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  • update div after jeditable submit in rails

    - by nvano
    i want to submit the text from jeditable, store it in the database and then i don´t want to render the updated text back to jeditable field, i want to update the whole div in which the jeditable field (and maybee other text fields) is. f.e. i change the username via jeditable inplace editor, then i store the changes in the db and now i want to update the complete div which contains the username (in place editor) and also other divs, cause after the username changes, the email changes, too.

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  • Eclipse update problem?

    - by qwerty
    Hello, Please take a look here: Why i got that error when i'm trying to update my Eclipse Galileo to the newest Eclipse M6 Helios? I'm using the update URL from here: http://eclipsesource.com/blogs/2010/03/14/eclipse-3-6-m6-helios-available-for-download/ Is this a bug? If not, what can i do? Please help. Thanks!

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  • SQL update query using joins

    - by Shyju
    I have to update a field with a value which is returned by a join of 3 tables. Example: select im.itemid ,im.sku as iSku ,gm.SKU as GSKU ,mm.ManufacturerId as ManuId ,mm.ManufacturerName ,im.mf_item_number ,mm.ManufacturerID from item_master im, group_master gm, Manufacturer_Master mm where im.mf_item_number like 'STA%' and im.sku=gm.sku and gm.ManufacturerID = mm.ManufacturerID and gm.manufacturerID=34 I want to update the mf_item_number field values of table master with some other value which is joined in the above condition. How to frame the SQL ?

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  • MYSQL update query php

    - by bell
    I am trying to use an update query to change values held in a database, the new values I am trying to store are held in php variables. I'm not sure what it is I'm doing wrong. mysql_query("UPDATE user SET status='full' WHERE user_id = '$user_id'")or die(mysql_error()); thanks in advance

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  • Strange UPDATE syntax in MS Access 2003

    - by Sven
    Hi, I've got an Access application with an update query with the following syntax: UPDATE TABLE1, TABLE2 SET TABLE2.VALUE1 = TABLE1.VALUE1, TABLE2.VALUE2 = TABLE1.VALUE2, TABLE2.VALUE3 = TABLE1.VALUE3, TABLE2.VALUE4 = TABLE1.VALUE4 The query is working but I do not understand what's going on here. I'm trying to convert this query to SQL Server. Can somebody please explain what this query does? My guess is that it's a special Access syntax. Thanks, Sven

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  • Return number of rows affected by SQL UPDATE statement in Java

    - by Krt_Malta
    I'm using a MySQL database and accessing it through Java. PreparedStatement prep1 = this.connection.prepareStatement("UPDATE user_table SET Level = 'Super' WHERE Username = ?"); prep1.setString(1, username); The update statement above works fine however I'd like to get the number of rows affected with this statement. Is this possible please?

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  • ado sql update table with result of group by query

    - by brett
    I am trying to update records in an .mdb table with the number of records containing the same value The sql below does not work but I think gives an indication of what I am trying to achieve. UPDATE table1 AS A INNER JOIN (SELECT PH_BSP , Count(PH_BSP) AS PHCOUNT FROM table1 GROUP BY PH_BSP) AS B ON A.PH_BSP=B.PH_BSP SET A.PH_SORT = B.PHCOUNT; any ideas?

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  • SQL syntax error in Update statement VB.net

    - by Shane Fagan
    Hi, Im getting a strange syntax error when I run this in VB SQLString = "UPDATE Login SET Password = '" + PasswordTextBox.Text + "'" SQLString += " WHERE UserName = '" + UserNameTextBox.Text + "'" The Username is checked before getting to this part and is definitly in the db. It gives an exception saying syntax error in update statement. Anyone have any ideas whats wrong?

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  • Doctrine: Update Join?

    - by Tom
    Hi, Anyone know how to do an update with a join (i.e. update on two tables in one query) in Doctrine 1.2? I spotted something obscure on a forum that hinted that this is not supported in 1.x but it was about as vague as it comes. Thank you.

