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  • Pull/Clone a svn repository into hg with new default branch name?

    - by TheLQ
    I'm forking a project's SVN repo and need to integrate into my Mercurial repo. To keep things simple I have a local hgsubversion repo and a local hg repo. However both the mercurial and hgsubversion repo uses default as their default branch name. My goal here is to put the original code and updates on one branch and my code on the default branch However I have yet to be able to do this. W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg clone http://*HG_SITE*/hg . no changes found updating to branch default 0 files updated, 0 files merged, 0 files removed, 0 files unresolved W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg branch blizzard marked working directory as branch blizzard W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg commit W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg log changeset: 0:be13a9580df0 branch: blizzard tag: tip user: Leon Blakey <[email protected]> date: Fri Jan 14 23:44:25 2011 -0500 summary: Created Blizzard Branch W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg pull http://*SVN_SITE*/svn/ pulling from http://*SVN_SITE*/svn/ .... pulled 23 revisions (run 'hg update' to get a working copy) W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg branch blizzard W:\programming\tcsite-svn-test>hg branches default 23:93642a8890ab <------ blizzard 0:be13a9580df0 Not surprisingly, hgsubversion puts pulled commits into the default branch when I really need them in the blizzard branch. From the docs, there is no way to rename the branch that a commit came from. Frustratingly I can't even come up with a way to do it on a repo with only the hgsubversion repo being pulled from, nothing else. All commits are tied to that one branch no matter what. Is there any suggestions on how to pull changes from an SVN repo and rename the branch to something else?

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  • Scanner error that I can't figure out: NoSuchElementException

    - by iaacp
    It's crashing on the third line inside the do-while loop, and doesn't wait for my input: input = kb.nextInt(); Stack trace: Exception in thread "main" java.util.NoSuchElementException at java.util.Scanner.throwFor(Unknown Source) at java.util.Scanner.next(Unknown Source) at java.util.Scanner.nextInt(Unknown Source) at java.util.Scanner.nextInt(Unknown Source) at main.MainDriver.main(MainDriver.java:50) Relevant code: do { displayFullMenu(); System.out.print("Selection: "); input = kb.nextInt(); switch (input) { //Create new survey case 1: currentSurvey = new Survey(); break; //Display current survey case 2: currentSurvey.display(); break; //Save current survey case 3: saveSurvey(currentSurvey); break; //Load a survey case 4: currentSurvey = loadSurvey(); break; //Modify a survey case 5: currentSurvey.modify(); break; /*******************Test Functions*******************/ //Create new test case 6: currentSurvey = new Test(); break; //Display current test case 7: currentSurvey.display(); break; //Save current test case 8: saveSurvey(currentSurvey); break; //Load a test case 9: currentSurvey = loadTest(); break; //Modify a test case 10: currentSurvey.modify(); default: System.out.println("Invalid choice. Please make a valid choice: "); input = kb.nextInt(); System.out.println(); } } while (input != 99); kb.close(); It crashes after I choose option 9. It saves the file correctly, then goes back to the top of the loop, and crashes at the previously mentioned line. I want it to ask for more input. What gives?

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  • deleting entire xml node with datagrid

    - by DuranL
    Hello, I have the following xml structure: <systemtest> <test id="0"> <name>Test One</name> </test> <test id="1"> <name>Test Two</name> </test> </systemtest> The name gets displayed in the 1ste colum of the datagrid, where in the 2nd colum there is a buttoncolumn with delete button. How exactly can i use xpath and navigate to the current node lets say with test id="0" and delete it (including name)? Its unclear how i can say to this method what row he has to delete exactly. XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(XMLFile); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); nav.SelectSingleNode("...."); //?? nav.DeleteSelf(); //will this do the trick? Also the id gets generated in a seperate class where the above method should be. Thanks in advance.

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  • EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

    - by Jeroen
    Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

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  • Given a typical Rails 3 environment, why am I unable to execute any tests?

    - by Tom
    I'm working on writing simple unit tests for a Rails 3 project, but I'm unable to actually execute any tests. Case in point, attempting to run the test auto-generated by Rails fails: require 'test_helper' class UserTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end end Results in the following error: <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- test_helper (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from user_test.rb:1:in `<main>' Commenting out the require 'test_helper' line and attempting to run the test results in this error: user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) The action pack gems appear to be properly installed and up to date: actionmailer (3.0.3, 2.3.5) actionpack (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activemodel (3.0.3) activerecord (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activeresource (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activesupport (3.0.3, 2.3.5) Ruby is at 1.9.2p0 and Rails is at 3.0.3. The sample dump of my test directory is as follows: /fixtures /functional /integration /performance /unit -- /helpers -- user_helper_test.rb -- user_test.rb test_helper.rb I've never seen this problem before - I've run the typical rake tasks for preparing the test environment. I have nothing out of the ordinary in my application or environment configuration files, nor have I installed any unusual gems that would interfere with the test environment. Edit Xavier Holt's suggestion, explicitly specifying the path to the test_helper worked; however, this revealed an issue with ActiveSupport. Now when I attempt to run the test, I receive the following error message (as also listed above): user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) But as you can see above, Action Pack is all installed and update to date.

