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  • Passing control references as ref parameters

    - by Enmanuel
    Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

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  • Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

    - by Telos
    I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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  • Textually diffing JSON

    - by Richard Levasseur
    As part of my release processes, I have to compare some JSON configuration data used by my application. As a first attempt, I just pretty-printed the JSON and diff'ed them (using kdiff3 or just diff). As that data has grown, however, kdiff3 confuses different parts in the output, making additions look like giant modifies, odd deletions, etc. It makes it really hard to figure out what is different. I've tried other diff tools, too (meld, kompare, diff, a few others), but they all have the same problem. Despite my best efforts, I can't seem to format the JSON in a way that the diff tools can understand. Example data: [ { "name": "date", "type": "date", "nullable": true, "state": "enabled" }, { "name": "owner", "type": "string", "nullable": false, "state": "enabled", } ...lots more... ] The above probably wouldn't cause the problem (the problem occurs when there begin to be hundreds of lines), but thats the gist of what is being compared. Thats just a sample; the full objects are 4-5 attributes, and some attributes have 4-5 attributes in them. The attribute names are pretty uniform, but their values pretty varied. In general, it seems like all the diff tools confuse the closing "}" with the next objects closing "}". I can't seem to break them of this habit. I've tried adding whitespace, changing indentation, and adding some "BEGIN" and "END" strings before and after the respective objects, but the tool still get confused.

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  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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  • Can I use a *.tag from another *.tag file in the same /WEB-INF/tags folder?

    - by Ytsejammer
    Hello, I am trying to refactor my JSP code so that a small conditional test condition gets reused through a *.tag file. There are some big parts of my UI that depend on the value of a two-state property of an object present in the request. Let's say the property is 'gender' and the object is of type Person. Like I said, I would like to simplify & centralize the test on the gender property using a tag. For this purpose, I created two tag files: /WEB-INF/tags/if-male.tag /WEB-INF/tags/if-female.tag Now, I have another tiny spot that gets repeated in all over my application; let's say is the salutation to my site user. With this idea, I created a tag like this: /WEB-INF/tags/salutation.tag As you can imagine, I am trying to use the if-male/if-female test within the salutation.tag file to output 'Mrs.' or 'Mr.' like this: <%@ tag body-content="empty" %> <%@ taglib prefix="g" uri="/WEB-INF/tags" %> <g:if-male> Mr. </g:if-male> <g:if-female> Mrs. </g:if-female> Is the use of the if-male/if-female tags legal within the salutation.tag file? I have tried with such arrangement, but it looks like the JDeveloper 10.1.3.4 compiler gets confused and cannot deal with the salutation.tag tag invoking the other two tags in the same 'library' (folder under /WEB-INF/tags). The reference works perfectly in Jetty 6 and it looks like it works as well if I deploy the application to OC4J directly without relying on JDeveloper to pre-compile all my JSPs. I hope someone can shed some light on this. Thanks, YJ

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  • Problem with GWT behind a reverse proxy - either nginx or apache

    - by Don Branson
    I'm having this problem with GWT when it's behind a reverse proxy. The backend app is deployed within a context - let's call it /context. The GWT app works fine when I hit it directly: http://host:8080/context/ I can configure a reverse proxy in front it it. Here's my nginx example: upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:8080; } ... location / { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } But, when I run through the reverse proxy, GWT gets confused, saying: 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy 'C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy '0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. In other words, GWT isn't getting the word that it needs to prepend /context/ hen look for C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc, but only when the request comes throught proxy. A workaround is to add the context to the url for the web site: location /context/ { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } but that means the context is now part of the url that the user sees, and that's ugly. Anybody know how to make GWT happy in this case? Software versions: GWT - 1.7.0 (same problem with 1.7.1) Jetty - 6.1.21 (but the same problem existed under tomcat) nginx - 0.7.62 (same problem under apache 2.x) I've looked at the traffic between the proxy and the backend using DonsProxy, but there's nothing noteworthy there.

