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  • Distinct Value Array for View Controller Index Using Core Data

    - by b.dot
    Hi, I'm trying to create an index representing the first letter value of each record in a Core Data store to be used in a table view controller. I'm using a snippet of the code from Apple's documentation. I would simply like to produce an array or dictionary of distinct values as the result. My store already has the character defined within each record object. Questions: 1) I'm having a problem understanding NSDictionaryResultType. Where does the resulting dictionary object get received so that I can assign it's keys to the view controller? The code seems to only return an array. 2) If I include the line containing NSDictionaryResultType, I get no returns. 3) I realize that I could do this in a loop, but I'm hoping this will work. Thanks! NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"People" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:entity]; [request setResultType:NSDictionaryResultType]; // This line causes no no results. [request setReturnsDistinctResults:YES]; [request setPropertiesToFetch :[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"alphabetIndex"]]; NSError *error; NSArray *objects = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error];

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  • Sampling Duplicates

    - by user3640982
    I have a dataset from which I need to sample. It is set up with an ID field and a year field. I want every record from the most current year and then I want the most current ID's but sampled from every 3rd year going back. The data is ordered by year. For example ID<-rep(1:3, 5) Year<-rep(c(1,2,3,4,5),each=3) df<-data.frame(ID,Year) ID Year 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 5 2 2 6 3 2 7 1 3 8 2 3 9 3 3 10 1 4 11 2 4 12 3 4 13 1 5 14 2 5 15 3 5 So from this example, I would want to return ID Year 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 4 5 2 4 6 3 4 I'm thinking that some combination of duplicated() and which() should get what I want, but the problem is duplicated() just tells if it has been repeated; it doesn't say which record is being repeated. which(duplicated(df$ID)) [1] 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 This a problem since not every ID exists in every year. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Eric

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  • PHP/MySQL allowing current user to edit there account information

