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• Why does this sql statement keep saying it is a boolean and not a paramter? (php/Mysql)

  - by ggfan

  In this statement, I am trying to see if there if the latest posting in the database that has the exact same title, price, city, state, detail. If there is, then it would say to the user that the exact post has been already made; if not then insert the posting into the dbc. (This is one type of check so that users can't accidentally post twice. This may not be the best check, but this statement error is annoying me, so I want it to work :)) Why won't this sql work? I think it's not letting the title=$title and not getting the value in the $title... ERROR: mysqli_num_rows() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in postad.php on line 365 //there is a form that users fill out that has title, price, city, etc <form> blah blah </form> //if users click submit, then does all the checks and if all okay, insert to dbc if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // Grab the pposting data from the POST and gets rid of any funny stuff $title = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['title'])); $price = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['price'])); $city = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['city'])); $state = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['state'])); $detail = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['detail'])); if (!is_numeric($price) && !empty($price)) { echo "<p class='error'>The price can only be numbers. No special characters, etc</p>"; } //Error problem...won't let me set title=$title, detail=$detail, etc. //this statement after all the checks so that none of the variables are empty $query="Select * FROM posting WHERE user_id={$_SESSION['user_id']} AND title=$title AND price=$price AND city=$city AND state=$state AND detail=$detail"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); if(mysqli_num_rows($data)==1) { echo "You already posted this ad. Most likely caused by refreshing too many times."; } }

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• Creating serializeable unique compile-time identifiers for arbitrary UDT's.

  - by Endiannes

  I would like a generic way to create unique compile-time identifiers for any C++ user defined types. for example: unique_id<my_type>::value == 0 // true unique_id<other_type>::value == 1 // true I've managed to implement something like this using preprocessor meta programming, the problem is, serialization is not consistent. For instance if the class template unique_id is instantiated with other_type first, then any serialization in previous revisions of my program will be invalidated. I've searched for solutions to this problem, and found several ways to implement this with non-consistent serialization if the unique values are compile-time constants. If RTTI or similar methods, like boost::sp_typeinfo are used, then the unique values are obviously not compile-time constants and extra overhead is present. An ad-hoc solution to this problem would be, instantiating all of the unique_id's in a separate header in the correct order, but this causes additional maintenance and boilerplate code, which is not different than using an enum unique_id{my_type, other_type};. A good solution to this problem would be using user-defined literals, unfortunately, as far as I know, no compiler supports them at this moment. The syntax would be 'my_type'_id; 'other_type'_id; with udl's. I'm hoping somebody knows a trick that allows implementing serialize-able unique identifiers in C++ with the current standard (C++03/C++0x), I would be happy if it works with the latest stable MSVC and GNU-G++ compilers, although I expect if there is a solution, it's not portable.

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• New to JEE; architecture suggestions for a service/daemon?

  - by Kate

  I am brand new to the JEE world. As an exercise to try and familiarize myself with JEE, I'm trying to create a tiered web-app, but I'm getting a little stuck on what the best way is to spin up a service in the background that does work. Parameters of the service: It must open and hold a socket connection and receive information from the connected server. There is a 1-to-1 correlation between a user and a new socket connection. So the idea is the user presses a button on the web-page, and somewhere on the server a socket connection is opened. For the remainder of the users session (or until the user presses some sort of disconnect button) the socket remains open and pushes received information to some sort of centralized store that servlets can query and return to the user via AJAX. Is there a JEE type way to handle this situation? Naturally what I would think to do is to just write a Java application that listens on a port that the servlets can connect to and spawns new threads that open these sockets, but that seems very ad-hoc to me. (PS: I am also new to Stack Overflow, so forgive me if it takes me some time to figure the site out!)

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• What is an appropriate way to separate lifecycle events in the logging system?

  - by Hanno Fietz

  I have an application with many different parts, it runs on OSGi, so there's the bundle lifecycles, there's a number of message processors and plugin components that all can die, can be started and stopped, have their setup changed etc. I want a way to get a good picture of the current system status, what components are up, which have problems, how long they have been running for etc. I think that logging, especially in combination with custom appenders (I'm using log4j), is a good part of the solution and does help ad-hoc analysis as well as live monitoring. Normally, I would classify lifecycle events as INFO level, but what I really want is to have them separate from what else is going on in INFO. I could create my own level, LIFECYCLE. The lifecycle events happen in various different areas and on various levels in the application hierarchy, also they happen in the same areas as other events that I want to separate them from. I could introduce some common lifecycle management and use that to distinguish the events from others. For instance, all components that have a lifecycle could implement a particular interface and I log by its name. Are there good examples of how this is done elsewhere? What are considerations?

