Search Results

Search found 379 results on 16 pages for 'evan robinson'.

Page 12/16 | < Previous Page | 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >

  • Automatically number items in a wpf listbox

    - by evan
    I have a person class with two properties, Name an Age. I know how to use databinding to display a collection of person in a wpf list box and how to modify the listitemtemplate to customize how each person is displayed. Now I'd like to number each person on the list according to the order they appear on the list (which could change as the the items were sorted via name or age in the display). Is there a way to do that with the item template so instead of having a list like Rob - 14 John - 56 Suzy - 32 it would be 1) Rob - 14 2) John - 56 3) Suzy - 32 Basically i'd like to do something like: <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <WrapPanel> **<TextBlock Text="{Binding CurrentPositionInList}" />** <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Age}" /> </WrapPanel> </DataTemplate> Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

    Read the article

  • UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

    - by Ben Robinson
    I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

    Read the article

  • Opinions on collision detection objects with a moving scene

    - by Evan Teran
    So my question is simple, and I guess it boils down to how anal you want to be about collision detection. To keep things simple, lets assume we're talking about 2D sprites defined by a bounding box. In addition, let's assume that my sprite object has a function to detect collisions like this: S.collidesWith(other); Finally the scene is moving and "walls" in the scene can move, an object may not touch a wall. So a simple implementation might look like this (psuedo code): moveWalls(); moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } The problem with this is that if the sprite and wall move towards each other, depending on the circumstances (such as diagonal moment). They may pass though each other (unlikely but could happen). So I may do this instead. moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } This takes care of the passing through each other issue, but another rare issue comes up. If they are adjacent to each other (literally the next pixel) and both the wall and the sprite are moving left, then I will get an invalid collision since the wall moves, checks for collision (hit) then the sprite is moved. Which seems unfair. In addition, to that, the redundant collision detection feels very inefficient. I could give the player movement priority alleviating the first issue but it is still checking twice. moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } Am I simply over thinking this issue, should this just be chalked up to "it'll happen rare enough that no one will care"? Certainly looking at old sprite based games, I often find situations where the collision detection has subtle flaws, but I figure by now we can do better :-P. What are people's thoughts?

    Read the article

  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

    Read the article

  • Password test in 1st Tab.m to load a loginView gives class error?

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a name and password in NSUserDefaults for login. I have this in my 1stTab View.m class to test for presence and load a login/signup loginView.xib modally if there is no password or name stored in the app. Here is the pulling of the defaults: -(void)refreshFields { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; usernameLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kUsernameKey]; passwordLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kPasswordKey]; { Here is the Test: - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [self refreshFields]; [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if ([usernameLabel.text length] == 0 || [passwordLabel.text length] == 0) { LoginViewController * vc = [[[LoginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoginView" bundle:nil] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated: false]; } else { [[self tableView ]reloadData]; } } Thanks in advance, I'm getting this error in the console: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSUnknownKeyException', reason: '[ setValue:forUndefinedKey:]: this class is not key value coding-compliant for the key usernameLabel.'

    Read the article

  • On Render Callback For G+ Button

    - by Michael Robinson
    How might I go about performing an action only when a G+ button has finished rendering? Facebook allows one to do this using the following: FB.XFBML.parse(document, function() { alert('rendering done'); }); I've perused Google's documentation, but didn't see anything helpful. Currently my workaround is to monitor the G+ element until certain elements have been added, then perform my action: (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; po.onload = function() { var awaitRender = function(element) { if (element.firstChild && element.firstChild.firstChild && element.firstChild.firstChild.tagName.toUpperCase() === 'IFRAME') { alert('rendered!'); } else { window.setTimeout(function() { awaitRender(element) }, 100); } }; var buttons = document.getElementsByClassName('googleplus-button'); for(var i = 0; i < buttons.length; i++) { awaitRender(buttons[i]); } } var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })(); I'd like to know please, if there is either: A correct way one should do this for G+ buttons A better implementation that what I've hacked together above

    Read the article

  • Is it bad to have the <link> tag for hCard when there is no hCard on that page?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I'm just wondering if it is bad practice to put the <link> tag for hCard profile on every page, if you don't know that the page being rendered has an hCard. My site has hCards - is it worth trimming the link tag out of the pages that don't have them? <link rel="profile" href="http://microformats.org/profile/hcard"> Does this mean this page has an hCard or look for an hCard on this page? Does it mean interpret an hCard as specified, if found? Obviously, you can pull in stylesheets using <link> but they apply to the page. I don't even see anything at that destination other than some sub-par hCard documentation.