    - by user1837896
    i have created 2 pages update.php edit.php we start on edit.php so here is edit.php's script <?php session_start(); $id = $_SESSION["id"]; $username = $_POST["username"]; $fname = $_POST["fname"]; $password = $_POST["password"]; $email = $_POST["email"]; mysql_connect('mysql13.000webhost.com', 'a2670376_Users', 'Password') or die(mysql_error()); echo "MySQL Connection Established! <br>"; mysql_select_db("a2670376_Pass") or die(mysql_error()); echo "Database Found! <br>"; $query = "UPDATE members SET username = '$username', fname = '$fname', password = '$password' WHERE id = '$id'"; $res = mysql_query($query); if ($res) echo "<p>Record Updated<p>"; else echo "Problem updating record. MySQL Error: " . mysql_error(); ?> <form action="update.php" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="id" value="<?=$id;?>"> ScreenName:<br> <input type='text' name='username' id='username' maxlength='25' style='width:247px' name="username" value="<?=$username;?>"/><br> FullName:<br> <input type='text' name='fname' id='fname' maxlength='20' style='width:248px' name="ud_img" value="<?=$fname;?>"/><br> Email:<br> <input type='text' name='email' id='email' maxlength='50' style='width:250px' name="ud_img" value="<?=$email;?>"/><br> Password:<br> <input type='text' name='password' id='password' maxlength='25' style='width:251px' value="<?=$password;?>"/><br> <input type="Submit"> </form> now here is the update.php page where i am having the MAJOR problem <?php session_start(); mysql_connect('mysql13.000webhost.com', 'a2670376_Users', 'Password') or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("a2670376_Pass") or die(mysql_error()); $id = (int)$_SESSION["id"]; $username = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["username"]); $fname = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["fname"]); $email = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["email"]); $password = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["password"]); $query="UPDATE members SET username = '$username', fname = '$fname', email = '$email', password = '$password' WHERE id='$id'"; mysql_query($query)or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows()>=1){ echo "<p>($id) Record Updated<p>"; }else{ echo "<p>($id) Not Updated<p>"; } ?> now on edit.php i fill out the form to edit the account "test" while i am logged into it now once the form if filled out i click on |Submit!| button and it takes me to update.php and it returns this (0) Not Updated (0) <= id of user logged in Not Updated <= MySql Error from mysql_query($query)or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows()>=1){ i want it to update the user logged in and if i am not mistaken in this script it says $id = (int)$_SESSION["id"]; witch updates the user with the id of the person who is logged in but it isnt updating its saying that no tables were effected if it helps heres my MySql Database picture just click here http://i50.tinypic.com/21juqfq.png if this could possibly be any help to find the solution i have 2 more files delete.php and delete_ac.php they have can remove users from my sql database and they show the user id and it works there are no bugs in this script at all PLEASE DO NOT MAKE SUGGESTIONS FOR THE SCRIPTS BELOW delete.php first <?php $host="mysql13.000webhost.com"; // Host name $username="a2670376_Users"; // Mysql username $password="PASSWORD"; // Mysql password $db_name="a2670376_Pass"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select database. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // select record from mysql $sql="SELECT * FROM $tbl_name"; $result=mysql_query($sql); ?> <table border="0" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="1" bgcolor="#CCCCCC"> <tr> <td colspan="8" style="bgcolor: #FFFFFF"><strong><img src="http://i47.tinypic.com/u6ihk.png" height="30" widht="30">Delete data in mysql</strong> </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Id</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>UserName</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>FullName</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Password</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Email</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Date</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong>Ip</strong></td> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <?php while($rows=mysql_fetch_array($result)){ ?> <tr> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['id']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['username']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['fname']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['password']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['email']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['date']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><? echo $rows['ip']; ?></td> <td bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><a href="delete_ac.php?id=<? echo $rows['id']; ?>">delete</a></td> </tr> <?php // close while loop } ?> </table> <?php // close connection; sql_close(); ?> and now delete_ac.php <table width="500" border="0" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="1" bgcolor="#CCCCCC"> <tr> <td colspan="8" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><strong><img src="http://t2.gstatic.com/images? q=tbn:ANd9GcS_kwpNSSt3UuBHxq5zhkJQAlPnaXyePaw07R652f4StmvIQAAf6g" height="30" widht="30">Removal Of Account</strong> </td> </tr> <tr> <td align="center" bgcolor="#FFFFFF"> <?php $host="mysql13.000webhost.com"; // Host name $username="a2670376_Users"; // Mysql username $password="javascript00"; // Mysql password $db_name="a2670376_Pass"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select databse. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // get value of id that sent from address bar $id=$_GET['id']; // Delete data in mysql from row that has this id $sql="DELETE FROM $tbl_name WHERE id='$id'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); // if successfully deleted if($result){ echo "Deleted Successfully"; echo "<BR>"; echo "<a href='delete.php'>Back to main page</a>"; } else { echo "ERROR"; } ?> <?php // close connection mysql_close(); ?> </td> </tr> </table>

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  • Heavy Mysql operation & Time Constraints [closed]

    - by Rahul Jha
    There is a performance issue where that I have stuck with my application which is based on PHP & MySql. The application is for Data Migration where data has to be uploaded and after various processes (Cleaning from foreign characters, duplicate check, id generation) it has to be inserted into one central table and then to 5 different tables. There, an id is generated and that id has to be updated to central table. There are different sets of records and validation rules. The problem I am facing is that when I insert say(4K) rows file (containing 20 columns) it is working fine within 15 min it gets inserted everywhere. But, when I insert the same records again then at this time it is taking one hour to insert (ideally it should get inserted by marking earlier inserted data as duplicate). After going through the log file, I noticed is that there is a Mysql select statement where I am checking the duplicates and getting ID which are duplicates. Then I am calling a function inside for loop which is basically inserting records into 5 tables and updates id to central table. This Calling function is major time of whole process. P.S. The records has to be inserted record by record.. Kindly Suggest some solution.. //This is that sample code $query=mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT p1.ID FROM table1 p1, table2 p2, table3 a WHERE p2.datatype =0 AND (p1.datatype =1 || p1.datatype=2) AND p2.ID =0 AND p1.ID = a.ID AND p1.coulmn1 = p2.column1 AND p1.coulmn2 = p2.coulmn2 AND a.coulmn3 = p2.column3"); $num=mysql_num_rows($query); for($i=0;$i<$num;$i++) { $f=mysql_result($query,$i,"ID"); //calling function RecordInsert($f); }

