions already posted here on SO, and have implemented the recommended techniques into my GetPage routine, shown below: Public Function GetPage(ByVal url As String) As String Dim result As String = String.Empty Dim uri As New Uri(url) Dim sp As ServicePoint = ServicePointManager.FindServicePoint(uri) sp.ConnectionLimit = 100 Dim request As HttpWebRequest = WebRequest.Create(uri) request.KeepAlive = False request.Timeout = 15000 Try Using response As HttpWebResponse = DirectCast(request.GetResponse, HttpWebResponse) Using dataStream As Stream = response.GetResponseStream() Using reader As New StreamReader(dataStream) If response.StatusCode <> HttpStatusCode.OK Then Throw New Exception("Got response status code: " + response.StatusCode) End If result = reader.ReadToEnd() End Using End Using response.Close() End Using Catch ex As Exception Dim msg As String = "Error reading page """ & url & """. " & ex.Message Logger.LogMessage(msg, LogOutputLevel.Diagnostics) End Try Return result End Function Have I missed something? Am I not closing or disposing of an object that should be? It seems strange that it always happens after ten consecutive requests. Notes: In the constructor for the class in which this method resides I have the following: ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit = 100 If I set KeepAlive to true, the timeouts begin after five requests. All the requests are for pages in the same domain. EDIT I added a delay between each web request of between two and seven seconds so that I do not appear to be "hammering" the site or attempting a DOS attack. However, the problem still occurs.

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  • Suggestions on how build an HTML Diff tool?

    - by Danimal
    In this post I asked if there were any tools that compare the structure (not actual content) of 2 HTML pages. I ask because I receive HTML templates from our designers, and frequently miss minor formatting changes in my implementation. I then waste a few hours of designer time sifting through my pages to find my mistakes. The thread offered some good suggestions, but there was nothing that fit the bill. "Fine, then", thought I, "I'll just crank one out myself. I'm a halfway-decent developer, right?". Well, once I started to think about it, I couldn't quite figure out how to go about it. I can crank out a data-driven website easily enough, or do a CMS implementation, or throw documents in and out of BizTalk all day. Can't begin to figure out how to compare HTML docs. Well, sure, I have to read the DOM, and iterate through the nodes. I have to map the structure to some data structure (how??), and then compare them (how??). It's a development task like none I've ever attempted. So now that I've identified a weakness in my knowledge, I'm even more challenged to figure this out. Any suggestions on how to get started? clarification: the actual content isn't what I want to compare -- the creative guys fill their pages with lorem ipsum, and I use real content. Instead, I want to compare structure: <div class="foo">lorem ipsum<div> is different that <div class="foo"><p>lorem ipsum<p><div>

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  • Create Generic method constraining T to an Enum

    - by johnc
    I'm building a function to extend the Enum.Parse concept that allows a default value to be parsed in case that an Enum value is not found Is case insensitive So I wrote the following public static T GetEnumFromString<T>(string value, T defaultValue) where T : Enum { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) return defaultValue; foreach (T item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (item.ToString().ToLower().Equals(value.Trim().ToLower())) return item; } return defaultValue; } I am getting a Error Constraint cannot be special class 'System.Enum' Fair enough, but is there a workaround to allow a Generic Enum, or am I going to have to mimic the Parse function and pass a type as an attribute, which forces the ugly boxing requirement to your code. EDIT All suggestions below have been greatly appreciated, thanks Have settled on (I've left the loop to maintain case insensitivity - I am usng this when parsing XML) public static class EnumUtils { public static T ParseEnum<T>(string value, T defaultValue) where T : struct, IConvertible { if (!typeof(T).IsEnum) throw new ArgumentException("T must be an enumerated type"); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) return defaultValue; foreach (T item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (item.ToString().ToLower().Equals(value.Trim().ToLower())) return item; } return defaultValue; } }

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  • Why I am not able to update the column based on a condition which is not the primary key

    - by Gaurav Sharma
    Why I am not able to update the column based on a condition which is not the primary key. I am trying to update the constituencies table where name matches a specific criterial as shown below but the below queries shows an error Error code 1064, SQL state 42000: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "East Delhi"' at line 1 update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "East Delhi"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "South Delhi"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "Delhi Sadar"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "Karol Bagh"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "New Delhi"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "Outer Delhi"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "North East Delhi"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "North West Delhi"; update table constituencies set city_id = '1' where constituencies.name = "West Delhi"; Is it necessary that the condition should be checked with a primary key only ? Please throw some light on the above.