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• Logging in to Wordpress through CodeIgniter DX Authentication

  - by whobutsb

  Hello All, I'm about to start a very large project of rebuilding my companies intranet. The plan is to have most of the intranet live in a CI application. I chose to use CI because i'm very familiar with all the CI methods. Some sections of the intranet are going to be wordpress blogs. For example the Human Resources Dept. and the Marketing Dept will have their own wordpress blogs. Ideally my plan is to log on to the intranet, with a CI authentication library like DXAuth by querying the Active Directory of the company. When I return the AD information for the user I will by saving their group memberships into a session. It would be fantastic if I could have that session information of the user be used by wordpress to log the user as an editor if they are a member of the Marketing Group. And allow users who are not members of the group be able to comment on that blog, with out logging into wordpress. My question is if there are any CI classes or Wordpress Plugins, or tutorals out there, of this sort of integration with the two systems. Thank you for your help!

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• Asynchronous SQL Operations

  - by Paul Hatcherian

  I've got a problem I'm not sure how best to solve. I have an application which updates a database in response to ad hoc requests. One request in particular is quite common. The request is an update that by itself is quite simple, but has some complex preconditions. For this request the business layer first requests a set of data from the data layer. The business logic layer evaluated the data from the database and parameters from the request, from this the action to be performed is determined, and the request's response message(s) are created. The business layer now executes the actual update command that is the purpose of the request. This last step is the problem, this command is dependent on the state of the database, which might have changed since the business logic ran. Locking down the data read in this operation across several round-trips to the database doesn't seem like a good idea either. Is there a 'best-practice' way to accomplish something like this? Thanks!

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• Criteria for triggering garbage collection in .Net

  - by Kennet Belenky

  I've come across some curious behavior with regard to garbage collection in .Net. The following program will throw an OutOfMemoryException very quickly (after less than a second on a 32-bit, 2GB machine). The Foo finalizer is never called. class Foo { static Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference> allFoos = new Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference>(); Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000000]; static Random rand = new Random(); public Foo() { // Uncomment the following line and the program will run forever. // rand.NextBytes(buffer); allFoos[guid] = new WeakReference(this); } ~Foo() { allFoos.Remove(guid); } static public void Main(string args[]) { for (; ; ) { new Foo(); } } } If the rand.nextBytes line is uncommented, it will run ad infinitum, and the Foo finalizer is regularly invoked. Why is that? My best guess is that in the former case, either the CLR or the Windows VMM is lazy about allocating physical memory. The buffer never gets written to, so the physical memory is never used. When the address space runs out, the system crashes. In the latter case, the system runs out of physical memory before it runs out of address space, the GC is triggered and the objects are collected. However, here's the part I don't get. Assuming my theory is correct, why doesn't the GC trigger when the address space runs low? If my theory is incorrect, then what's the real explanation?

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• User to be validated against nested security groups in Windows.

  - by user412272

  Hi, This is my first post here and after much looking around I have come here with my question. Will really appreciate a fast response. I am faced with a problem to validate user credentials of the currently logged on user against a group in Windows. The user membership to a group can be through other groups also ie nested membership. Eg. User U is a part of group G1. Group G1 is a part of another group G2. The requirement is that when the user is validated against group G2, the validations should succeed. The user can be a local or AD user but the group will always be a local group ( or domain local group if created directly on a DC). I have tried using WindowsPrincipal.IsInRole() method, but it seems to be checking only for direct membership to a group. I also tried UserPrincipal.GetAuthorizationGroups() for the current user, but it also doesnt seem to be doing recursive search. I am posting a code snippet of the working code below, but this code is taking much more than acceptable time. bool CheckUserPermissions(string groupName) { WindowsIdentity currentUserIdentity = System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); bool found = false; PrincipalContext context= new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Machine); GroupPrincipal group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, groupName); if (group!= null) { foreach (Principal p in group.GetMembers(true)) { if (p.Sid == currentUserIdentity.User) { found = true; break; } } group.Dispose(); } return found; }

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• New to J2EE; architecture suggestions for a service/daemon?

  - by Kate

  I am brand new to the J2EE world. As an exercise to try and familiarize myself with J2EE, I'm trying to create a tiered web-app, but I'm getting a little stuck on what the best way is to spin up a service in the background that does work. Paramters of the service: It must open and hold a socket connection and receive information from the connected server. There is a 1-to-1 correlation between a user and a new socket connection. So the idea is the user presses a button on the web-page, and somewhere on the server a socket connection is opened. For the remainder of the users session (or until the user presses some sort of disconnect button) the socket remains open and pushes received information to some sort of centralized store that servlets can query and return to the user via AJAX. Is there a J2EE type way to handle this situation? Naturally what I would think to do is to just write a Java application that listens on a port that the servlets can connect to and spawns new threads that open these sockets, but that seems very ad-hoc to me. (PS: I am also new to Stack Overflow, so forgive me if it takes me some time to figure the site out!)

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• Why use Entity Framework over Linq2SQL if...

  - by Refracted Paladin

  To be clear, I am not asking for a side by side comparision which has already been asked Ad Nauseum here on SO. I am also Not asking if Linq2Sql is dead as I don't care. What I am asking is this.... I am building internal apps only for a non-profit organization. I am the only developer on staff. We ALWAYS use SQL Server as our Database backend. I design and build the Databases as well. I have used L2S successfully a couple of times already. Taking all this into consideration can someone offer me a compelling reason that I should use EF instead of L2S? I was at Code Camp this weekend and after an hour long demonstration on EF, all of which I could have done in L2S, I asked this same question. The speakers answer was, "L2S is dead..." Very well then! NOT! (see here) I understand EF is what MS WANTS us to use in the future(see here) and that it offers many more customization options. What I can't figure out is if any of that should, or does, matter for me in this environment. One particular issue we have here is that I inherited the Core App which was built on 4 different SQL Data bases. L2S has great difficulty with this but when I asked the aforementioned speaker if EF would help me in this regard he said "No!"

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• What is wrong with this php loop?

  - by Mark R

  I made a loop but it doesn't work. here's what I did: <?php if(is_tree('4')) { ?> <?php $show_after_p = 2; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $post->post_content); if(substr_count($content, '<p>') > $show_after_p) { $contents = explode("</p>", $content); $p_count = 1; foreach($contents as $content) { echo $content; if($p_count == $show_after_p) { ?> YOUR AD CODE GOES HERE < ? } echo "</p>"; $p_count++; } } ?> <?php else : ?> <?php the_content('<p class="serif">Read the rest of this page &raquo;</p>'); ?> <?php endif; } ?> I need to make it work but don't know how. I'm guessing it's a simple syntax error I'm not seeing?

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• License For (Mostly) Open Source Website / Service

  - by Ryan Sullivan

  I have an interesting setup and am not sure how to license a website. I know this is not legal advice, and I am not asking for any. There are so many different Open Source Licenses and I do not have the time to read every last one to see which best fits my situation. Really, I am looking for suggestions and a nudge in the right direction. My setup is: I give away for free version of my web service with a clean website interface. The implementation I use in the actual web site is (almost) identical to what I give away. The main service works the exactly the same way, but the website interface to manage features in the service is fairly different. Really the web interfaces have the same exact backend, and the front ends accomplish the same tasks, but the service I offer on my site is very rich and uses a good deal of javascript, where I kept the interface in the version I give away as simple and javascript-less as possible. Mostly so it is easy to understand and integrate into other sites. I am not entirely sure how I should license this. It is more like I develop an open source service but have a separate site built upon it. I like the GPLv3 but I am not sure if I can use it in this case especially since I am making some money off of google ad's on the site and plan on using amazon affiliates as well. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do want to open it up as much as possible. But I still want to be able to continue with my own implementation. Thanks in advance for any information or help anyone can provide.