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  • Javascript : Submitting a form outside the actual form doesn't work

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hello all, I'm trying to achieve a fairly easy triggering mechanism for deleting multiple items from a tablegrid. If a user has enough access he/she is able to delete multiple users from a table. In the table I have set up checkboxes, one per row/user. The name of the checkboxes is UsersToDeletep[], and the value per row is the unique UserID. When a user clicks the button 'Delete selected users' a simple validation takes place to make sure at least one checkbox is selected. After that I call my simple function Submit(form). The function works perfectly when called within the form-tags, where I also use it to delete a single user. The function: function Submit(form) { document.forms[form].submit(); } I've also alerted document.forms[form]. The result is, as expected [object HTMLFormElement]. But for some reason the form just won't submit and a pagereload takes place. I'm a bit confused and can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance! Ben

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  • How to scan convert right edges and slopes less than one?

    - by Zachary
    I'm writing a program which will use scan conversion on triangles to fill in the pixels contained within the triangle. One thing that has me confused is how to determine the x increment for the right edge of the triangle, or for slopes less than or equal to one. Here is the code I have to handle left edges with a slope greater than one (obtained from Computer Graphics: Principles and Practice second edition): for(y=ymin;y<=ymax;y++) { edge.increment+=edge.numerator; if(edge.increment>edge.denominator) { edge.x++; edge.increment -= edge.denominator; } } The numerator is set from (xMax-xMin), and the denominator is set from (yMax-yMin)...which makes sense as it represents the slope of the line. As you move up the scan lines (represented by the y values). X is incremented by 1/(denomniator/numerator) ...which results in x having a whole part and a fractional part. If the fractional part is greater than one, then the x value has to be incremented by 1 (as shown in edge.incrementedge.denominator). This works fine for any left handed lines with a slope greater than one, but I'm having trouble generalizing it for any edge, and google-ing has proved fruitless. Does anyone know the algorithm for that?

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  • Using TPrinter in Delphi

    - by Milad
    Hello Experts I don't have any backgrounds in programming and this is my first shot. I wrote a Delphi program that is supposed to print on a result sheet. I work in an institute and we have to establish hundreds of result sheets every 2 months. It's really difficult to do that and different handwritings is also an important issue. My problem is that when i write this code : if PrintDialog.Execute() then begin with MyPrinter do begin MyPrinter.BeginDoc();//Start Printing //Prints First Name MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(FirstNameX,FirstNameY,EditFirstName.Text); //Prints Last Name MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(LastNameX,LastNameY,EditLastName.Text); //Prints Level MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(LevelX,LevelY,EditLevel.Text); //Prints Date MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(DateX,DateY,MEditDate.Text); //Prints Student Number MyPrinter.Canvas.TextOut(StdNumX,StdNumY,EditStdnumber.Text); .... MyPrinter.EndDoc();//End Printing end; end; I can't get the right coordinates to print properly. Am I missing something? How can I set the right coordinates? You know TPrinter uses pixels to get the coordinates but papers are measured in inches or centimeters. I'm really confused.I appreciate any help. Thanks in advance.

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  • why unsigned int 0xFFFFFFFF is equal to int -1?

    - by conejoroy
    perhaps it's a very stupid question but I'm having a hard time figuring this out =) in C or C++ it is said that the maximum number a size_t (an unsigned int data type) can hold is the same as casting -1 to that data type. for example see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1420982/invalid-value-for-sizet Why?? I'm confused.. I mean, (talking about 32 bit ints) AFAIK the most significant bit holds the sign in a signed data type (that is, bit 0x80000000 to form a negative number). then, 1 is 0x00000001.. 0x7FFFFFFFF is the greatest positive number a int data type can hold. then, AFAIK the binary representation of -1 int should be 0x80000001 (perhaps I'm wrong). why/how this binary value is converted to anything completely different (0xFFFFFFFF) when casting ints to unsigned?? or.. how is it possible to form a binary -1 out of 0xFFFFFFFF? I have no doubt that in C: ((unsigned int)-1) == 0xFFFFFFFF or ((int)0xFFFFFFFF) == -1 is equally true than 1 + 1 == 2, I'm just wondering why. thanks!

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  • Moq, a translator and an expression

    - by jeriley
    I'm working with an expression within a moq-ed "Get Service" and ran into a rather annoying issue. In order to get this test to run correctly and the get service to return what it should, there's a translator in between that takes what you've asked for, sends it off and gets what you -really- want. So, thinking this was easy I attempt this ... the fakelist is the TEntity objects (translated, used by the UI) and TEnterpriseObject is the actual persistance. mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>> expression) => { var items = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(); var translator = (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>) ObjectFactory.GetInstance(typeof (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>)); fakeList.ForEach(fake => items.Add(translator.ToEnterpriseObject(fake))); items = items.Where(expression); var result = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(items); fakeList.Clear(); result.ForEach(item => translator.ToEntity(item)); return items; }); I'm getting the red squigglie under there items.where(expression) -- says it can't be infered from usage (confused between <Func<TEnterpriseObject,bool>> and <Func<TEnterpriseObject,int,bool>>) A far simpler version works great ... mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>> expression) => fakeList.AsQueryable().Where(expression)); so I'm not sure what I'm missing... ideas?

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  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

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  • Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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  • How to scan an array for certain information

    - by Andrew Martin
    I've been doing an MSc Software Development conversion course, the main language of which is Java, since the end of September. We have our first assessed practical coming and I was hoping for some guidance. We have to create an array that will store 100 integers (all of which are between 1 and 10), which are generated by a random number generator, and then print out ten numbers of this array per line. For the second part, we need to scan these integers, count up how often each number appears and store the results in a second array. I've done the first bit okay, but I'm confused about how to do the second. I have been looking through the scanner class to see if it has any methods which I could use, but I don't see any. Could anyone point me in the right direction - not the answer, but perhaps which library it comes from? Code so far: import java.util.Random; public class Practical4_Assessed { public static void main(String[] args) { Random numberGenerator = new Random (); int[] arrayOfGenerator = new int[100]; for (int countOfGenerator = 0; countOfGenerator < 100; countOfGenerator++) arrayOfGenerator[countOfGenerator] = numberGenerator.nextInt(10); int countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; for (int countOfOutput = 0; countOfOutput < 100; countOfOutput++) { if (countOfNumbersOnLine == 10) { System.out.println(""); countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; countOfOutput--; } else { System.out.print(arrayOfGenerator[countOfOutput] + " "); countOfNumbersOnLine++; } } } } Thanks, Andrew

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  • Can't get data with spaces into the database from Ajax POST request

    - by J Jones
    I have a real simple form with a textbox and a button, and my goal is to have an asynchronous request (jQuery: $.ajax) send the text to the server (PHP/mysql a la Joomla) so that it can be added to a database table. Here's the javascript that is sending the data from the client: var value= $('#myvalue').val(); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "/administrator/index.php", data: { option: "com_mycomponent", task: "enterValue", thevalue: value, format: "raw"}, dataType: "text", success: reportSavedValue } ); The problem arises when the user enters text with a space in it. The $_POST variable that I receive has all the spaces stripped out, so that if the user enters "This string has spaces", the server gets the value "Thisstringhasspaces". I have been googling around, and have found lots of references that I need to use encodeURIComponent. So I have tried it, but now the value that I get from $_POST is "This20string20has20spaces". So it appears to be encoding it the way I would expect, only to have the percent signs stripped instead of the spaces, and leaving the hex numbers. I'm really confused. It seems that this sort of question is asked and answered everywhere on the web, and everywhere encodeURIComponent is hailed as the silver bullet. But apparently I'm fighting a different breed of lycanthrope. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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  • Using a class within a class?

    - by Josh
    I built myself a MySQL class which I use in all my projects. I'm about to start a project that is heavily based on user accounts and I plan on building my own class for this aswell. The thing is, a lot of the methods in the user class will be MySQL queries and methods from the MySQL class. For example, I have a method in my user class to update someone's password: class user() { function updatePassword($usrName, $newPass) { $con = mysql_connect('db_host', 'db_user', 'db_pass'); $sql = "UPDATE users SET password = '$newPass' WHERE username = '$userName'"; $res = mysql_query($sql, $con); if($res) return true; mysql_close($con); } } (I kind of rushed this so excuse any syntax errors :) ) As you can see that would use MySQL to update a users password, but without using my MySQL class, is this correct? I see no way in which I can use my MySQL class within my users class without it seeming dirty. Do I just use it the normal way like $DB = new DB();? That would mean including my mysql.class.php somewhere too... I'm quite confused about this, so any help would be appreciated, thanks.

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  • Is there only one distribution certificate per team leader or one per application?

    - by dbonneville
    I'm confused by the dev and dist cert. I got one app in the store, but I named my certs after my first app. Was this a mistake? I'm ready to go on my second app. But XCode is selected the dist cert with the old app name on it. It built without error. Though I named it wrong, will it still work? XCode is automatically picking this cert for me. Is this right? You need a new app ID for each app so you can 1) put in plist, 2) put in code signing section on Build tab of Target info, but you don't need a new dev and dist cert for each new app. Therefore is this right too? For each app you develop, you only need your original dev and dist cert, but a new app ID for each app. This is so obscure! I wish apple had done a better job!

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  • Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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  • Javascript "this" variable confusion

    - by Assaf M
    Hi I am currently reading the book "Javascript: The Good Parts" and was playing with Functions. I produced a test script to test some properties and I am somewhat confused by the results. Here is the code: <h3>Object</h3> <div style="padding-left: 10px;"> <script type="text/javascript"> function outterF() { document.writeln("outterF.this = " + this + "<br>"); function innerF() { document.writeln("innerF.this = " + this + "<br>"); return this; }; var inner = innerF(); return this; } document.writeln("<b>From Inside:</b><br>"); var outF = outterF(); var inF = outF.inner; document.writeln("<br>"); document.writeln("<b>From Outside:</b><br>"); document.writeln("outterF.this = " + outF + "<br>"); document.writeln("innerF.this = " + inF + "<br>"); </script> </div> Result is: Object From Inside: outterF.this = [object Window] innerF.this = [object Window] From Outside: outterF.this = [object Window] innerF.this = undefined Notice that outF.inner returns "undefined", is that some kind of a language bug? Obviously, outF.inner points to Window object that has nothing to do with my object but shouldn't it be at least pointing to a Function object instead? Thanks -Assaf

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  • PHP: Recursively get children of parent

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have a function which gets the ids of all children of a parent from my DB. So, if I looked up id 7, it might return an array with 5, 6 and 10. What I then want to do, is recursively find the children of those returned ids, and so on, to the final depth of the children. I have tried to write a function to do this, but I am getting confused about recursion. function getChildren($parent_id) { $tree = Array(); $tree_string; if (!empty($parent_id)) { // getOneLevel() returns a one-dimentional array of child ids $tree = $this->getOneLevel($parent_id); foreach ($tree as $key => $val) { $ids = $this->getChildren($val); array_push($tree, $ids); //$tree[] = $this->getChildren($val); $tree_string .= implode(',', $tree); } return $tree_string; } else { return $tree; } }//end getChildren() After the function is run, I would like it to return a one-dimentional array of all the child ids that were found.

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  • NSArray/NSMutableArray : Passed by ref or by value???