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  • WPF Binding to variable / DependencyProperty

    - by Peter
    I'm playing around with WPF Binding and variables. Apparently one can only bind DependencyProperties. I have come up with the following, which works perfectly fine: The code-behind file: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } public string Test { get { return (string)this.GetValue(TestProperty); } set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, value); } //set { this.SetValue(TestProperty, "BBB"); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Test", typeof(string), typeof(MainWindow), new PropertyMetadata("CCC")); private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(Test); Test = "AAA"; MessageBox.Show(Test); } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication3.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" DataContext="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}}"> <Grid> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,86,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay, diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel=High}"/> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="320,85,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="button1_Click" /> <TextBox Height="31" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="84,138,0,0" Name="textBox2" Text="{Binding Test, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="152" /> </Grid> The two TextBoxes update one an other. And the Button sets them to "AAA". But now I replaced the Setter function with the one that is commented out (simulating some manipulation of the given value). I would expect that whenever the property value is changed it will be reset to "BBB". It does so when you press the button, that is when you set the property in code. But it does for some reason not affect the WPF Bindings, that is you can change the TextBox contents and thus the property, but apparently the Setter is never called. I wonder why that is so, and how one would go about to achive the expected behaviour.

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  • "|" pipe operator not working in command line in C++

    - by user332024
    I am having a windows application interacting with DB2 database. In my application i have code to execute some DB2 commands through command line interface. I have used windowsAPI "ShellExecuteEx()" to execute those DB2 commands through command line. Following is the code written to execute DB2 command through command line. string command = "/c /w /i DB2 UNCATALOG NODE DB_DATABASE "" test.log | echo %date% %time% test.log SHELLEXECUTEINFO shellInfo; ZeroMemory(&shellInfo, sizeof(shellInfo)); shellInfo.cbSize = sizeof(shellInfo); shellInfo.fMask = SEE_MASK_FLAG_NO_UI | SEE_MASK_NOCLOSEPROCESS; //shellInfo.lpFile = "db2cmd"; shellInfo.lpFile = "db2cmd"; shellInfo.lpParameters = command.c_str(); The code is executed successfully , however if test.log is observered i only get result of DB2 command and not date and time. If you see the above command there is "|" pipe operator and echo command to log date and time in test.log Please note that if I execute above DB2 command through separately command line i.e. not through code. I am able to view date and time log along with DB2 command result in test.log. Following is the full command which i executed through command line. DB2CMD /c /i /w DB2 UNCATALOG NODE DB_DATABASE "" test.log | echo %date% %time% test.log According to me since DB2 command is executed successfully through code, there is problem with only usage of "|" pipe operator or echo command.

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  • How do I prevent a branch from being pushed to another branch in BZR?

    - by cabbey
    We use a dev-test-prod branching scheme with bzr 2. I'd like to setup a bzr hook on the prod branch that will reject a push from the test branch. Looking at the bzr docs, this looks doable, but I'm kinda surprised that my searches don't turn up any one having done it, at least not via any of the keywords I've thought to search by. I'm hoping someone has already gotten this working and can share their path to success. My current thought is to use the pre_change_branch_tip hook to check for the presence of a file on the test branch. If it's present, fail the commit. You may ask, why test for a file, why not just test the branch name? Because I actually need to handle the case where our developers have branched their devel branch, pulled in the shared test branch and are now (erroneously) pushing that test branch to production instead of pushing their feature branch to production. And it seems a billion times easier to look for a file in the new branch than to try to interrogate the sending branch's lineage. So has someone done this? seen it done? or do I get to venture out into the uncharted wasteland that is hook development with bzr? :)

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  • Are TestContext.Properties usable ?

    - by DBJDBJ
    Using Visual Studio generate Test Unit class. Then comment in, the class initialization method. Inside it add your property, using the testContext argument. Upon test app startup this method is indeed called by the testing infrastructure. //Use ClassInitialize to run code before running the first test in the class [ClassInitialize()] public static void MyClassInitialize(TestContext testContext) { /* * Any user defined testContext.Properties * added here will be erased after this method exits */ testContext.Properties.Add("key", 1 ) ; // place the break point here } After leaving MyClassInitialize, any properties added by user are lost. Only the 10 "official" ones are left. Actually TestContext gets overwritten, with the inital offical one, each time before each test method is called. It it not overwritten only if user has test initialization method, the changes made over there are passed to the test. //Use TestInitialize to run code before running each test [TestInitialize()]public void MyTestInitialize(){ this.TestContext.Properties.Add("this is preserved",1) ; } This effectively means TestContext.Properties is "mostly" read only, for users. Which is not clearly documented in MSDN. It seems to me this is very messy design+implementation. Why having TestContext.Properties as an collection, at all ? Users can do many other solutions to have class wide initialization. Please discuss. --DBJ

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  • Best practice for debug Asserts during Unit testing

    - by Steve Steiner
    Does heavy use of unit tests discourage the use of debug asserts? It seems like a debug assert firing in the code under test implies the unit test shouldn't exist or the debug assert shouldn't exist. "There can be only one" seems like a reasonable principle. Is this the common practice? Or do you disable your debug asserts when unit testing, so they can be around for integration testing? Edit: I updated 'Assert' to debug assert to distinguish an assert in the code under test from the lines in the unit test that check state after the test has run. Also here is an example that I believe shows the dilema: A unit test passes invalid inputs for a protected function that asserts it's inputs are valid. Should the unit test not exist? It's not a public function. Perhaps checking the inputs would kill perf? Or should the assert not exist? The function is protected not private so it should be checking it's inputs for safety.

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  • Python + Expat: Error on &#0; entities

    - by clacke
    I have written a small function, which uses ElementTree and xpath to extract the text contents of certain elements in an xml file: #!/usr/bin/env python2.5 import doctest from xml.etree import ElementTree from StringIO import StringIO def parse_xml_etree(sin, xpath): """ Takes as input a stream containing XML and an XPath expression. Applies the XPath expression to the XML and returns a generator yielding the text contents of each element returned. >>> parse_xml_etree( ... StringIO('<test><elem1>one</elem1><elem2>two</elem2></test>'), ... '//elem1').next() 'one' >>> parse_xml_etree( ... StringIO('<test><elem1>one</elem1><elem2>two</elem2></test>'), ... '//elem2').next() 'two' >>> parse_xml_etree( ... StringIO('<test><null>&#0;</null><elem3>three</elem3></test>'), ... '//elem2').next() 'three' """ tree = ElementTree.parse(sin) for element in tree.findall(xpath): yield element.text if __name__ == '__main__': doctest.testmod(verbose=True) The third test fails with the following exception: ExpatError: reference to invalid character number: line 1, column 13 Is the � entity illegal XML? Regardless whether it is or not, the files I want to parse contain it, and I need some way to parse them. Any suggestions for another parser than Expat, or settings for Expat, that would allow me to do that?

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  • javascript array/object issue

    - by FlyingCat
    I am trying to push elements to an array. for (a=0; a < test.length; a++){ if(this.testnumber != test[a].number){ //it will only loop 8 times under conditional statement group = { title: test.Title , ID: test.ID, contents: [] }; this.company.push(group); this.testnumber = test.number[a]; } //outside of if conditional statement.. it will loop 15 times //i want every test[a].conetents get pushed to group.contents array. //this.company is the final variable I need for this function... group.contents.push(test[a].contents); } However, when I do console.log(this.company); I see 8 elmements with only 1 element in each group.contents array The ideal situation is to have 8 elements with 2 to 3 elements in the group.contents array I hope I explain my situation well. Any idea how to solve my issue? Thanks a lot!

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  • ASP .NET: Cannot call Page WebMethod using jQuery

    - by John
    I created a WebMethod in the code-behind file of my page as such: [System.Web.Services.WebMethod()] public static string Test() { return "TEST"; } I created the following HTML page to test it out: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"/></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function test() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/TestApp/TestPage.aspx/Test", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "text", success: function(msg) { alert(msg.d); } }); } </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="test();">Click Me</button> </body> </html> When I click the button, the AJAX fires off, but nothing is returned. When I debug my code, the method Test() doesn't even get called. Any ideas?

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  • What would happen if a same file being read and appended at the same time(python programming)?

    - by Shane
    I'm writing a script using two separate thread one doing file reading operation and the other doing appending, both threads run fairly frequently. My question is, if one thread happens to read the file while the other is just in the middle of appending strings such as "This is a test" into this file, what would happen? I know if you are appending a smaller-than-buffer string, no matter how frequently you read the file in other threads, there would never be incomplete line such as "This i" appearing in your read file, I mean the os would either do: append "This is a test" - read info from the file; or: read info from the file - append "This is a test" to the file; and such would never happen: append "This i" - read info from the file - append "s a test". But if "This is a test" is big enough(assuming it's a bigger-than-buffer string), the os can't do appending job in one operation, so the appending job would be divided into two: first append "This i" to the file, then append "s a test", so in this kind of situation if I happen to read the file in the middle of the whole appending operation, would I get such result: append "This i" - read info from the file - append "s a test", which means I might read a file that includes an incomplete string?

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  • Dispose, when is it called?

    - by Snake
    Consider the following code: namespace DisposeTest { using System; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Calling Test"); Test(); Console.WriteLine("Call to Test done"); } static void Test() { DisposeImplementation di = new DisposeImplementation(); } } internal class DisposeImplementation : IDisposable { ~DisposeImplementation() { Console.WriteLine("~ in DisposeImplementation instance called"); } public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Dispose in DisposeImplementation instance called"); } } } The Dispose just never get's called, even if I put a wait loop after the Test(); invocation. So that quite sucks. I want to write a class that is straightforward and very easy to use, to make sure that every possible resource is cleaned up. I don't want to put that responsibilty to the user of my class. Possible solution: use using, or call Dispose myself(basicly the same). Can I force the user to use a using? Or can I force the dispose to be called? Calling GC.Collect(); after Test(); doesn't work either. Putting di to null doesn't invoke Dispose either. The Deconstructor DOES work, so the object get's deconstructed when it exits Test()

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  • Using "as bool?" instead of "object something = ViewState["hi"]"

    - by Programmin Tool
    So I'm going through old code (2.0) and I came across this: object isReviewingValue = ViewState["IsReviewing"]; if (isReviewingValue is bool) { return (bool)isReviewingValue; } My first thought was to us the "as" keyword to avoid the unneeded (bool)isReviewingValue; But "as" only works with non value types. No problem, I just went ahead and did this: bool? isReviewingValue= ViewState["IsReviewing"] as bool?; if (isReviewingValue.HasValue) { return isReviewingValue.Value; } Question is: Besides looking a bit more readable, is this in fact better? EDIT: So this is getting more interesting. I decided to test it using a simple stopwatch and turns out that the second is much faster... Which after reading some of the responses here I didn't expect at all. I was thinking for sure my way was much slower. Tell me what I did wrong: public Stopwatch AsRun() { Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); for (Int32 loopCounter = 0; loopCounter < 10000; loopCounter++) { Boolean? test = true as Boolean?; if (test.HasValue) { Boolean something = test.Value; } } watch.Stop(); return watch; } public Stopwatch ObjectIsRun() { Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); for (Int32 loopCounter = 0; loopCounter < 10000; loopCounter++) { Object test = true; if (test is Boolean) { Boolean something = (Boolean)test; } } watch.Stop(); return watch; } Every time I run these methods against each other, the AsRun is twice as fast.