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• Jquery - Setting form select-field "selected" value only works after refresh

  - by frequent

  Hi, I want to use a form select-field for users to select their country of residence, which shows the IP based country as default value (plus the IP address next to it); Location info (ipinfodb.com) is working. I'm passing "country" and "ip" to the function, which should modify select-field and ip adress Problem: IP adress works, but the select-field only updates after I hit refresh. Can someone tell me why? Here is the code: HTML <select name="setup_changeCountry" id="setup_changeCountry"> <option value="AL-Albania">Albanien</option> <option value="AD-Andorra">Andorra</option> <option value="AM-Armenia">Armenien</option> <option value="AU-Australia">Australien</option> ... </select> <div class="setup_IPInfo"> <span>Your IP</span> <span class="ipAdress"> -- ip --</span> </div> Javascript/Jquery function morph(country,ip) >> passed from function, called on DOMContentLoaded { var ipAdress = ip; $('.ipAdress').text(ipAdress); var countryForm = country; $('#setup_changeCountry option').each(function() { if ($(this).val().substr(0,2) == countryForm) { $(this).attr('selected', "true"); } }); } Thanks for any clues on how to fix this. Frequent

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• Strange code behaviour?

  - by goldenmean

  Hi, I have a C code in which i have a structure declaration which has an array of int[576] declared in it. For some reason, i had to remove this array from the structure, So i replaced this array with a pointer as int *ptr; declared some global array of same type, somewhere else in the code, and initialized this pointer by assigning the global array to this pointer. So i did not have to change the way i was accessing this array, from other parts of my code. But it works fine/gives desired output when i have the array declared in the structure, but it gives junk output when i declare it as a pointer in the structure and assign a global array to this pointer, as a part of the pointer initialization. All this code is being run on MS-VC 6.0/Windows setup/Intel-x86. I tried below things: 1)Suspected structure padding/alignment but could not get any leads? If at all structure alignment could be a culprit how can i proceed to narrow it down and confirm it? 2) I have made sure that in both cases the array is initialized to some default values, say 0 before its first use, and its not being used before initialization. 3)I tried using global array as well as malloc based memory for this newly declared array. Same result, junk output. Am i missing something? How can i zero down the problem. Any pointers would be helpful. Thanks, -AD.

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• iPhone: How to run a Beta build, in addition to the App Store build?

  - by rondoagogo

  Hi, All! I have an app on the Store for which we’re readying an update. The other members of our team have the App Store version already loaded up (~purchased) on their respective iPhones -- and those contain User Data which each member needs to be able to keep. In the meantime, we need to test out a Beta version of the next version of the app. Presumably, we’d need to have the two versions (ad hoc, and app store) co-existing on each device, at least until everyone’s signed off on the beta, and it’s uploaded to the store (at which point, they'd delete the beta version). [Once it’s on the Store, of course, they can each update their main (i.e., Release) version of the app via the usual App Store 'update' mechanism -- and then delete the beta version from their devices. In that case, all their user data is still retained intact.] So assuming that’s the proper workflow ... How do I issue a Beta to the team, and have it not replace/overwrite the existing App Store version? I’ve tried customizing parameters in the beta’s “[appname]-Info.plist”, but haven’t found a setting yet that allows the two versions (beta and release) to co-exist on the same device. Any ideas? And is this this is the proper approach to them being able to keep their data? (And last, how might I do it with & without a script? I assume there's just one parameter that'd need to be changed.) I hope this all makes sense -- thank you in advance for your help!

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• Data Integration Solution?

  - by Shlomo

  At my company we have a number of data feeds and processing that run on any given day. The number of feeds and processing steps is starting to out-number the ability to manage it ad-hoc as it is managed currently. Is there a good solution that helps with logging and managing/scheduling dependencies? For example: A: When file x is FTP dropped into directory D1, kick off processing step B B: Load flat file into DB1 C: When file y is FTP dropped into directory D2, kick off processing Step D D: Load flat file into DB11 E: When B and D are done, churn through the data, and load new data into DB111. F: When Step E is done, launch application process P G: etc... I want those steps to run at the appropriate times, not to mention if B fails, there's no reason to run steps E & F, but I could still run C & D. When I re-run B successfully, it should trigger just E & F to re-run, not C & D. We're a .NET/C#/Sql Server shop, and I'm already familiar with SSIS. Is that really the best there is? That manages steps well, but not external dependencies, or logging. Open source (.NET) preferred, but not required.

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• Is this a bad indexing strategy for a table?