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  • Sorted array: how to get position before and after using name? as3

    - by user1560239
    I have been working on a project and Stack Overflow has helped me with a few problems so far, so I am very thankful! My question is this: I have an array like this: var records:Object = {}; var arr:Array = [ records["nh"] = { medinc:66303, statename:"New Hampshire"}, records["ct"] = { medinc:65958, statename:"Connecticut"}, records["nj"] = { medinc:65173, statename:"New Jersey"}, records["md"] = { medinc:64596, statename:"Maryland"}, etc... for all 50 states. And then I have the array sorted reverse numerically (descending) like this: arr.sortOn("medinc", Array.NUMERIC); arr.reverse(); Can I call the name of the record (i.e. "nj" for new jersey) and then get the value from the numeric position above and below the record in the array? Basically, medinc is medium income of US states, and I am trying to show a ranking system... a user would click Texas for example, and it would show the medinc value for Texas, along with the state the ranks one position below and the state that ranks one position above in the array. Thanks for your help!

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  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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  • updating dataset using join and bindingsource?

    - by netadictos
    Hi, I have created a dataset and in the designer I have created the relations and foreign keys that exist in the database. Basically, I have a product that has a relationship to a table of prices. The keyfield they share is IdProduct in the Prices table. In the Fill/Get of the product I return the Price field. I also have a DataGrid that uses a BindingSource which uses this table. Everything displays correctly and when I double click on a row within the datagrid I then open up a tabbed form that contains a detailed view of the record selected. The user at this point is able to make changes to the record and they are properly propogated back to the BindingSource. The problem is that the TableAdapter does not contain the appopriate update, therefore I am not able to call the TableAdapter.Update method with the dataset as I would had I created a tableadapter not using a join. How am I best to handle this situation. At the same time I cannot get any modified row: dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable modified = (dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable) dTiendasDs.Productos.GetChanges(DataRowState.Modified); modified is always null Thanks,

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  • ASP.NET SqlDataSource update and create FK reference

    - by William
    The short version: I have a grid view bound to a data source which has a SelectCommand with a left join in it because the FK can be null. On Update I want to create a record in the FK table if the FK is null and then update the parent table with the new records ID. Is this possible to do with just SqlDataSources? The detailed version: I have two tables: Company and Address. The column Company.AddressId can be null. On my ascx page I am using a SqlDataSource to select a left join of company and address and a GridView to display the results. By having my UpdateCommand and DeleteCommand of the SqlDataSource execute two statements separated by a semi-colon I am able to use the GridView's Edit and Delete functionality to update both table simultaneously. The problem I have is when the Company.AddressId is null. What I need to have happen is have the data source create a record in the Address table and then update the Company table with the new Address.ID then proceed with the update as usual. I would like to do this with just data sources if possible for consistency/simplicity sake. Is it possible to have my data source do this, or perhaps add a second data source to the page to handle some of this? Once I have that working I can probably figure out how to make it work with the InsertCommand as well but if you are on a roll and have an answer for how to make that fly as well feel free to provide it. Thanks.

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  • how to use a parameterized function for the Default Binding of a Sql Server column