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  • Implement two functions with the same name but different, non-covariant return types due to multiple abstract base classes

    - by user1508167
    If I have two abstract classes defining a pure virtual function with the same name, but different, non-covariant return types, how can I derive from these and define an implementation for both their functions? #include <iostream> class ITestA { public: virtual ~ITestA() {}; virtual float test() =0; }; class ITestB { public: virtual ~ITestB() {}; virtual bool test() =0; }; class C : public ITestA, public ITestB { public: /* Somehow implement ITestA::test and ITestB::test */ }; int main() { ITestA *a = new C(); std::cout << a->test() << std::endl; // should print a float, like "3.14" ITestB *b = dynamic_cast<ITestB *>(a); if (b) { std::cout << b->test() << std::endl; // should print "1" or "0" } delete(a); return 0; } As long as I don't call C::test() directly there's nothing ambiguous, so I think that it should work somehow and I guess I just didn't find the right notation yet. Or is this impossible, if so: Why?

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  • My computer freezes irregularly

    - by Manhim
    My computer started to freeze at irregular times for 3 weeks now. Please note that this question change with each things that i try. (For additional details) What happens My computer freezes, the video stops. (No graphic glitches, it just stops) Sound keeps playing up to some time (Usually 10-30 seconds) then stops playing. Sometimes, randomly, the screen on my G-15 keyboard flickers and I see caracters not at the right places. Usually happens for about 1-2 seconds and a bit before my computer freezes. I have to keep the power button pressed for 4 seconds to shut my computer down. I still hear my hard drives and fans working. Sometimes it works with no problems for a full day, some other times it just keeps freezing each time I restart my computer and I have to leave it for the rest of the day. Sometimes my mouse freezes for a fraction of a second (Like 0.01 to 0.2 seconds) quite randomly, usually before it freezes. No errors spotted by the "Action center" unlike when I had problems with my last video card on this system (Driver errors). My G-15 LCD screen also freezes. Sometimes my G-15 LCD screen flickers and caracters gets caried around temporary under heavy load. Now, most of the times, the BIOS hard disks boot order gets reversed for some reason and I have to put it to the right one and save each times I boot. (Might be unrelated, not sure, but it first started yesterday) Sometimes the BIOS doesn't detect my 750GB hard drive plugged in SATA1. What I did so far I have had similar problems in the past and I had changed my hard drive (It was faulty), so I tested my software RAID-0 array and it was faulty so I changed it. (I reinstalled Windows 7 with this part). I also tested with unplugging my secondary hard drive. My CPU was running at about 100 degree Celsius, I removed the dust between the fans and the heatsink and it's now between 45-55. I ran a CPU stress-test and it didn't freeze during the tests (using Prime95 on all cores) Ran a memory test (using memtest86+) for a single pass and there were no errors. Ran a GPU stress test with ati-tools and furmark and it didn't freeze during the tests. (No artefacts either) I had troubles with my graphic card when I got it, but I think that it got fixed with a driver update. I checked the voltages in my BIOS setup and they all seemed ok (±0.2 I think). I have ran on the computer without problems with Fedora 15 on an external hard drive (Appart that it couldn't load Gnome 3 and was reverting to Gnome 2, didn't want to install drivers since I use it on multiple computers) I used it to backup my files from the raid array to my 1TB hard drive for the reinstallation of Windows. (So the crashes only happenned on Windows) [The external hard drive is plugged directly on a SATA port] I contacted EVGA (My graphic card vendor) and pointed them on this question, I'm looking for an answer. Ran sensors on Fedora 15 and got this output: http://pastebin.com/0BHJnAvu Ran 6 short different CPU stress test on Fedora 15 (Haven't found any complete stress testers for Linux) and it didn't crash. Changed the thermal paste to some Artic Silver 5 for my CPU and stress tested the CPU, temperature was at 50 idle, then 64 highest and slowly went down to 62 during the test. Ran some stress testing with a temporary graphic card and it went ok. Ran furmark stress test with my original graphic card and it freezed again. GPU had a temp of 74C, a CPU temp of 58C and a mobo temp of 40C or 45C (Dunno which one it is from SpeedFan). Ran a furmark stress test and a CPU stress test at the same time, results: http://pastebin.com/2t6PLpdJ I have been using my computer without stressing it for about 2 hours now and no crashes yet. I also have disabled the AMD Cool'n'quiet function on the BIOS for a more regular power to the CPU. When I ran Furmark without C'n'q my computer didn't freeze but I had a "Driver Kernel Error" that have recovered (And Furmark crashed) all that while running a CPU stress test. The computer eventually frozed without me being at it, but this time my screen just went on sleep and I couldn't wake it. Using the stability tester in nTune my computer freezed again (In the same manner as before). I notived that Speedfan gives me a -12V of -16.97V and a -5V of -8.78V. I wonder if these numbers are reliable and if they are good or bad. I have swapped my G-15 with another basic USB keyboard (HP) and I have ran furmark for about 10 minutes with a CPU stability test running each 60 seconds for 30 seconds and my computer haven't crashed yet. Ran some more extended tests without my G-15 and it freezed like it usually do. Removed the nForce Hard disk controler. Disabled command queuing in the NVIDIA nForce SATA Controller for both port 0 and port 1 (Errors from the logs) Used CPUID HwMonitor, here are the voltages: http://pastebin.com/dfM7p4jV Changed some configurations in the motherboard BIOS: Disabled PEG Link Mode, Changed AI Tuning to Standard, Disabled the 1394 Controller, Disabled HD Audio, Disabled JMicron RAID controller and Disabled SATA Raid. When it happens When I play video games (Mostly) When I play flash games (Second most) When I'm looking at my desktop background (It rarely happens when I have a window open, but it does, sometimes) When my Graphic card and my CPU are stressed. Sometimes when my Graphic card is stressed. Never happenned while stressing only the CPU. Sometimes when my CPU is stressed. Specs Windows Seven x64 Home Premium Motherboard: M2N-SLI Deluxe CPU: AMD Phenom 9950 x2 @ 2.6GHz Memory: Kingston 4x2GB Dual Channel (Pretty basic memory sticks) Hard drives: Was 2x250GB (Western digital caviar) in raid-0 + 1TB (WD caviar black), I replaced the raid array with a 750GB (WD caviar black) [Yes I removed the array from the raid configurations] 750W Power supply No overcloking. Ever. There have been some power-downs like 4-5 weeks ago, but the problem didn't start immediately after. (I wasn't home, so my computer got shut-down) Event logs (Warnings, errors and critical errors) for the last 24 hours: http://pastebin.com/Bvvk31T7 My current to-try list Reinstall the drivers and software 1 by 1 and do extensive stress testing between each. Update the BIOS firmware to the most recent stable one. Change my motherboard. Status updates Keeping only the last 3 (28/06 04pm) More stress testing and still pass the tests. (28/06 03pm) Been stress testing for 10 minute straight now and 5 minutes with both CPU and GPU being stressed at the same time. (28/06 03pm) Stress-testing right now, so far no problems. A little hope Tests with Furmark and Prime95. Testing Windows bare-bone: 30 Minutes stress, no freeze. Installing an Anti-virus and some software, restarting computer. Testing with Anti-virus and some software (No drivers installed): 30 Minutes stress, no freeze. Installing audio drivers, restarting computer. Testing with the audio drivers: 30 Minutes stress, no freeze. Installing the latest graphic drivers from EVGA's website (without 3d vision since I don't use it), restarting computer. Testing with the graphic drivers: 30 Minutes stress, no freeze. Configuring Windows to my liking and installing more softwares. In this situation, how can I successfully pin-point the current hardware problem? (If it's a hardware problem) Because I don't really have the budget to just forget and replace everything. I also don't really have hardware to test-replace current hardware.

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  • Gmail rejects emails. Openspf.net fails the tests

    - by pablomedok
    I've got a problem with Gmail. It started after one of our trojan infected PCs sent spam for one day from our IP address. We've fixed the problem, but we got into 3 black lists. We've fixed that, too. But still every time we send an email to Gmail the message is rejected: So I've checked Google Bulk Sender's guide once again and found an error in our SPF record and fixed it. Google says everything should become fine after some time, but this doesn't happen. 3 weeks already passed but we still can't send emails to Gmail. Our MX setup is a bit complex, but not too much: We have a domain name delo-company.com, it has it's own mail @delo-company.com (this one is fine, but the problems are with sub-domain name corp.delo-company.com). Delo-company.com domain has several DNS records for the subdomain: corp A 82.209.198.147 corp MX 20 corp.delo-company.com corp.delo-company.com TXT "v=spf1 ip4:82.209.198.147 ~all" (I set ~all for testing purposes only, it was -all before that) These records are for our corporate Exchange 2003 server at 82.209.198.147. Its LAN name is s2.corp.delo-company.com so its HELO/EHLO greetings are also s2.corp.delo-company.com. To pass EHLO check we've also created some records in delo-company.com's DNS: s2.corp A 82.209.198.147 s2.corp.delo-company.com TXT "v=spf1 ip4:82.209.198.147 ~all" As I understand SPF verifications should be passed in this way: Out server s2 connects to MX of the recepient (Rcp.MX): EHLO s2.corp.delo-company.com Rcp.MX says Ok, and makes SPF check of HELO/EHLO. It does NSlookup for s2.corp.delo-company.com and gets the above DNS-records. TXT records says that s2.corp.delo-company.com should be only from IP 82.209.198.147. So it should be passed. Then our s2 server says RCPT FROM: Rcp.MX` server checks it, too. The values are the same so they should also be positive. Maybe there is also a rDNS check, but I'm not sure what is checked HELO or RCPT FROM. Our PTR record for 82.209.198.147 is: 147.198.209.82.in-addr.arpa. 86400 IN PTR s2.corp.delo-company.com. To me everything looks fine, but anyway all emails are rejected by Gmail. So, I've checked MXtoolbox.com - it says everything is fine, I passed http://www.kitterman.com/spf/validate.html Python check, I did 25port.com email test. It's fine, too: Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from s2.corp.delo-company.com (82.209.198.147) by verifier.port25.com id ha45na11u9cs for <[email protected]>; Fri, 2 Mar 2012 13:03:21 -0500 (envelope-from <[email protected]>) Authentication-Results: verifier.port25.com; spf=pass [email protected] Authentication-Results: verifier.port25.com; domainkeys=neutral (message not signed) [email protected] Authentication-Results: verifier.port25.com; dkim=neutral (message not signed) Authentication-Results: verifier.port25.com; sender-id=pass [email protected] Content-class: urn:content-classes:message MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary="----_=_NextPart_001_01CCF89E.BE02A069" Subject: test Date: Fri, 2 Mar 2012 21:03:15 +0300 X-MimeOLE: Produced By Microsoft Exchange V6.5 Message-ID: <[email protected]> X-MS-Has-Attach: X-MS-TNEF-Correlator: Thread-Topic: test Thread-Index: Acz4jS34oznvbyFQR4S5rXsNQFvTdg== From: =?koi8-r?B?89XQ0tXOwMsg8MHXxcw=?= <[email protected]> To: <[email protected]> I also checked with [email protected], but it FAILs all the time, no matter which SPF records I make: <s2.corp.delo-company.com #5.7.1 smtp;550 5.7.1 <[email protected]>: Recipient address rejected: SPF Tests: Mail-From Result="softfail": Mail From="[email protected]" HELO name="s2.corp.delo-company.com" HELO Result="softfail" Remote IP="82.209.198.147"> I've filled Gmail form twice, but nothing happens. We do not send spam, only emails for our clients. 2 or 3 times we did mass emails (like New Year Greetings and sales promos) from corp.delo-company.com addresses, but they where all complying to Gmail Bulk Sender's Guide (I mean SPF, Open Relays, Precedence: Bulk and Unsubscribe tags). So, this should be not a problem. Please, help me. What am I doing wrong? UPD: I also tried Unlocktheinbox.com test and the server also fails this test. Here is the result: http://bit.ly/wYr39h . Here is one more http://bit.ly/ypWLjr I also tried to send email from that server manually via telnet and everything is fine. Here is what I type: 220 mx.google.com ESMTP g15si4811326anb.170 HELO s2.corp.delo-company.com 250 mx.google.com at your service MAIL FROM: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.0 OK g15si4811326anb.170 RCPT TO: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.5 OK g15si4811326anb.170 DATA 354 Go ahead g15si4811326anb.170 From: [email protected] To: Pavel <[email protected]> Subject: Test 28 This is telnet test . 250 2.0.0 OK 1330795021 g15si4811326anb.170 QUIT 221 2.0.0 closing connection g15si4811326anb.170 And this is what I get: Delivered-To: [email protected] Received: by 10.227.132.73 with SMTP id a9csp96864wbt; Sat, 3 Mar 2012 09:17:02 -0800 (PST) Received: by 10.101.128.12 with SMTP id f12mr4837125ann.49.1330795021572; Sat, 03 Mar 2012 09:17:01 -0800 (PST) Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from s2.corp.delo-company.com (s2.corp.delo-company.com. [82.209.198.147]) by mx.google.com with SMTP id g15si4811326anb.170.2012.03.03.09.15.59; Sat, 03 Mar 2012 09:17:00 -0800 (PST) Received-SPF: pass (google.com: domain of [email protected] designates 82.209.198.147 as permitted sender) client-ip=82.209.198.147; Authentication-Results: mx.google.com; spf=pass (google.com: domain of [email protected] designates 82.209.198.147 as permitted sender) [email protected] Date: Sat, 03 Mar 2012 09:17:00 -0800 (PST) Message-Id: <[email protected]> From: [email protected] To: Pavel <[email protected]> Subject: Test 28 This is telnet test

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  • Error when running a GWTTestCase using maven gwt plugin

    - by adancu
    Hi, I've created a test which extends GWTTestCase but I'm getting this error: mvn integration-test gwt:test Running com.myproject.test.ui. GwtTestMyFirstTestCase Translatable source found in... [WARN] No source path entries; expect subsequent failures [ERROR] Unable to find type 'java.lang.Object' [ERROR] Hint: Check that your module inherits 'com.google.gwt.core.Core' either directly or indirectly (most often by inheriting module 'com.google.gwt.user.User') Tests run: 1, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 2.1 sec <<< FAILURE! GwtTestMyFirstTestCase.java is in /src/test/java, while the GWT module is located in src/main/java. I assume this shouldn't be a problem. I've done everything required according to http://mojo.codehaus.org/gwt-maven-plugin/user-guide/testing.html and of course that my gwt module already has com.google.gwt.core.Core indirectly imported. http://maven.apache.org/maven-v4_0_0.xsd" 4.0.0 com.myproject main jar 0.0.1-SNAPSHOT Main Module <properties> <gwt.module>com.myproject.MainModule</gwt.module> </properties> <parent> <groupId>com.myproject</groupId> <artifactId>app</artifactId> <version>0.1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> </parent> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.myproject</groupId> <artifactId>app-commons</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>com.google.gwt</groupId> <artifactId>gwt-dev</artifactId> <version>${gwt.version}</version> <scope>provided</scope> </dependency> </dependencies> <build> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-dependency-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <outputFile>../app/src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/main.tree</outputFile> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>gwt-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>test</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jar-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <classesDirectory> ${project.build.directory}/${project.build.finalName}/${gwt.module} </classesDirectory> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Here is the test case, located in /src/test/java/com/myproject/test/ui public class GwtTestMyFirstTestCase extends GWTTestCase { @Override public String getModuleName() { return "com.myproject.MainModule"; } public void testSomething() { } } Here is the gwt module I'm trying to test, located in src/main/java/com/myproject/MainModule.gwt.xml: <inherits name='com.myproject.Commons' /> <source path="site" /> <source path="com.myproject.test.ui" /> <set-property name="gwt.suppressNonStaticFinalFieldWarnings" value="true" /> <entry-point class='com.myproject.site.SiteModuleEntry' /> Can anyone give me a hint or two about what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with GCC calling static templates functions in templated parent class.