  - by llamaoo7

  The table in question is part of a database that a vendor's software uses on our network. The table contains metadata about files. The schema of the table is as follows Metadata ResultID (PK, int, not null) MappedFieldname (char(50), not null) Fieldname (PK, char(50), not null) Fieldvalue (text, null) There is a clustered index on ResultID and Fieldname. This table typically contains millions of rows (in one case, it contains 500 million). The table is populated by 24 workers running 4 threads each when data is being "processed". This results in many non-sequential inserts. Later after processing, more data is inserted into this table by some of our in-house software. The fragmentation for a given table is at least 50%. In the case of the largest table, it is at 90%. We do not have a DBA. I am aware we desperately need a DB maintenance strategy. As far as my background, I'm a college student working part time at this company. My question is this, is a clustered index the best way to go about this? Should another index be considered? Are there any good references for this type and similar ad-hoc DBA tasks?

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• How is this function being made use of?

  - by Kay

  Hello all, I am just studying a few classes given to me by my lecturer and I can't understand how the function heapRebuild is being made used of! It doesn't change any global variables and it doesn't print out anything ad it doesn't return anything - so should this even work? It shouldn't, should it? If you were told to make use of heapRebuild to make a new function removeMac would you edit heapRebuild? public class MaxHeap<T extends Comparable<T>> implements Heap<T>{ private T[] heap; private int lastIndex; public T removeMax(){ T rootItem = heap[0]; heap[0] = heap[lastIndex-1]; lastIndex--; heapRebuild(heap, 0, lastIndex); return rootItem; } protected void heapRebuild(T[ ] items, int root, int size){ int child = 2*root+1; if( child < size){ int rightChild = child+1; if ((rightChild < size) && (items[rightChild].compareTo(items[child]) > 0)){ child = rightChild; } if (items[root].compareTo(items[child]) < 0){ T temp = items[root]; items[root] = items[child]; items[child] = temp; heapRebuild(items, child, size);} } } }

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• How should I solve this MySql problem (PHP) ? (Beginner)

  - by Camran

  I have several tables in a MySql database. I have a classifieds website, and at the bottom I display the users last visited classifieds. I do this by storing the ID:s of the ads to an array in the cookie. Now, my db is made up like this kindof: Main Table: // Stores global information, ie these fields have to be filled out in every record, never be blank ID Price category Seller Item Table: // Stores descriptive info about whats for sale ID AD_ID (FK) //This is the same as ID in the MAIN TABLE Color Size Mileage etc My problem is that I need to know what category the ad is in, in order to query mysql for the right information I think. So I need two variables, but the cookie only has one (ID) stored. Offcourse I could make two queries, first one just matching the ID to the main_table and fetch the category from the Main_table. Then make the second query and fetch all other info from the right table. Here is an example if the category was Vehicles: SELECT * FROM main_table, vehicles_table, WHERE main_table.id=$id_from_cookie AND main_table.ad_id=vehicles_table.ad_id As you can see above, I need the category to write in what table to check, right? But I think there must be a smarter way, like fetching them in one single query using only one variable (id from cookie)? How should I do this? Understand? Let me know if you need more input... Thanks

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• Why does this sql statement keep saying it is a boolean and not a parameter? (php/Mysql)

  - by ggfan

  In this statement, I am trying to see if there if the latest posting in the database that has the exact same title, price, city, state, detail. If there is, then it would say to the user that the exact post has been already made; if not then insert the posting into the dbc. (This is one type of check so that users can't accidentally post twice. This may not be the best check, but this statement error is annoying me, so I want it to work :)) Why won't this sql work? I think it's not letting the title=$title and not getting the value in the $title... ERROR: mysqli_num_rows() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in postad.php on line 365 //there is a form that users fill out that has title, price, city, etc <form> blah blah </form> //if users click submit, then does all the checks and if all okay, insert to dbc if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // Grab the pposting data from the POST and gets rid of any funny stuff $title = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['title'])); $price = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['price'])); $city = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['city'])); $state = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['state'])); $detail = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['detail'])); if (!is_numeric($price) && !empty($price)) { echo "<p class='error'>The price can only be numbers. No special characters, etc</p>"; } //Error problem...won't let me set title=$title, detail=$detail, etc. //this statement after all the checks so that none of the variables are empty $query="Select * FROM posting WHERE user_id={$_SESSION['user_id']} AND title=$title AND price=$price AND city=$city AND state=$state AND detail=$detail"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); if(mysqli_num_rows($data)==1) { echo "You already posted this ad. Most likely caused by refreshing too many times."; } }