    Read the article

  • How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

    Read the article

  • correct way to store an exception in a variable

    - by Evan Teran
    I have an API which internally has some exceptions for error reporting. The basic structure is that it has a root exception object which inherits from std::exception, then it will throw some subclass of that. Since catching an exception thrown in one library and catching it in another can lead to undefined behavior (at least Qt complains about it and disallows it in many contexts). I would like to wrap the library calls in functions which will return a status code, and if an exception occurred, a copy of the exception object. What is the best way to store an exception (with it's polymorphic behavior) for later use? I believe that the c++0x futures API makes use of something like this. So what is the best approach? The best I can think of is to have a clone() method in each exception class which will return a pointer to an exception of the same type. But that's not very generic and doesn't deal with standard exceptions at all. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Updating an input value with Jquery

    - by Evan
    I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

    Read the article

  • How can a large number of developers write software without either a cumbersome process or poor qual

    - by Mark Robinson
    I work at a company with hundreds of people writing software for essentially the same product. The quality of the software has to be high because so many people depend on it (not least the developers themselves). Because of this every major issue has resulted in a new check - either automated or manual. As a result the process of delivering software is becoming ever more burdensome. So that requires more developers which... well you can see it is a vicious circle. We now have a problem with releasing software quickly - the lead time even to change one line of code for a very serious issue is at least one day. What techniques do you use to speed up the delivery of software in a large organization, while still maintaining software quality?

    Read the article

  • Adding a search box to a windows forms web browser control that highlights text

    - by evan
    I have a windows forms (using c#) application. It displays a webpage and has a textbox/botton combination which can be used to search for text displayed to the user. Currently I search the inner text of all elements for the text in the textbox. And then I weed out the elements that are redundant (for example a word could be in a 'p' and 'b' element where the 'b' is a child element of 'p' so the element returned should be 'b'). Finally I run the ScrollIntoView(true) method on the found element. I'd now like to add a function that highlights the text (like if you search for a term in a real webbrowser). My first thought was to just inject html and or javascript code around the text but that seems like a messy solution. Any ideas on how I should do this? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • I want to use contents of String or Array in an IF ELSE statement for iphone

    - by Michael Robinson
    I want to check to see if an array is empty to activate a shipping method. Here is the code for returning the array. NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *fullFileName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/arraySaveFile", documentsDirectory]; NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:fullFileName]; I want to write something like: if NSString *fullFileName ="" ; [nnNEP EnableShipping]; else [nnNEP DisableShipping]; OR if array contents ="" ; [nnNEP EnableShipping]; else [nnNEP DisableShipping]; I just can't find the right or description on how to do this properly. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • CSS- How to align background image over bottom border line? Jsfiddle included

    - by John Robinson
    I have an image I am trying to display over the top of a bottom border, but it is being arranged behind the bottom border element (in this example, named "divider"), and I can't get it to align correctly. I would like the image to be displayed in the middle of the the border element and over the top of it. Vertically, I am trying to get the 1px line on the left and right side of the image to align with the 1px border to appear as if it is one element. Here is the code: .divider { border-bottom: 1px solid #c3c3c3; clear: both; display: block; margin-bottom: 20px; padding-top: 20px; width: 100%; } .sidearrow { background: url(http://s16.postimage.org/sbf7v9n75/sidearrow.png) 50% 14px no-repeat; width: 100%; height: 25px; }? <p>Here is some content above</p> <div class="sidearrow"></div> <div class="divider"></div> <p>Here is some content below</p>? And the jsfiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/F5xjx/2/ Any ideas how to get this to work? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I view the CMake command line statement that Qt Creator executes?

    - by Evan
    I'm attempting to debug a command line CMake failure. The same CMake file works in Qt Creator, with the arguments in the Qt Creator window matching what I have entered on the command line. This makes me think Qt Creator is adding some extra arguments, which makes sense since the generator drop down has several options that specify architecture and CMake version. Is there a way to get the CMake command that Qt Creator executed to produce the desired result, specifically the arguments passed to the CMake executable? I found one post that talks about viewing the CMakeCache files to do some forensics, but this only proves there are differences, it doesn't quickly show me what arguments to change.