    - by Adisak
    I have some code that compiles and runs on MSVC++ but will not compile on GCC. I have made a test snippet that follows. My goal was to move the static method from BFSMask to BFSMaskSized. Can someone explain what is going on with the errors (esp. the weird 'operator<' error)? Thank you. In the case of both #defines are 0, then the code compiles on GCC. #define DOESNT_COMPILE_WITH_GCC 0 #define FUNCTION_IN_PARENT 0 I get errors if I change either #define to 1. Here are the errors I see. #define DOESNT_COMPILE_WITH_GCC 0 #define FUNCTION_IN_PARENT 1 Test.cpp: In static member function 'static typename Snapper::BFSMask<T>::T_Parent::T_SINT Snapper::BFSMask<T>::Create_NEZ(TCMP)': Test.cpp(492): error: 'CreateMaskFromHighBitSized' was not declared in this scope #define DOESNT_COMPILE_WITH_GCC 1 #define FUNCTION_IN_PARENT 0 Test.cpp: In static member function 'static typename Snapper::BFSMask<T>::T_Parent::T_SINT Snapper::BFSMask<T>::Create_NEZ(TCMP) [with TCMP = int, T = int]': Test.cpp(500): instantiated from 'TVAL Snapper::BFWrappedInc(TVAL, TVAL, TVAL) [with TVAL = int]' Test.cpp(508): instantiated from here Test.cpp(490): error: invalid operands of types '<unresolved overloaded function type>' and 'unsigned int' to binary 'operator<' #define DOESNT_COMPILE_WITH_GCC 1 #define FUNCTION_IN_PARENT 1 Test.cpp: In static member function 'static typename Snapper::BFSMask<T>::T_Parent::T_SINT Snapper::BFSMask<T>::Create_NEZ(TCMP) [with TCMP = int, T = int]': Test.cpp(500): instantiated from 'TVAL Snapper::BFWrappedInc(TVAL, TVAL, TVAL) [with TVAL = int]' Test.cpp(508): instantiated from here Test.cpp(490): error: invalid operands of types '<unresolved overloaded function type>' and 'unsigned int' to binary 'operator<' Here is the code namespace Snapper { #define DOESNT_COMPILE_WITH_GCC 0 #define FUNCTION_IN_PARENT 0 // MASK TYPES // NEZ - Not Equal to Zero #define BFSMASK_NEZ(A) ( ( A ) | ( 0 - A ) ) #define BFSELECT_MASK(MASK,VTRUE,VFALSE) ( ((MASK)&(VTRUE)) | ((~(MASK))&(VFALSE)) ) template<typename TVAL> TVAL BFSelect_MASK(TVAL MASK,TVAL VTRUE,TVAL VFALSE) { return(BFSELECT_MASK(MASK,VTRUE,VFALSE)); } //----------------------------------------------------------------------------- // Branch Free Helpers template<int BYTESIZE> struct BFSMaskBase {}; template<> struct BFSMaskBase<2> { typedef UINT16 T_UINT; typedef SINT16 T_SINT; }; template<> struct BFSMaskBase<4> { typedef UINT32 T_UINT; typedef SINT32 T_SINT; }; template<int BYTESIZE> struct BFSMaskSized : public BFSMaskBase<BYTESIZE> { static const int SizeBytes = BYTESIZE; static const int SizeBits = SizeBytes*8; static const int MaskShift = SizeBits-1; typedef typename BFSMaskBase<BYTESIZE>::T_UINT T_UINT; typedef typename BFSMaskBase<BYTESIZE>::T_SINT T_SINT; #if FUNCTION_IN_PARENT template<int N> static T_SINT CreateMaskFromHighBitSized(typename BFSMaskBase<N>::T_SINT inmask); #endif }; template<typename T> struct BFSMask : public BFSMaskSized<sizeof(T)> { // BFSMask = -1 (all bits set) typedef BFSMask<T> T_This; // "Import" the Parent Class typedef BFSMaskSized<sizeof(T)> T_Parent; typedef typename T_Parent::T_SINT T_SINT; #if FUNCTION_IN_PARENT typedef T_Parent T_MaskGen; #else typedef T_This T_MaskGen; template<int N> static T_SINT CreateMaskFromHighBitSized(typename BFSMaskSized<N>::T_SINT inmask); #endif template<typename TCMP> static T_SINT Create_NEZ(TCMP A) { //ReDefineType(const typename BFSMask<TCMP>::T_SINT,SA,A); //const typename BFSMask<TCMP>::T_SINT cmpmask = BFSMASK_NEZ(SA); const typename BFSMask<TCMP>::T_SINT cmpmask = BFSMASK_NEZ(A); #if DOESNT_COMPILE_WITH_GCC return(T_MaskGen::CreateMaskFromHighBitSized<sizeof(TCMP)>(cmpmask)); #else return(CreateMaskFromHighBitSized<sizeof(TCMP)>(cmpmask)); #endif } }; template<typename TVAL> TVAL BFWrappedInc(TVAL x,TVAL minval,TVAL maxval) { const TVAL diff = maxval-x; const TVAL mask = BFSMask<TVAL>::Create_NEZ(diff); const TVAL incx = x + 1; return(BFSelect_MASK(mask,incx,minval)); } SINT32 currentsnap = 0; SINT32 SetSnapshot() { currentsnap=BFWrappedInc<SINT32>(currentsnap,0,20); return(currentsnap); } }