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• RDS installation failure on 2012 R2 Server Core VM in Hyper-V Server

  - by Giles

  I'm currently installing a test-bed for my firms Infrastructure replacement. 10 or so Windows/Linux servers will be replaced by 2 physical servers running Hyper-V server. All services (DC, RDS, SQL) will be on Windows 2012 R2 Server Core VMs, Exchange on Server 2012 R2 GUI, and the rest are things like Elastix, MailArchiver etc, which aren't part of the equation thus far. I have installed Hyper-V server on a test box, and sucessfully got two virtual DC's running, SQL 2014 running, and 8.1 which I use for the RSAT tools. When trying to install RDS (The old fashioned kind, not the newer VDI(?) style), I get a failed installation due to the server not being able to reboot. A couple of articles have said not to do it locally, so I've moved on. Sitting at the Powershell prompt on the Domain Controller or SQL server (Both Server Core), I run the following commands: Import-Module RemoteDesktop New-SessionDeployment -ConnectionBroker "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" -SessionHost "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" The installation begins, carries on for 2 or 3 minutes, then I receive the following error message: New-SessionDeployment : Validation failed for the "RD Connection Broker" parameter. AlstersTS.Alsters.local Unable to connect to the server by using WindowsPowerShell remoting. Verify that you can connect to the server. At line:1 char:1 + NewSessionDeployment -ConnectionBroker "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" -SessionHost " ... + + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [Write-Error], WriteErrorException + FullyQualifiedErrorID : Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.WriteErrorException,New-SessionDeployment So far, I have: Triple, triple checked syntax. Tried various other commands, and a script to accomplish the same task. Checked DNS is functioning as it should. Checked to the best of my knowledge that AD is working as it should. Checked that the Network Service has the needed permissions. Created another VM and placed the two roles on different servers. Deleted all VMs, started again with a new domain name (Lather, rinse, repeat) Performed the whole installation on a second physical box running Hyper-V Server Pleaded with it Interestingly, if I perform the installation via a GUI installation, the thing just works! Now I know I could convert this to a Server Core role after installation, but this wouldn't teach me what was wrong in the first instance. I've probably got 10 pages through various Google searches, each page getting a little less relevant. The closest matches seem to have good information, but it doesn't seem to be the fix for my set-up. As a side note, I expected to be able to "tee" or "out-file" the error message into a text file, but couldn't get that to work either, so I've typed in the error message manually. Chaps, any suggestions, from the glaringly obvious, to the long-winded and complex? Thanks!

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• PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout While Attempting to PXE Boot from Windows Deployment Services

  - by bschafer

  I'm running Windows Deployment Services on Windows Server 2008 R2 on top of an ESX 4.0 box. This is the only function of this VM instance, although it had previously functioned as an AD Domain Controller. My DHCP server is running on our primary Domain Controller, which is also Server 2008 R2, but running on metal. Everything was working perfectly until we recently had our backup generator fail during a power outage, causing all of our servers and networking equipment to lose power for a period of time. When we brought all of our equipment back up, everything was working as expected except for WDS. Our network is split up into several different vlans. Now, depending on which vlan the client computer is on, it's behaving differently when attempting to PXE boot into WDS. Our servers are located on the 10.55.x.x vlan, which, due to the nature of it, has no DHCP server active in it. The first computer we plugged in happened to be in the 10.99.x.x vlan, which is supposed to be reserved for network management devices (i.e. switches), but we've been using it occasionally otherwise. That computer gave us PXE-E11 ARP Timeout errors. When we moved to a different computer on the 10.19.x.x vlan (for general purpose use), it finally gets an IP from DHCP, but it presents us with a very stumping PXE-E32 TFTP Open Timeout error. Before the power outage, it didn't matter which vlan a device was on; it would PXE boot and image just fine. I've made no changes to anything server-side. Everything is configured exactly the same way it was on my WDS and DHCP servers as before the power outage. I've tried several different computers, including different models. All of this, combined with the quirky behavior depending on the vlan, makes me think something went wrong in one or more of our switches, probably because of the power outage. Unfortunately, I'm no network guy, and I know very little about how to configure our switches properly. Is this an issue with switches, etc? If so, how can I fix it? Is there some magical option I'm not aware of? Does anybody out there have any hunches? I've pretty much exhausted my ideas. Our main switch is an HP Procurve 5406. We also have 3x HP Procurve 4208 switches. The ESX Server is an HP ProLiant DL380 G6. The WDS VM is currently using the VMXNET3 network adaptor, but we've also tried the E1000 adaptor.