    - by wgpubs
    Totally confused here. I have a PARENT UIViewController that needs to pass an NSMutableArray to a CHILD UIViewController. I'm expecting it to be passed by reference so that changes made in the CHILD will be reflected in the PARENT and vice-versa. But that is not the case. Both have a property declared as .. @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *photos; Example: In PARENT: self.photos = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; ChildViewController *c = [[ChildViewController alloc] init ...]; c.photos = self.photos; ... ... ... In CHILD: [self.photos addObject:obj1]; [self.photos addObject:obj2]; NSLog(@"Count:%d", [self.photos count]) // Equals 2 as expected ... Back in PARENT: NSLog(@"Count:%d", [self.photos count]) // Equals 0 ... NOT EXPECTED I thought they'd both be accessing the same memory. Is this not the case? If it isn't ... how do I keep the two NSMutableArrays in sync?

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  • Maintaining a pool of DAO Class instances vs doing new operator

    - by Fazal
    we have been trying to benchmark our application performance in multiple way for sometime now. I always believed that object creation in java using Class.newInstance() was not slow (at least after 1.4 version of java). But we anyways did a test to use newInstance method vs mainitain an object pool of 1000 objects. We did about 200K iterations of loading data from DB using JDBC and populating these objects. I was amazed (even shocked) to see that newInstance code compared to object pool code was almost 10 times slower. These objects represent tables with about 50 fields and all string type. Can someone share there thoughts on this issue as now I am more confused if object pooling of atleast some DAO instances is a better option. The pool size as I see right now should be large enough to meet size of average requests. There is a flip side as my memory footprint will go up but I am beginning to wonder if this kind of idea makes sense atleast for some of the DAO entities representing tables of about 50 or more columns Please share your ideas and let me know if this has been tried by someone or am I missing some point here

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  • wopen calls when porting to Linux

    - by laura
    I have an application which was developed under Windows, but for gcc. The code is mostly OS-independent, with very few classes which are Windows specific because a Linux port was always regarded as necessary. The API, especially that which gets called as a direct result of user interaction, is using wide char arrays instead of char arrays (as a side note, I cannot change the API itself - at this point, std::wstring cannot be used). These are considered as encoded in UTF-16. In some places, the code opens files, mostly using the windows-specific _wopen function call. The problem with this is there is no wopen-like substitute for Linux because Linux "only deals with bytes". The question is: how do I port this code ? What if I wanted to open a file with the name "something™.log", how would I go about doing so in Linux ? Is a cast to char* sufficient, would the wide chars be picked up automatically based on the locale (probably not) ? Do I need to convert manually ? I'm a bit confused regarding this, perhaps someone could point me to some documentation regarding the matter.

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  • What is the basic pattern for using (N)Hibernate?

    - by Vilx-
    I'm creating a simple Windows Forms application with NHibernate and I'm a bit confused about how I'm supposed to use it. To quote the manual: ISession (NHibernate.ISession) A single-threaded, short-lived object representing a conversation between the application and the persistent store. Wraps an ADO.NET connection. Factory for ITransaction. Holds a mandatory (first-level) cache of persistent objects, used when navigating the object graph or looking up objects by identifier. Now, suppose I have the following scenario: I have a simple classifier which is a MSSQL table with two columns - ID (auto_increment) and Name (nvarchar). To edit this classifier I create a form which contains a single gridview and two buttons - OK and Cancel. The user can nearly directly edit the table in the gridview, and when he hits OK the changes he made are persisted to the DB (or if he hits cancel, nothing happens). Now, I have several questions about how to organize this: What should the lifetime of my ISession be? Should I create a single ISession for my whole application; an ISession for each of my forms (the application is single-threaded MDI); or an ISession for every DB operation/transaction? Does NHibernate offer some kind of built-in dirty tracking or must I do this myself? The manual mentions something like it here and there but does not go into details. How is this done? Is there not a huge overhead? Is it somehow tied with the cache(s) that NHibernate has? What are these caches for? Are they not specific to a single ISession? That is, if I use a seperate ISession for every transaction, won't it break the dirty tracking? How does the built-in dirty tracking detect deleted objects?

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