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  • WebDav rename fails on an Apache mod_dav install behind NginX

    - by The Daemons Advocate
    I'm trying to solve a problem with renaming files over WebDav. Our stack consists of a single machine, serving content through Nginx, Varnish and Apache. When you try to rename a file, the operation fails with the stack that we're currently using. To connect to WebDav, a client program must: Connect over https://host:443 to NginX NginX unwraps and forwards the request to a Varnish server on http://localhost:81 Varnish forwards the request to Apache on http://localhost:82, which offers a session via mod_dav Here's an example of a failed rename: $ cadaver https://webdav.domain/ Authentication required for Webdav on server `webdav.domain': Username: user Password: dav:/> cd sandbox dav:/sandbox/> mkdir test Creating `test': succeeded. dav:/sandbox/> ls Listing collection `/sandbox/': succeeded. Coll: test 0 Mar 12 16:00 dav:/sandbox/> move test newtest Moving `/sandbox/test' to `/sandbox/newtest': redirect to http://webdav.domain/sandbox/test/ dav:/sandbox/> ls Listing collection `/sandbox/': succeeded. Coll: test 0 Mar 12 16:00 For more feedback, the WebDrive windows client logged an error 502 (Bad Gateway) and 303 (?) on the rename operation. The extended logs gave this information: Destination URI refers to different scheme or port (https://hostname:443) (want: http://hostname:82). Some other Restrictions: Investigations into NginX's Webdav modules show that it doesn't really fit our needs, and forwarding webdav traffic to Apache isn't an option because we don't want to enable Apache SSL. Are there any ways to trick mod_dav to forward to another host? I'm open to ideas :).

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  • OpenSSL response 404 issue on centOS 6

    - by dsp_099
    I followed this tutorial (though it's for 5.2, I figured I'd be alright). The changes I had to make that seemed to have worked: Rename ca.csr to ca.cslr (that's the one the command generated) List it in the ssl.conf as ca.cslr instead of ca.csr I have the following in the httpd.conf <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /etc/test ServerName site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:433> SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile /etc/pki/tls/certs/ca.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/pki/tls/private/ca.key <Directory /etc/test> AllowOverride All </Directory> DocumentRoot /etc/test ServerName cryptokings.com </VirtualHost> /test contains a folder inside of it, accessible via http://site.com/test/foo, however attempting to access it via https://site.com/test/foo results in warning that the certificate is untrusted (self-signed, no biggie) a 404 error. Chrome's complains about the certificate are the following: The identity of this website has not been verified. • Server's certificate does not match the URL. • Server's certificate is not trusted. I think those warnings are a side-effect of a self-signed certificate - or is the first one something that needs to be addressed? I seem to be able fetch the root page via https just fine though, it shows a standard CentOS setup page. (That said, I haven't added a VirtualHost entry for it so I suppose that makes sense) I think I've made a mistake somewhere during the setup as I'm not too familiar with the process. During setup, I was prompted for a type of password that would be required when apache restarts but running service httpd restart does not seem to prompt me for one. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • MSDTC - Communication with the underlying transaction manager has failed (Firewall open, MSDTC network access on)

    - by SocialAddict
    I'm having problems with my ASP.NET web forms system. It worked on our test server but now we are putting it live one of the servers is within a DMZ and the SQL server is outside of that (on our network still though - although a different subnet) I have open up the firewall completely between these two boxes to see if that was the issue and it still gives the error message "Communication with the underlying transaction manager has failed" whenever we try and use the "TransactionScope". We can access the data for retrieval it's just transactions that break it. We have also used msdtc ping to test the connection and with the amendments on the firewall that pings successfully, but the same error occurs! How do i resolve this error? Any help would be great as we have a system to go live today. Panic :) Edit: I have created a more straightforward test page with a transaction as below and this works fine. Could a nested transaction cause this kind of error and if so why would this only cause an issue when using a live box in a dmz with a firewall? AuditRepository auditRepository = new AuditRepository(); try { using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { auditRepository.Add(DateTime.Now, 1, "TEST-TRANSACTIONS#1", 1); auditRepository.Save(); auditRepository.Add(DateTime.Now, 1, "TEST-TRANSACTIONS#2", 1); auditRepository.Save(); scope.Complete(); } } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write("Test Error For Transaction: " + ex.Message + "<br />" + ex.StackTrace); }

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