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• Microsoft CRM Dynamics Install

  - by Pino

  Trying to install CRM4.0 on Windows Small Business Server. We get through the isntall process (Setting up database, website, AD etc) when we clikc install though the following error is dumped to the log file, anyone point us in the right directon? 13:49:07| Info| Win32Exception: 1635 13:49:07| Error| Failed to revoke temporary database access.System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot open database "MSCRM_CONFIG" requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user 'SCHIP\administrator'. at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.Crm.CrmDbConnection.Open() at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Database.SharedDatabaseUtility.DeleteDBUser(String sqlServerName, String databaseName, String user, CrmDBConnectionType connectionType) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Server.RevokeConfigDBDatabaseAccessAction.Do(IDictionary parameters) 13:49:07| Error| HResult=80004005 Install exception.System.Exception: Action Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Server.MsiInstallServerAction failed. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: This update package could not be opened. Verify that the update package exists and that you can access it, or contact the application vendor to verify that this is a valid Windows Installer update package at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Common.Utility.MsiUtility.InstallProduct(String packagePath, String commandLine) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Server.MsiInstallServerAction.Do(IDictionary parameters) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Common.Action.ExecuteAction(Action action, IDictionary parameters, Boolean undo) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Common.Action.ExecuteAction(Action action, IDictionary parameters, Boolean undo) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Common.Installer.Install(IDictionary stateSaver) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Common.ComposedInstaller.InternalInstall(IDictionary stateSaver) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Common.ComposedInstaller.Install(IDictionary stateSaver) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Server.ServerSetup.Install(IDictionary data) at Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Server.ServerSetup.Run() 13:49:07| Info| Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server install Failed. 13:49:07| Info| Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server Setup did not complete successfully. Action Microsoft.Crm.Setup.Server.MsiInstallServerAction failed. This update package could not be opened. Verify that the update package exists and that you can access it, or contact the application vendor to verify that this is a valid Windows Installer update package

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• Tomcat SPNEGO authentication against Active Directory not working.

  - by Michael

  I'm trying to authenticate against AD using the http://spnego.sourceforge.net component with tomcat. I've created my SPN's "setspn.exe -A HTTP/servername SVCTomcat" & "setspn.exe -A HTTP/servername.fqdn.net SVCTomcat" I've created my krb5.conf & login.conf file and setup the filter in the web.xml ie. <filter-name>SpnegoHttpFilter</filter-name> <filter-class>net.sourceforge.spnego.SpnegoHttpFilter</filter-class> <param-name>spnego.allow.unsecure.basic</param-name> <param-value>false</param-value> <param-name>spnego.login.client.module</param-name> <param-value>spnego-client</param-value> <param-name>spnego.krb5.conf</param-name> <param-value>krb5.conf</param-value> <param-name>spnego.login.conf</param-name> <param-value>login.conf</param-value> <param-name>spnego.preauth.username</param-name> <param-value>SVCTomcat</param-value> <param-name>spnego.preauth.password</param-name> <param-value>Pasword</param-value> <param-name>spnego.login.server.module</param-name> <param-value>spnego-server</param-value> <param-name>spnego.prompt.ntlm</param-name> <param-value>false</param-value> <param-name>spnego.logger.level</param-name> <param-value>2</param-value> Note i've stripped extraneous tags from this, so it's not the actual XML. When i go to a page protected by this filter i get this in the catalina logfile. 25-Mar-2010 12:41:26 org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina start INFO: Server startup in 4615 ms 25-Mar-2010 12:41:47 net.sourceforge.spnego.SpnegoHttpFilter doFilter FINE: principal=SYSTEM@TESTDOMAIN And in the hello_spnego.jsp example on the website it just reports the name of the user tomcat is running as (SYSTEM), not the user i'm connecting with. It seems the author stopped halfway through his debugging page, so i've no areas to look in other than to triple check my config. Any ideas?

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