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  • Force update in Hibernate

    - by gubrutz
    How can I force Hibernate to update an entity instance even if the entity is not dirty? I'm using Hibernate 3.3.2 GA, Hibernate Annotations and Hibernate EntityManager btw. I really want Hibernate to execute the generic UPDATE statement even if no property on the entity has changed. I need this because some event listeners need to get invoked to do some additional work when the application runs for the first time. Thanks!

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  • Update table with if statement PS/SQL

    - by Matt
    I am trying to do something like this but am having trouble putting it into oracle coding. BEGIN IF ((SELECT complete_date FROM task_table WHERE task_id = 1) IS NULL) THEN UPDATE task_table SET complete_date = //somedate WHERE task_id = 1; ELSE UPDATE task_table SET complete_date = NULL; END IF; END; But this does not work i also tried IF EXISTS(SELECT complete_date FROM task_table WHERE task_id = 1) with no luck

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  • 2k rows update is very slow in MySQL

    - by sergeik
    Hi all, I have 2 tables: 1. news (450k rows) 2. news_tags (3m rows) There are some triggers on news table update which updating listings. This SQL executes too long... UPDATE news SET news_category = some_number WHERE news_id IN (SELECT news_id FROM news_tags WHERE tag_id = some_number); #about 3k rows How can I make it faster? Thanks in advance, S.

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  • subqueries in UPDATE SET (sql server 2005)

    - by itdebeloper
    I have a question about using subqueries in an Update statement. My example: UPDATE TRIPS SET locations = city + ', ' FROM (select Distinct city from poi where poi.trip_guid = trips.guid) Is it possible to refer to main table value (trips.guid) in subqueries? When i try to use trips.guid I get the error: "The multi-part identifier "trips.guid" could not be bound."

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  • Subsonic 3.0.0.4 Does not Update

    - by geocine
    I tried 3 variants but doesn't seem to update (I am using Linq Templates and MSSQL) Luna.Data.GameDBDB db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); db.Update<Luna.Record.TB_ITEM>() .Set(x => x.ITEM_DURABILITY == Convert.ToInt32(quantity)) .Where(x => x.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbdidx)) .Execute(); Here is the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.tp TP_ITEM_UPDATE(); and the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.Update<Luna.Data.TB_ITEM>(); However it worked using LINQ-to-SQL LunaDataContext db = new LunaDataContext(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMs where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.SubmitChanges(); Is this a bug in 3.0.0.4, the database record couldn't be updated using Linq Templates and ActiveRecord.

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  • WPF Update Binding when Bound directly to DataContext w/ Converter

    - by Adam
    Normally when you want a databound control to 'update,' you use the "PropertyChanged" event to signal to the interface that the data has changed behind the scenes. For instance, you could have a textblock that is bound to the datacontext with a property "DisplayText" <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}"/> From here, if the DataContext raises the PropertyChanged event with PropertyName "DisplayText," then this textblock's text should update (assuming you didn't change the Mode of the binding). However, I have a more complicated binding that uses many properties off of the datacontext to determine the final look and feel of the control. To accomplish this, I bind directly to the datacontext and use a converter. In this case I am working with an image source. <Image Source="{Binding Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/> As you can see, I use a {Binding} with no path to bind directly to the datacontext, and I use an ImageConverter to select the image I'm looking for. But now I have no way (that I know of) to tell that binding to update. I tried raising the propertychanged event with "." as the propertyname, which did not work. Is this possible? Do I have to wrap up the converting logic into a property that the binding can attach to, or is there a way to tell the binding to refresh (without explicitly refreshing the binding)? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! -Adam

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  • Update multiple rows with known keys without inserting new rows if nonexistent keys are found

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Let's imagine that we have table items... table: items item_id INT PRIMARY AUTO_INCREMENT title VARCHAR(255) views INT Let's imagine that it is filled with something like (1, item-1, 10), (2, item-2, 10), (3, item-3, 15) I want to make multi update view for this items from data taken from this array [item_id] = [views] '1' => '50', '2' => '60', '3' => '70', '5' => '10' IMPORTANT! Please note that we have item_id=5 in array, but we don't have item_id=5 in database. I can use INSERT ... ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE, but this way image_id=5 will be inserted into talbe items. How to avoid inserting new key? I just want item_id=5 be skipped because it is not in table. Of course, before execution I can select existing keys from items table; then compare with keys in array; delete nonexistent keys and perform INSERT ... ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE. But maybe there is some more elegant solutions? Thank you.