    Read the article

  • wpf command pattern

    - by evan
    I have a wpf gui which displays a list of information in separate window and in a separate thread from the main application. As the user performs actions in the main window the side window is updated. (For example if you clicked page down in the main window a listbox in the side window would page down). Right now the architecture for this application feels very messy and I'm sure there is a cleaner way to do it. It looks like this: Main Window contains a singleton SideWindowControl which communicates with an instance of the SideWindowDisplay using events - so, for example, the pagedown button would work like: 1) the event handler of the button on the main window calls SideWindowControl.PageDown() 2) in the PageDown() function a event is created and thrown. 3) finally the gui, ShowSideWindowDisplay is subscribing to the SideWindowControl.Actions event handles the event and actually scrolls the listbox down - note because it is in a different thread it has to do that by running the command via Dispatcher.Invoke() This just seems like a very messy way to this and there must be a clearer way (The only part that can't change is that the main window and the side window must be on different threads). Perhaps using WPF commands? I'd really appreciate any suggestions!! Thanks

    Read the article

  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

    Read the article

  • How do I wait for a C# event to be raised?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have a Sender class that sends a Message on a IChannel: public class MessageEventArgs : EventArgs { public Message Message { get; private set; } public MessageEventArgs(Message m) { Message = m; } } public interface IChannel { public event EventHandler<MessageEventArgs> MessageReceived; void Send(Message m); } public class Sender { public const int MaxWaitInMs = 5000; private IChannel _c = ...; public Message Send(Message m) { _c.Send(m); // wait for MaxWaitInMs to get an event from _c.MessageReceived // return the message or null if no message was received in response } } When we send messages, the IChannel sometimes gives a response depending on what kind of Message was sent by raising the MessageReceived event. The event arguments contain the message of interest. I want Sender.Send() method to wait for a short time to see if this event is raised. If so, I'll return its MessageEventArgs.Message property. If not, I return a null Message. How can I wait in this way? I'd prefer not to have do the threading legwork with ManualResetEvents and such, so sticking to regular events would be optimal for me.

    Read the article

  • Find a base case for a recursive void method

    - by Evan S
    I am doing homework. I would like to build a base case for a recursion where ordering given numbers (list2) in ascending order. Purpose of writing this codes is that when all numbers are in ascending order then should stop calling a method called ascending(list2, list1); and all values in list2 should be shipped to list1. For instance, list2 = 6,5,4,3,2,1 then list2 becomes empty and list1 should be 1,2,3,4,5,6. I am trying to compare result with previous one and if matches then stop. But I can't find the base case to stop it. In addition, Both ascending() and fixedPoint() are void method. Anybody has idea? lol Took me 3 days... When I run my code then 6,5,4,3,2,1 5,6,4,3,2,1 4,5,6,3,2,1 3,4,5,6,2,1 2,3,4,5,6,1 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 1,2,3,4,5,6 infinite............. public class Flipper { public static void main(String[] args) { Flipper aFlipper = new Flipper(); List<Integer> content = Arrays.asList(6,5,4,3,2,1); ArrayList<Integer> l1 = new ArrayList<Integer>(content); ArrayList<Integer> l2 = new ArrayList<Integer>(); // empty list aFlipper.fixedPoint(l2,l1); System.out.println("fix l1 is "+l1); System.out.println("fix l2 is "+l2); } public void fixedPoint(ArrayList<Integer> list1, ArrayList<Integer> list2) { // data is in list2 ArrayList<Integer> temp1 = new ArrayList<Integer>(); // empty list if (temp1.equals(list2)) { System.out.println("found!!!"); } else { ascending(list2, list1); // data, null temp1 = list1; // store processed value System.out.println("st list1 is "+list1); System.out.println("st list2 is "+list2); } fixedPoint(list2, list1); // null, processed data }

    Read the article

  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

    Read the article

  • Slickgrid, confirm before edit

    - by Evan
    I am making a slick grid and need the ability to add rows with a code column. For this to be possible the code column needs to be editable for the entire table. I am trying to work out a way that I can confirm the edit with a standard javascript confirm popup box. I tried putting one into the onedit event within the slickgrid constructor and that executed after the edit. I am led to believe that the edit function is independent from calling the edit stored procedure of the database. Is there a better way to go about this? RF_tagsTable = new IndustrialSlickGrid( LadlesContainerSG , { URL: Global.DALServiceURL + "CallProcedure" , DatabaseParameters: { Procedure: "dbo.TableRF_tags" , ConnectionStringName: Global.ConnectionStringNames.LadleTracker } , Title: "RF tags" , Attributes: { AllowDelete: true , defaultColumnWidth: 120 , editable: true , enableAddRow: true , enableCellNavigation: true , enableColumnReorder: false , rowHeight: 25 , autoHeight: true , autoEdit: false , forceFitColumns: true } , Events: { onRowEdited : rowEdited /*function(){ //this is my failed attempt var r=confirm("Edit an existing tag?") if (r){ alert(r); } else { alert(r); } }*/ , onRowAdded : rowAdded } });

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >