Search Results

Search found 54748 results on 2190 pages for 'asp net authorization'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 121/2190 | < Previous Page | 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128  | Next Page >

  • IIS 7 + ASP.NET 4

    - by user26712
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET application that I am trying to convert to an ASP.NET 4 application. The application is fairly simple. I have created a new web application in IIS 7.5 pointing to the directory that the ASP.NET application exists in. When I attempt to execute the application, but entering http://localhost%3A%5Bport%5D into my browser, I receive the following error: Error Summary HTTP Error 500.21 - Internal Server Error Handler "PageHandlerFactory-Integrated" has a bad module "ManagedPipelineHandler" in its module list Most likely causes: * Managed handler is used; however, ASP.NET is not installed or is not installed completely. * There is a typographical error in the configuration for the handler module list.

    Read the article

  • Allow Single IP to access ASP.NET Web Service (ASMX) using Firewall

    - by Suresh Agrawal
    I have one asp.net web service (asmx) in separate project that is hosted on windows server having other asp.net web applications running on it. How can I restrict asp.net web service to be accessed by single IP address? I want that my web service must be accessed by one IP configured by me. If requests comes from any other IP, it must not reach to my web service and discarded by windows firewall itself. I know that this is something to do with windows firewall. I did it for SQL Server previously, but I don't know how to configure single asp.net web service project to do so.

    Read the article

  • IIS/ASP.NET performance incident - Perfmon Current Annonymous Users going through roof but Requests/sec low

    - by Laurence
    Setup: ASP.NET 4.0 website on IIS 6.0 on Win 2003 64 bit, 8xCPUs, 16GB memory, separate SQL 2005 DB server. Had a serious slowdown today with any otherwise fairly well performing ASP.NET site. For a period of a couple of hours all page requests were taking a very long time to be served - e.g. 30-60s compared to usual 2s. The w3wp.exe's CPU and memory usage on the webserver was not much higher than normal. The application pool was not in the middle of recycling (and it hadn't recycled for several hours). Bottlenecks in the database were ruled out - no blocks occurring and query results were being returned quickly. I couldn't make any sense of it and set up the following Perfmon counters: Current Anonymous Users (for site in question) Get requests/sec (ditto) Requests/sec for the ASP.NET application running the site Get requests/sec was averaging 100-150. Requests/sec for ASP.NET was averaging 5-10. However Current Anonymous Users was around 200. And then as I was watching, the Current Anonymous Users began to climb steeply going up to about 500 within a few minutes. All this time Get requests/sec & Requests/sec for ASP.NET was if anything going down. I did a whole load of things (in a panic!) to try to get the site working, like shutting it down, recycling the app pool, and adding another worker process to the pool. I also extended the expiration time for content (in IIS under HTTP Headers) in an attempt to lower the number of requests for static files (there are a lot of images on the site). The site is now back to normal, and the counters are fairly steady and reading (added Current Connections counter): Current Anonymous Users : average 30 Get requests/sec : average 100 Requests/sec for ASP.NET : 5 Current Connections : average 300 I have also observed an inverse relationship between Get requests/sec & Current Anonymous Users. Usually both are fairly steady but there will be short periods when Get requests/sec will go down dramatically and Current Anonymous Users will go up in a perfect mirror image. Then they will flip back to their usual levels. So, my questions are: Thinking of the original performance issue - if w3wp.exe CPU, memory usage were normal and there was no DB bottleneck, what could explain page requests taking 20 times longer to be served than usual? What other counters should I be looking at if this happens again? What explains the inverse relationship between Get requests/sec & Current Anonymous Users? What could explain Current Anonymous Users going from 200 to 500 within a few minutes? Many thanks for any insight into this.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 login problem with ASP.NET application: Failed to open the explicitly specified database

    - by eulerfx
    I am running SQL Server 2008 Express Edition on Windows Server 2008 with an ASP.NET application which must access the server. The ASP.NET application is associated with an application pool that runs on the NetworkService account. This account in turn has a Login and User record on SQL Server in the required database. When I attempt to run the ASP.NET website I get a blank page and when viewed in the error log, I seem to be getting this information event record: Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE'. Reason: Failed to open the explicitly specified database. [CLIENT: myLocalMachine] The connection string has Trusted_Connection=True; and the required database specified. When I explicitly specify the user name and password I get another login error stating the password is incorrect, even though the same un/pw combination works through SQL Server Management studio. The NETWORK SERVICE account seems to have all the required privileges for the database. Also, I made a test ASP.NET website project which does a simple select from a table in that database, and using the same config file I am not getting the error and it seems to work. Is it something to do with trust levels then, because the original ASP.NET web app references various DLLs including open source libraries. Also, the application does not seem to be able to write to the event log itself, throwing a security exception, even though everything in the config files, including machine.config states the app is in full trust.

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 / IIS 7 / Classic ASP not working

    - by Lucenut
    I have some old classic asp scripts. They used to work on my 2003/IIS 6 server. But on my Vista/IIS 7 and now Windows 7 Ultimate/IIS 7 server the asp pages don't work. I did what they said here: Deploying a Classic ASP Server (IIS 7) (Microsoft TechNet). I enabled those 3 features in IIS 7 but that just went from getting 404 to 500 error.

    Read the article

  • How do you 'clone' WebControls in C# .NET ?

    - by Adz
    My basic question is, in .NET, how do I clone WebControls? I would like to build a custom tag, which can produce multiple copies of its children. Ultimately I intend to build a tag similar to in JSP/Struts. But the first hurdle I have is the ability to duplicate/clone the contents of a control. Consider this rather contrived example; <custom:duplicate count="2"> <div> <p>Some html</p> <asp:TextBox id="tb1" runat="server" /> </div> </custom:duplicate> The HTML markup which is output would be something like, <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> Note: I know i have the id duplicated, I can come up with a solution to that later! So what we would have is my custom control with 3 children (I think) - a literal control, a TextBox control, and another literal control. In this example I have said 'count=2' so what the control should do is output/render its children twice. What I would hope to do is write some "OnInit" code which does something like: List<WebControl> clones; for(int i=1; i<count; i++) { foreach(WebControl c in Controls) { WebControl clone = c.Clone(); clones.Add(clone); } } Controls.AddRange(clones); However, as far as I can tell, WebControls do not implement ICloneable, so its not possible to clone them in this way. Any ideas how I can clone WebControls?

    Read the article

  • Autocomplete jQuery on User Controller within Repeater .NET

    - by TheDPQ
    I have a Multiview search feature on a Web User Controller that is called within a Repeater, OHMY!! I have some training sessions being listed out on a page, each calling an employeeSearch Web User Controller so people can search for employees to add to the training session. I have the Employee Names and Employee IDs listed out in JS on the page and using the jQuery autocomplete i have them search for the employee and populate a hidden field in the User controller. Once the process is done they have the option of adding yet another employee. So i had Autocompelte 'work' in all the employee search boxes, but one i do the initial search (postback) autocomplete won't work again. Then i updated $().ready(function() to pageLoad() so it works correctly on multiple searches but only in the LAST item of the repeater (jQuery is loaded on the User Controller) FYI: I have the JS string set as EMPLOYEENAME|ID and jQuery displays the Employee Name and if they select it throws the ID in a ASP:HIDDEN FIELD <script type="text/javascript"> format_item = function(item, position, length) { var str = item.toString().split("|", 2); return str[0]; } function pageLoad() { $("#<%=tb_EmployeeName.ClientID %>").autocomplete(EmployeeList, { minChars: 0, width: 500, matchContains: true, autoFill: false, scrollHeight: 300, scroll: true, formatItem: format_item, formatMatch: format_item, formatResult: format_item }); $("#<%=tb_EmployeeName.ClientID %>").result(function(event, data, formatted) { var str = data.toString().split("|", 2); $("#<%=hf_EmployeeID.ClientID %>").val(str[1]); }); }; </script> I can already guess that by repeating pageLoad within the User Controll i override the previous pageLoad. THE QUESTION: Is there a way around this, a way to have all the jQuery appear in a single pageLoad or to somehow have a single jquery call to handle all my search boxes? I can't move the jQuery into the page calling all the controllers because i have no way of referencing the specific *tb_EmployeeName* textbox AND *hf_EmployeeID* hidden field. Thank you so much for any help or insight you can give me into this problem. This is the Multiview that on the User Controller <asp:MultiView ID="mv_EmployeeArea" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vw_Search" runat="server"> <asp:Panel ID="eSearch" runat="server"> <b>Signup Employee Search</b> (<i>Last Name, First Name</i>)<br /> <asp:TextBox ID="tb_EmployeeName" class="EmployeeSearch" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:HiddenField ID="hf_EmployeeID" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="btn_Search" runat="server" Text="Search" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vw_Confirm" runat="server"> <b>Signup Confirmation</b> <asp:FormView ID="fv_EmployeeInfo" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <%#(Eval("LastName"))%>, <%#(Eval("FirstName"))%><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:Button ID="btn_Confirm" runat="server" Text="Signup this employee" /> &nbsp; <asp:Button ID="btn_Reset3" runat="server" Text="Reset" /> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vw_ThankYou" runat="server"> <b>Thank You</b><br /> The employee has been signed up and an email confirmation has been sent out.<br /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btn_Reset" runat="server" Text="Reset" /> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> UPDATE: I never did find an answer but i had to do a demo so i hacked together something that 'works', but feels sort of cheesy. I am still very much needed of a better question or better understanding.

    Read the article

  • This 404 seems unavoidable - what am I doing wrong? [Ninject 2.0 with ASP.NET MVC 2 on .NET 4]

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I downloaded the fairly new Ninject 2.0 and Ninject.Web.Mvc (targeting mvc2) sources today, and successfully built them against .NET 4 (release configuration). When trying to run an application using Ninject 2.0, i keep getting 404 errors and I can't figure out why. This is my global.asax.cs (slightly shortified, for brevity): using ... using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using Ninject.Modules; namespace Booking.Web { public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { Booking.Models.AutoMapperBootstrapper.Initialize(); RegisterAllControllersIn(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); base.OnApplicationStarted(); } protected void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { ... routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Entry", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { INinjectModule[] mods = new INinjectModule[] {...}; return new StandardKernel(mods); } } } The EntryController exists, and has an Index method that simply does a return View(). I have debugged, and verified that the call to RegisterAllControllersIn() is executed. I have also tried to use Phil Haacks Routing debugger but I still get a 404. What do I do to find the cause of this?

    Read the article

  • .net mvc pass dictionary data from view to controller

    - by Wei Ma
    A while ago, I was trying to pass a dictionary data from my view to my controller. And I was able to do so after googling on the net(remember it was one of scott hanselman's posts). The solution I had was something like <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Key"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Value"%>"/> <%}%> public ActionResult Process(IDictionary<string,string> properties) { doSomething(); return View(); } The code worked for awhile and then I did some refactoring and got rid of this chunk of code. Today, I ran into a situation in which I would like to pass a dictionary again. But no matter how hard I try, the properties parameter received by the action was always null. I tried the above code and <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Keys["+index+"]"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Values["+index+"]"%>"/> <%}%> Neither code worked. I googled again but couldn't find the post that helped me before. Can someone point out what I did wrong? thanks a million.

    Read the article

  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

    Read the article

  • Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

    Read the article

  • "Failed to find or load the registered .Net Framework Data Provider" with MySQL + ASP.NET

    - by Malachi
    How do we repair this? This question has been sort of addressed many times around the internet, but it's always a workaround. Always copying the MySql.data.dll into your bin directory, or explicitly stating what version you want. What is the "proper" approach to using DbProvderFactory for MySQL with ASP.NET? I'd like to be able to develop locally and not worry what version they have installed on the server. As it stands, if I do copy up my own version I have to make sure it's the one they use. Seems easy to break.

    Read the article

  • Why does System.Net.Mail work in one part of my c#.net web app, but not in another?

    - by Marc
    I have a web application that is running on IIS within my company's domain, and is being accessed via intranet. I have this application sending out email based on some user actions. For example, its a scheduling application in part, so if a task is completed, an email is sent out notifying other users of that. The problem is, the email works flawlessly in some cases, and not at all in others. I have a login.aspx page which sends out report emails when the page is loaded (its loaded once a day via windows task scheduler) - this always seems to work perfectly. I have an update page which is supposed to send email when text is entered and the "Update" button is clicked - this operation will fail most of the time. Both of these tasks use the same static overloaded method I wrote to send email using System.Net.Mail. I have tried using gmail as my smtp server (instead of our internal one), and get the same results. I investigated whether having the local SMTP Service running makes any difference, and it doesn't seem to. Besides, since C# is server-side code, shouldn't it only matter whats running on the server, and not the client? Please help me figure out whats wrong! Where should I look? What can I try?

    Read the article

  • Access .accdb format’s

    - by wisecarver
    Were you aware there are two versions of the Access .accdb file format? The 2007 “ACE” version and the 2010 “ACE” version both use different drivers. If you’ve tried to use the Access Database .accdb format on DiscountASP.NET servers and it failed you must have been using a Data file created with the 2010 version of Access. OK, you’re shouting at me right now for even suggesting Access Databases for Shared hosting, right? I agree, SQL Server is the way to go and I personally help a lot of developers...(read more)

    Read the article

  • NEED your opinion on .net Profile class VS session vars

    - by Ted
    To save trips to sql db in my older apps, I store *dozens of data points about the current user in an array and then store the array in a session. For example, info that might be used repeatedly during user’s session might be stored… Dim a(7) as string a(0) = “FirstName” a(1) = “LastName” a(2) = “Address” a(3) = “Address2” a(4) = “City” a(5) = “State” a(6) = “Zip” session.add(“s_a”, a) *Some apps have an array 100 in size. That is something I learned in my asp classic days. Referencing the correct index can be laborsome and I find it difficult to go back and add another data point in the array grouped with like data. For example, suppose I need to add Middle Initial to the array as a design alteration. Unless I redo the whole index mapping, I have to stick Middle Initial in the next open slot, which might be in the 50s. NOW, I am considering doing something easier to reference each time (eliminating the need to know the index of the value wanted). So I am looking to do this… session.add(“Firstname”, “FirstName”) session.add(“Lastname”, “LastName”) session.add(“Address”, “Address”) etc. BUT, before I do this, I would like some guidance. I am afraid this might be less efficient, even though easier to use. I don’t know if a new session object is created for each data point or if there is only one session object, and I am adding a name/value pair to that object? If I am adding a name/value pair to a single object, that seems like a good idea. Does anyone know? Or is there a more preferred way? Built-in Profile class? Re: Profile class I have an internal debate about scope. It seems that the .net Profile class is good for storing app-SPECIFIC user settings (i.e. style theme, object display properties, user role, etc.) The examples I give are information whose values are selected/edited by the user to customize the application experience. This information is not typically stored/edited elsewhere in the app db. But when you have data that 1) is stored already in the app db and 2) can be altered by other users (in this case: company reps may update client's status, address, etc.), then the persistence of the Profile data may be an issue. In this case, the Profile would need to be reset at the beginning and dropped like a session.abandon at the end of each user's session to prevent reloading info that had since been edited by someone. I believe this is possible, but not sure Currently, I use the session array to store both scopes, app-specific and user-specific data. If my session plan is good, I think I will create a class to set/get values from the session also. I appreciate your thoughts. I would like to know how others have handled this type of situation. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why you need to learn async in .NET

    - by PSteele
    I had an opportunity to teach a quick class yesterday about what’s new in .NET 4.0.  One of the topics was the TPL (Task Parallel Library) and how it can make async programming easier.  I also stressed that this is the direction Microsoft is going with for C# 5.0 and learning the TPL will greatly benefit their understanding of the new async stuff.  We had a little time left over and I was able to show some code that uses the Async CTP to accomplish some stuff, but it wasn’t a simple demo that you could jump in to and understand so I thought I’d thrown one together and put it in a blog post. The entire solution file with all of the sample projects is located here. A Simple Example Let’s start with a super-simple example (WindowsApplication01 in the solution). I’ve got a form that displays a label and a button.  When the user clicks the button, I want to start displaying the current time for 15 seconds and then stop. What I’d like to write is this: lblTime.ForeColor = Color.Red; for (var x = 0; x < 15; x++) { lblTime.Text = DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"); Thread.Sleep(1000); } lblTime.ForeColor = SystemColors.ControlText; (Note that I also changed the label’s color while counting – not quite an ILM-level effect, but it adds something to the demo!) As I’m sure most of my readers are aware, you can’t write WinForms code this way.  WinForms apps, by default, only have one thread running and it’s main job is to process messages from the windows message pump (for a more thorough explanation, see my Visual Studio Magazine article on multithreading in WinForms).  If you put a Thread.Sleep in the middle of that code, your UI will be locked up and unresponsive for those 15 seconds.  Not a good UX and something that needs to be fixed.  Sure, I could throw an “Application.DoEvents()” in there, but that’s hacky. The Windows Timer Then I think, “I can solve that.  I’ll use the Windows Timer to handle the timing in the background and simply notify me when the time has changed”.  Let’s see how I could accomplish this with a Windows timer (WindowsApplication02 in the solution): public partial class Form1 : Form { private readonly Timer clockTimer; private int counter;   public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); clockTimer = new Timer {Interval = 1000}; clockTimer.Tick += UpdateLabel; }   private void UpdateLabel(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblTime.Text = DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"); counter++; if (counter == 15) { clockTimer.Enabled = false; lblTime.ForeColor = SystemColors.ControlText; } }   private void cmdStart_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblTime.ForeColor = Color.Red; counter = 0; clockTimer.Start(); } } Holy cow – things got pretty complicated here.  I use the timer to fire off a Tick event every second.  Inside there, I can update the label.  Granted, I can’t use a simple for/loop and have to maintain a global counter for the number of iterations.  And my “end” code (when the loop is finished) is now buried inside the bottom of the Tick event (inside an “if” statement).  I do, however, get a responsive application that doesn’t hang or stop repainting while the 15 seconds are ticking away. But doesn’t .NET have something that makes background processing easier? The BackgroundWorker Next I try .NET’s BackgroundWorker component – it’s specifically designed to do processing in a background thread (leaving the UI thread free to process the windows message pump) and allows updates to be performed on the main UI thread (WindowsApplication03 in the solution): public partial class Form1 : Form { private readonly BackgroundWorker worker;   public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); worker = new BackgroundWorker {WorkerReportsProgress = true}; worker.DoWork += StartUpdating; worker.ProgressChanged += UpdateLabel; worker.RunWorkerCompleted += ResetLabelColor; }   private void StartUpdating(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { var workerObject = (BackgroundWorker) sender; for (int x = 0; x < 15; x++) { workerObject.ReportProgress(0); Thread.Sleep(1000); } }   private void UpdateLabel(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { lblTime.Text = DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"); }   private void ResetLabelColor(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { lblTime.ForeColor = SystemColors.ControlText; }   private void cmdStart_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblTime.ForeColor = Color.Red; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } } Well, this got a little better (I think).  At least I now have my simple for/next loop back.  Unfortunately, I’m still dealing with event handlers spread throughout my code to co-ordinate all of this stuff in the right order. Time to look into the future. The async way Using the Async CTP, I can go back to much simpler code (WindowsApplication04 in the solution): private async void cmdStart_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblTime.ForeColor = Color.Red; for (var x = 0; x < 15; x++) { lblTime.Text = DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"); await TaskEx.Delay(1000); } lblTime.ForeColor = SystemColors.ControlText; } This code will run just like the Timer or BackgroundWorker versions – fully responsive during the updates – yet is way easier to implement.  In fact, it’s almost a line-for-line copy of the original version of this code.  All of the async plumbing is handled by the compiler and the framework.  My code goes back to representing the “what” of what I want to do, not the “how”. I urge you to download the Async CTP.  All you need is .NET 4.0 and Visual Studio 2010 sp1 – no need to set up a virtual machine with the VS2011 beta (unless, of course, you want to dive right in to the C# 5.0 stuff!).  Starting playing around with this today and see how much easier it will be in the future to write async-enabled applications.

    Read the article

  • Trying to read FormsAuthentication tickets to read in other areas of site

    - by Pasha Aryana
    Hi, NOTE: I have included 3 links in here to my localhost areas but could not submit the post so I seperetaed them with a space character so it would post on stackoverflow. I currently have 2 ASP.NET MVC apps in my solution. First I run the first one by setting it to be startup project. It goes to the login page, from there once the data has been entered I execute the following code: var authTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, login.LoginDataContract.MSISDN, DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(Convert.ToDouble("30")), true, ""); string cookieContents = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authTicket); var cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookieContents) { Expires = authTicket.Expiration, //Path = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath //Path = "http://localhost" Domain = "" }; if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current != null) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); } As you can see I have set the Domain = "", so theoretically speaking it should work on any thing under my http: //localhost. Then I have set the persist security of the cookie to true so I can access it from any where under localhost. The cookie writes fine and I get logged in and all godd for now. BTW the url for this login page is: http //localhost/MyAccount/Login Now then I stop the solution and set the other MVC apps to be the startup. Then I run it. The URL for the second site is: http: //localhost/WebActivations/ Here is the code in the other apps start controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; // PASHA: Added code to read the authorization cookie set at // login in MyAccount *.sln for (int i = 0; i < System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Count;i++) { Response.Write(System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[i].Name + " " + System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[i].Value); } HttpCookie authorizationCookie = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName.ToString()]; // decrypt. FormsAuthenticationTicket authorizationForm = FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(authorizationCookie.Value); ViewData["Message"] = authorizationForm.UserData[0].ToString(); return View(); } public ActionResult About() { return View(); } The problem is in this Home controller when I run the solution it cannot read the authentication cookie, you see the loop there it does not find the .ASPXAUTH cookie. But once it crashes in Firefox I have a look in the Page Info and then security and Cookies and its there and its the same cookie. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • problem with sqldatasource and data binding

    - by Alexander
    I am trying to pull out data from the table I had from the database according to the id which is passed from the URL. However I always get data from id= 1? Why? FYI I took this code directly from the ClubWebsite starter kit and copy and paste it to my project to make several changes, the ClubWebsite one worked fine.. but this one doesn't and can't find any reason why because they both looked exactly the same. <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Events_View.aspx.cs" Inherits="Events_View" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" Runat="Server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="splash" Runat="Server"> <div id="splash4">&nbsp;</div> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" Runat="Server"> <div id="content"> <div class="post"> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ClubDatabase %>" SelectCommand="SELECT dbo.Events.id, dbo.Events.starttime, dbo.events.endtime, dbo.Events.title, dbo.Events.description, dbo.Events.staticURL, dbo.Events.address FROM dbo.Events"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Type="Int32" DefaultValue="1" Name="id"></asp:Parameter> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" DataKeyNames="id" AllowPaging="false" Width="100%"> <ItemTemplate> <h2> <asp:Label Text='<%# Eval("title") %>' runat="server" ID="titleLabel" /> </h2> <div> <br /> <p> <asp:Label Text='<%# Eval("address") %>' runat="server" ID="addressLabel" /> </p> <p> <asp:Label Text='<%# Eval("starttime","{0:D}") %>' runat="server" ID="itemdateLabel" /> <br /> <asp:Label Text='<%# ShowDuration(Eval("starttime"),Eval("endtime")) %>' runat="server" ID="Label1" /> </p> </div> <p> <asp:Label Text='<%# Eval("description") %>' runat="server" ID="descriptionLabel" /> </p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <div class="dashedline"> </div> </div> </div> </asp:Content> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Configuration; using System.Data; public partial class Events_View : System.Web.UI.Page { const int INVALIDID = -1; protected void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { SqlDataSource1.SelectParameters["id"].DefaultValue = System.Convert.ToString(EventID); } public int EventID { get { int m_EventID; object id = ViewState["EventID"]; if (id != null) { m_EventID = (int)id; } else { id = Request.QueryString["EventID"]; if (id != null) { m_EventID = System.Convert.ToInt32(id); } else { m_EventID = 1; } ViewState["EventID"] = m_EventID; } return m_EventID; } set { ViewState["EventID"] = value; } } protected void FormView1_DataBound(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { DataRowView view = (DataRowView)(FormView1.DataItem); object o = view["staticURL"]; if (o != null && o != DBNull.Value) { string staticurl = (string)o; if (staticurl != "") { Response.Redirect(staticurl); } } } protected string ShowLocationLink(object locationname, object id) { if (id != null && id != DBNull.Value) { return "At <a href='Locations_view.aspx?LocationID=" + Convert.ToString(id) + "'>" + (string)locationname + "</a><br/>"; } else { return ""; } } protected string ShowDuration(object starttime, object endtime) { DateTime starttimeDT = (DateTime)starttime; if (endtime != null && endtime != DBNull.Value) { DateTime endtimeDT = (DateTime)endtime; if (starttimeDT.Date == endtimeDT.Date) { if (starttimeDT == endtimeDT) { return starttimeDT.ToString("h:mm tt"); } else { return starttimeDT.ToString("h:mm tt") + " - " + endtimeDT.ToString("h:mm tt"); } } else { return "thru " + endtimeDT.ToString("M/d/yy"); } } else { return starttimeDT.ToString("h:mm tt"); } } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET FormView: "Object of type 'System.Int32' cannot be converted to type 'System.String"