    - by Walt Gaber
    I have a table that catalogs selected files from multiple sources. I want to record whether a file is a duplicate of a previously cataloged file at the time the new file is cataloged. I have a column in my table (“primary_duplicate”) to record each entry as ‘P’ (primary) or ‘D’ (duplicate). I would like to provide a Default Binding for this column that would check for other occurrences of this file (i.e. name, length, timestamp) at the time the new file is being recorded. I have created a function that performs this check (see “GetPrimaryDuplicate” below). But I don’t know how to bind this function which requires three parameters to the table’s “primary_duplicate” column as its Default Binding. I would like to avoid using a trigger. I currently have a stored procedure used to insert new records that performs this check. But I would like to ensure that the flag is set correctly if an insert is performed outside of this stored procedure. How can I call this function with values from the row that is being inserted? USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog]( [id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [catalog_timestamp] [datetime] NOT NULL, [primary_duplicate] nchar NOT NULL, [name] nvarchar NULL, [length] [bigint] NULL, [timestamp] [datetime] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_id] DEFAULT (newid()) FOR [id] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_catalog_timestamp] DEFAULT (getdate()) FOR [catalog_timestamp] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_primary_duplicate] DEFAULT (N'GetPrimaryDuplicate(name, length, timestamp)') FOR [primary_duplicate] GO USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPrimaryDuplicate] ( @name nvarchar(255), @length bigint, @timestamp datetime ) RETURNS nchar(1) AS BEGIN DECLARE @c int SELECT @c = COUNT(*) FROM FileCatalog WHERE name=@name and length=@length and timestamp=@timestamp and primary_duplicate = 'P' IF @c > 0 RETURN 'D' -- Duplicate RETURN 'P' -- Primary END GO

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  • should i advocate migrating from access to (my)sql

    - by HotOil
    Hi: We have a windows MFC app that is written against an access database on a company server. The db is not that big: 19 MB. There are at most 2-3 users accessing it at any one time. It is used in a factory environment where access speed (or lack thereof) over the intranet becomes noticeable as it is part of the manufacturing time for our widgets. The scenario is this: as each widget is completed, it gets a record in the db.. by the end of the year, the db is larger and searching for a record takes longer and longer. The solution so far has been to manually move older records to an archival table about once a year. We are reworking other portions of this app right now, and it would be a good time to move to another db if we are going to do it. It is my understanding that if we were using sql, the search time would not go up as the table gets bigger because the entire .mdb does not have to be sent over the network each time. Is this correct? Does anyone have any insight about whether it could be worth it to go to the trouble (time and money) of migrating to a new db, or should I just add more functionality to the application we have now, and maybe automatically purge the older records from time to time, and add additional facilities to the app to get at the older records when needed? Thanks for any wisdom you can share..

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  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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  • How to force a WebPart appears in all pages of a portal in asp.net?

    - by Mehdi
    Hi, I'm working on a portal/CMS project and (unfortunately) build the foundation on WebParts platform. However I need to provide an option for admin to choose whether a webpart should be display in all pages or not. Finally I've found a nice article from Damon Armstrong that describes a way to store all personalization data of a group of pages into one record. Thus every changes the admin made for a webpart, affect whole pages. But it doesn't seems to be a solution for me because of these reasons: 1- The above solution works for a group of pages; in fact we can select which pages to display all webparts, but we expect reverse: select which webpart to display in all pages. 2- After some data entry and adding webparts on pages, we'll face an issue about massive data size of personalization record that should be serialize and deserialize to display contents of each page. May be it would be solved by writing another custom personalization provider or some hacking on webparts system, but I don't now how. Any Ideas about the problem? Thanks

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  • EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

    - by Jeroen
    Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

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  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • Copy recordset data into multiple sheets to avoid problem of maximum rows limit in Excel VBA

    - by Sam
    I am developing reporting application in Excel/vba 2003. VBA code sends search query to database and gets the data through recordset. It will then be copied to one of excel sheet. The rertrieved data looks like as shown below. ProductID--|---DateProcessed--|----State----- 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver 1................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Approver Picked Up 1................|.. 1/3/2010..............|.....Approval Completed 2................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver The problem is data retrieved from search query is so huge that it goes above the excel row limit (65536 rows in excel 2003). So I want to split this data into two excel sheets. While spliting the data I want to ensure that the data for same product shoud remain in one sheet. For example, if the last record in the above result set is 65537th record then I also want to move all records for product 3 into new sheet. So sheet1 will contain records for product id 1 and 2 with total records = 65534. Sheet 2 will cotain records for product id 3 - with total records = 2. How can I acheive this in vba? If it is not possible, is there any alternative solution ? Thanks in Advance !