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  • how to atomically claim a row or resource using UPDATE in mysql

    - by Igor
    i have a table of resources (lets say cars) which i want to claim atomically. if there's a limit of one resource per one user, i can do the following trick: UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE user IS NULL LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM cars WHERE user IS bob that way, i claim the resource atomically and then i can see which row i just claimed. this doesn't work when 'bob' can claim multiple cars. i realize i can get a list of cars already claimed by bob, claim another one, and then SELECT again to see what's changed, but that feels hackish. What I'm wondering is, is there some way to see which rows i just updated with my last UPDATE? failing that, is there some other trick to atomically claiming a row? i really want to avoid using SERIALIZABLE isolation level. If I do something like this: 1 SELECT id FROM cars WHERE user IS NULL 2 <here, my PHP or whatever picks a car id> 3 UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE id = <the one i picked> would REPEATABLE READ be sufficient here? in other words, could i be guaranteed that some other transactions won't claim the row my software has picked during step 2?

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • QuadTrees - how to update when internal items are moving

    - by egarcia
    I've implemented a working QuadTree. It subdivides 2-d space in order to accomodate items, identified by their bounding box (x,y,width,height) on the smallest possible quad (up to a minimum area). My code is based on this implementation (mine is in Lua instead of C#) : http://www.codeproject.com/KB/recipes/QuadTree.aspx I've been able to successfully implement insertions and deletions successfully. I've turn now my attention to the update() function, since my items' position and dimensions change over time. My first implementation works, but it is quite naïve: function QuadTree:update(item) self:remove(item) return self.root:insert(item) end Yup, I basically remove and reinsert every item every time they move. This works, but I'd like to optimize it a bit more; after all, most of the time, moving items still remain on the same quadTree node most of the iterations. Is there any standard way to deal with this kind of update? In case it helps, my code is here: http://github.com/kikito/passion/blob/master/ai/QuadTree.lua I'm not looking for someone to implement it for me; pointers to an existing working implementation (even in other languages) would suffice.

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  • Self referencing update SQL statement for Informix

    - by CheeseConQueso
    Need some Informix SQL... Courses get a regular grade, but their associated labs get a grade of 'LAB'. I need to update the table so that the lab grade matches the course grade. Also, if there is no corresponding course for a lab, it means the course was canceled. In that case, I want to place a flag value of 'X' for its grade. Example data before update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN Example data after update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 X 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN I worked out a solution for this, but it required a lot of on-the-fly composite foreign keys built from concatenating the id, yr, sess, and substring'd crs_no. My solution is not only overkill, but it has gaps in it and it takes too long to process. I know there is an easier way to do this, but I've gone so far down one road that I am having trouble thinking of a different approach.

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  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

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  • Subversion update misses new directories

    - by Mike Q
    Hi all, Periodically we have trouble with SVN when doing updates. Very occasionally when someone adds a new directory doing an update through Tortoise doesn't work. If we do a "Fully Recursive" update using "Update from revision..." option then it picks it up fine. I'm poked around and seen this question which is virtually identical but with no answer. I've found the item on the SVN website, referenced by that post, that talks about an issue in 1.6.0 which is now fixed. However my SVN version is 1.6.9 and Tortoise is 1.6.7 so I wouldn't expect to have this problem any more. This only seems to occur with new directories, never seen it for individual files. We may have had older versions of Tortoise at one point (can't remember which tho) so maybe some issue has been introduced into our repo that an upgrade doesn't solve. We have the workaround but it wastes a few minutes of head-scratching after failed builds to figure it out and people who haven't come across this problem before really struggle until they ask someone else. Anyone know if this is a known bug and any permanent solutions? Thanks.

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