    - by Vinzcent
    Hey I have a problem with my FromView. I would like to show some data from a Database Table in my FormView. But some data is from the tupe Int32, while this data should be in a TextBox, a string. How do you convert these Int32's. FormView and my ObjectDataSource <asp:FormView ID="fvDetailOrder" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> Aantal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label15" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("COUNT") %>' /><br /> Prijs:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label16" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PRICE") %>' /><br /> Korting:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label17" runat="server" Text='' /><br /> Totaal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label18" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("AMOUNT") %>' /><br /> Betaald:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label19" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PAID") %>' /><br /> Datum betaling:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label20" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PDATE") %>' /><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="objdsOrderID" runat="server" OnSelecting="objdsOrderID_Selecting" SelectMethod="getOrdersByID" TypeName="DAL.OrdersDAL"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="id" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My Code behind protected void gvOrdersAdmin_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { fvDetailOrder.DataSource = objdsOrderID; fvDetailOrder.DataBind(); // <-- HERE I GET THE ERROR } protected void objdsOrderID_Selecting(object sender, ObjectDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.InputParameters["id"] = gvOrdersAdmin.DataKeys[gvOrdersAdmin.SelectedRow.RowIndex].Values[0]; ; } My Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getOrdersByID(string id) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.*, tblLanguages.*, tblOrders.* FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID INNER JOIN tblLanguages ON tblBooks.LANG_ID = tblLanguages.LANG_ID INNER JOIN tblOrders ON tblBooks.BOOK_ID = tblOrders.BOOK_ID" + " WHERE tblOrders.ID = @id;"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["id"].Value = id; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Orders"); return ds.Tables["Orders"]; } Thanks a lot, Vincent

    Read the article

  • what is the difference between response.redirect and response status 301 redirects in asp ?

    - by Nikhil Vaghela
    Our asp application is moving to new server and i want to implement a permenant url redirection. I am aware of following two approaches , i need to understand which one to user over other and when ? Option 1: <%@ Language=VBScript %><% Response.Redirect “http://www.new-url.com” %> Option 2: <%@ Language=VBScript %><% Response.Status="301 Moved Permanently" Response.AddHeader "Location","http://www.new-url.com/" %> Thanks, Nikhil.

    Read the article

  • How can I include additional markup within a 'Content' inner property of an ASP.Net WebControl?

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I've searched the site and I cannot find a solution for my problem, so apologies if it's already been answered (I'm sure someone must have asked this before). I have written a jQuery Popup window that I've packaged up as a WebControl and IScriptControl. The last step is to be able to write the markup within the tags of my control. I've used the InnerProperty attribute a few times, but only for including lists of strongly typed classes. Here's my property on the WebControl: [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public something??? Content { get { if (_content == null) { _content = new something???(); } return _content; } } private something??? _content; Here's the HTML Markup of what I'm after: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_Test" Hidden="false" Width="100px" Height="100px" Modal="true" WindowCaption="Test Window" CssClass="window"> <Content> <div style="display:none;"> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </div> <%--Etc--%> <%--Etc--%> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> Unfortunately I don't know what type my Content property should be. I basically need to replicate the UpdatePanel's ContentTemplate. EDIT: So the following allows a Template container to be automatically created, but no controls show up, what's wrong with what I'm doing? [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public ITemplate Content { get { return _content; } set { _content = value; } } private ITemplate _content; EDIT2: Overriding the CreateChildControls allows the controls within the ITemplate to be rendered: protected override void CreateChildControls() { if (this.Content != null) { this.Controls.Clear(); this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } base.CreateChildControls(); } Unfortunately I cannot now access the controls within the ITemplate from the codebehind file on the file. I.e. if I put a button within my mark as so: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_StatusFilter"> <Content> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btn_Test" Text="Cannot access this from code behind?" /> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> I then cannot access btn_Test from the code behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { btn_Test.Text = "btn_Test is not present in Intellisense and is not accessible to the page. It does, however, render correctly."; }

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128  | Next Page >