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  • query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

    - by Andrew Heath
    One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

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  • Passing Values to Controllers

    - by Dru
    I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • rails not recognizing project

    - by tipu
    I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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  • Design pattern to integrate Rails with a Comet server

    - by empire29
    I have a Ruby on Rails (2.3.5) application and an APE (Ajax Push Engine) server. When records are created within the Rails application, i need to push the new record out on applicable channels to the APE server. Records can be created in the rails app by the traditional path through the controller's create action, or it can be created by several event machines that are constantly monitoring various inputstream and creating records when they see data that meets a certain criteria. It seems to me that the best/right place to put the code that pushes the data out to the APE server (which in turn pushes it out to the clients) is in the Model's after_create hook (since not all record creations will flow through the controller's create action). The final caveat is I want to push a piece of formatted HTML out to the APE server (rather than a JSON representation of the data). The reason I want to do this is 1) I already have logic to produce the desired layout in existing partials 2) I don't want to create a javascript implementation of the partials (javascript that takes a JSON object and creates all the HTML around it for presentation). This would quickly become a maintenance nightmare. The problem with this is it would require "rendering" partials from within the Model (which im having trouble doing anyhow because they don't seem to have access to Helpers when they're rendered in this manner). Anyhow - Just wondering what the right way to go about organizing all of this is. Thanks

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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  • Hundreds of custom UserControls create thousands of USER Objects

    - by Andy Blackman
    I'm creating a dashboard application that shows hundreds of "items" on a FlowLayoutPanel. Each "item" is a UserControl that is made up of 12 or labels. My app queries a database and then creates an "item" instance for each record, populating ethe labels and textboxes with data before adding it to the FlowLayoutPanel. After adding about 560 items to the panel, I noticed that the USER Objects count in my Task Manager had gone up to about 7300, which was much much larger than any other app on my machine. I did a quick spot of mental arithmetic (OK, I might have used calc.exe) and figured that 560 * 13 (12 labels plus the UserControl itself) is 7280. So that suddenly gave away where all the objects were coming from... Knowing that there is a 10,000 USER object limit before windows throws in the towel, I'm trying to figure better ways of drawing these items onto the FlowLayoutPanel. My ideas so far are as follows: 1) User-draw the "item", using graphics.DrawText and DrawImage in place of many of the labels. I'm hoping that this will mean 1 item = 1 USER Object, not 13. 2) Have 1 instance of the "item", then for each record, populate the instance and use the Control.DrawToBitmap() method to grab an image and then use that in the FlowLayoutPanel (or similar) So... Does anyone have any other suggestions ??? P.S. It's a zoomable interface, so I have already ruled out "Paging" as there is a requirement to see all items at once :( Thanks everyone.

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  • HELP ME !! I am Not able to update form data to mysql using php and jquery

    - by Jimson Jose
    i tired and was unable to find the answer i am looking for an answer. my problem is that i am unable to update the values enterd in the form. I have attached all the files i'm using MYSQL database to fetch data. what happens is that i'm able to add and delete records from form using jquery and PHP scripts to MYSQL database, but i am not able to update data which was retrived from database. the file structure is as follows index.php is a file with jquery functions where it displays form for adding new data to MYSQL using save.php file and list of all records are view without refrishing page (calling load-list.php to view all records from index.php works fine, and save.php to save data from form) - Delete is an function called from index.php to delete record from mysql database (function calling delete.php works fine) - Update is an function called from index.php to update data using update-form.php by retriving specific record from mysql tabel, (works fine) Problem lies in updating data from update-form.php to update.php (in which update query is wrriten for mysql) i had tried in many ways at last i had figured out that data is not being transfred from update-form.php to update.php there is a small problem in jquery ajax function where it is not transfering data to update.php page. some thing is missing in calling update.php page it is not entering into that page I am new bee in programming i had collected this script from many forums and made this one.So i was limited in solving this problem i cam to know that this is good platform for me and many where we get a help to create new things.. please guide me with your help to complete my effors !!!!! i will be greatfull to all including ths site which gave me an oppurtunity to present my self..... please find the link below to download all files which is of 35kb (virus free assurance) download mysmallform files in ZIPped format, including mysql query thanks a lot in advance, May GOD bless YOU and THIS SITE

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