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  • Use $_FILES on a page called by .ajax

    - by RachelD
    I have two .php pages that I'm working with. Index.php has a file upload form that posts back to index.php. I can access the $_FILES no problem on index.php after submitting the form. My issue is that I want (after the form submit and the page loads) to use .ajax (jQuery) to call another .php file so that file can open and process some of the rows and return the results to ajax. The ajax then displays the results and recursively calls itself to process the next batch of rows. Basically I want to process (put in the DB etc) the csv in chunks and display it for the user in between chunks. Im doing it this way because the files are 400,000+ rows and the user doesnt want to wait the 10+ min for them all to be processed. I dont want to move this file (save it) because I just need to process it and throw it away and if a user closes the page while its processing the file wont be thrown away. I could cron script it but I dont want to. What I would really like to do is pass the (single) $_FILES through .ajax OR Save it in a $_POST or $_SESSION to use on the second page. Is there any hope for my cause? Heres the ajax code if that helps: function processCSV(startIndex, length) { $.ajax({ url: "ajax-targets/process-csv.php", dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: { startIndex: startIndex, length: length }, timeout: 60000, // 1000 = 1 sec success: function(data) { // JQuery to display the rows from the CSV var newStart = startIndex+length; if(newStart <= data['csvNumRows']) { processCSV(newStart, length); } } }); } processCSV(1, 2); }); P.S. I did try this Passing $_FILES or $_POST to a new page with PHP but its not working for me :( SOS.

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  • Why does jQuery.ajax() add a parameter to the url?

    - by FK82
    Hi, I have a data fetching method that uses jQuery.ajax() to fetch xml files. /* */data: function() { /* debug */try { var url = arguments[0] ; var type = arguments[1] ; var scope = arguments[2] ; var callback = arguments[3] ; var self = this ; if(this.cache[url]) { callback(this.cache[url]) ; } else if(!this.cache[url]) { $.ajax({ type: "GET" , url: url , dataType: type , cache: false , success: function(data) { if(type == "text/xml") { var myJson = AUX.json ; var jsonString = myJson.build(data,scope,null) ; var jsonObject = $.parseJSON(jsonString) ; self.cache[url] = jsonObject ; callback(url) ; } else if(type == "json") { self.cache[url] = data ; callback(url) ; } } , error: function() { throw "Ajax call failed." ; } }) ; } /* debug */} catch(e) { /* debug */ alert("- caller: signTutor.data\n- " + e) ; /* debug */} } , My problem is: jQuery somehow adds a parameter (?_=1272708280072) to the url if there are escaped (hexadecimal notation) or unescaped utf-8 characters outside of the ASCII range -- i believe -- in the file name. It all works well if the file name does not contain characters in that range. Type is set to xml so there should not be a confusion of types. Headers of the xml files are also set adequately. I can see from the console that jQuery throws an error, but I'm not sure as to where the problem really is. Probably a problem with file name formatting, but I did not find any resources on the web as to AJAX file name specifications. Any ideas? Thanks for you help!

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  • Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

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  • How to make Class for DataObjectAttribute visible in ObjectDataSourse in Web Application

    - by nCdy
    here is a class code : > [DataObjectAttribute] public class > Report { public this() {} > > > [DataObjectMethodAttribute(DataObjectMethodType.Select, > true)] public static > GetAllEmployees() : DataTable { > null } > > > [DataObjectMethodAttribute(DataObjectMethodType.Delete, > true)] public > DeleteEmployeeByID(employeeID : int) : > void { > throw Exception("The value passed to the delete method is " + > employeeID.ToString()); } } but I still can't find where and how and what I must to config to access it ? <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource1" runat="server" SelectMethod=" ?????????? "> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Web Application doesn't support App_Code so but I can use compiled Bin somehow, the question is how ? text from this link only confused me more :( thank you

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  • .NET substitute dependent assemblies without recompiling?

    - by RK
    I have a question about how the .NET framework (2.0) resolves dependent assemblies. We're currently involved in a bit of a rewrite of a large ASP.NET application and various satellite executables. There are also some nagging problems with our foundation classes that we developed a new API to solve. So far this is a normal, albeit wide-reaching, update. Our heirarchy is: ASP.NET (aspx) business logic (DLLs) foundation classes (DLLs) So ASP.NET doesn't throw a fit, some of the DLLs (specifically the foundation classes) have a redirection layer that contains the old namespaces/functions and forwards them to the new API. When we replaced the DLLs, ASP.NET picked them up fine (probably because it triggered a recompile). Precompiled applications don't though, even though the same namespaces and classes are in both sets of DLLs. Even when the file is renamed, it complains about the assemblyname attribute being different (which it has to be by necessity). I know you can redirect to differnet versions of the same assembly, but is there any way to direct to a completely different assembly? The alternatives are to recompile the applications (don't really want to because the applications themselves haven't changed) or recompile the old foundation DLL with stubs refering to the new foundation DLL (the new dummy DLL is file system clutter).

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