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  • Why can't I bind to 127.0.0.1 on Mac OS X?

    - by Noah Lavine
    Hello, I'm trying to set up a simple web server on Mac OS X, and I keep getting an error when I run bind. Here's what I'm running (this transcript uses GNU Guile, but just as a convenient interface to posix). (define addr (inet-aton "127.0.0.1")) ; get internal representation of 127.0.0.1 (define sockaddr (make-socket-address AF_INET addr 8080)) ; make a struct sockaddr (define sock (socket PF_INET SOCK_STREAM 0)) ; make a socket (bind sock sockaddr) ; bind the socket to the address That gives me the error In procedure bind: can't assign requested address. So I tried it again allowing any address. (define anyaddr (make-socket-address AF_INET INADDR_ANY 8080)) ; allow any address (bind sock anyaddr) And that works fine. But it's weird, because ifconfig lo0 says lo0: flags=8049<UP,LOOPBACK,RUNNING,MULTICAST> mtu 16384 inet6 ::1 prefixlen 128 inet6 fe80::1%lo0 prefixlen 64 scopeid 0x1 inet 127.0.0.1 netmask 0xff000000 So the loopback device is assigned to 127.0.0.1. So my question is, why can't I bind to that address? Thanks. Update: the output of route get 127.0.0.1 is route to: localhost destination: localhost interface: lo0 flags: <UP,HOST,DONE,LOCAL> recvpipe sendpipe ssthresh rtt,msec rttvar hopcount mtu expire 49152 49152 0 0 0 0 16384 0

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  • C++ vs. C++/CLI: Const qualification of virtual function parameters

    - by James McNellis
    [All of the following was tested using Visual Studio 2008 SP1] In C++, const qualification of parameter types does not affect the type of a function (8.3.5/3: "Any cv-qualifier modifying a parameter type is deleted") So, for example, in the following class hierarchy, Derived::Foo overrides Base::Foo: struct Base { virtual void Foo(const int i) { } }; struct Derived : Base { virtual void Foo(int i) { } }; Consider a similar hierarchy in C++/CLI: ref class Base abstract { public: virtual void Foo(const int) = 0; }; ref class Derived : public Base { public: virtual void Foo(int i) override { } }; If I then create an instance of Derived: int main(array<System::String ^> ^args) { Derived^ d = gcnew Derived; } it compiles without errors or warnings. When I run it, it throws the following exception and then terminates: An unhandled exception of type 'System.TypeLoadException' occurred in ClrVirtualTest.exe Additional information: Method 'Foo' in type 'Derived'...does not have an implementation. That exception seems to indicate that the const qualification of the parameter does affect the type of the function in C++/CLI (or, at least it affects overriding in some way). However, if I comment out the line containing the definition of Derived::Foo, the compiler reports the following error (on the line in main where the instance of Derived is instantiated): error C2259: 'Derived': cannot instantiate abstract class If I add the const qualifier to the parameter of Derived::Foo or remove the const qualifier from the parameter of Base::Foo, it compiles and runs with no errors. I would think that if the const qualification of the parameter affects the type of the function, I should get this error if the const qualification of the parameter in the derived class virtual function does not match the const qualification of the parameter in the base class virtual function. If I change the type of Derived::Foo's parameter from an int to a double, I get the following warning (in addition to the aforementioned error, C2259): warning C4490: 'override': incorrect use of override specifier; 'Derived::Foo' does not match a base ref class method So, my question is, effectively, does the const qualification of function parameters affect the type of the function in C++/CLI? If so, why does this compile and why are there no errors or warnings? If not, why is an exception thrown?

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  • Regular expression not working after debugging

    - by Jaison
    I have an ASP.NET website with a regular expression validator text box. I have changed the expression in the regular expression validation property "validator expression" and after compiling (rebuild) and running, the validation CHANGEs are not reflecting. The previous validation is working fine but the changed validation is not working. Please help me! edit: First code: ([a-zA-Z0-9_-.]+)\@((base.co.uk)|(base.com)|(group.com)) Second code: @"([a-zA-Z0-9_\-.]+)@((base\.co\.uk)|(base\.com)|(group\.com)|(arg\.co\.uk)|(arggroup\.com))"

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  • Why the VPN Network Shake-Up?

    - by Brent Arias
    I can RDP to another machine on my home network, only if I'm not also hooked up to my employer's VPN with the Cisco VPN client. Indeed, I can't even ping the other machine by name in this mode, because ICMP suddenly thinks that ( ping myMachine ) now means ( ping myMachine.myEmployer.com ). Of course there is no machine by that latter name, and so it fails. Even weirder, once I disconnect from the VPN I can again ping myMachine successfully, but ICMP reports the machine by its MAC address instead of its IP address. I don't think I've ever seen ping identify another machine by its MAC address. So two questions: How can I access via RDP/ping the other machine BY NAME on my local network while also connected to the VPN? Why is ping identifying a MAC address for the machine on my home network, instead of an IP address? And how can I change this so that an IP address is reported instead? For question #1, I can indeed access the other machine on my home network by IP address. I suspect if I put the name-IP pair into my HOSTS file, then I would be able to access it even when connected to the VPN. But I wonder if there is another (more elegant) solution?

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  • Wcf inhereted models

    - by jack london
    [DataContract] Base { [DataMember] public int Id {get;set;} } [DataContract] A : Base { [DataMember] public string Value {get;set;} } [ServiceContract] interface IService { [OperationContract] void SetValue (Base base); } is there a way to use the service like the following style: new Service ().SetValue (new A ());

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  • Manipulating the address of a variable to store a smaller type?

    - by Sidnicious
    This is what I get for pampering myself with high-level programming languages. I have a function which writes a 32-bit value to a buffer, and a uint64_t on the stack. Is the following code a sane way to store it? uint64_t size = 0; // ... getBytes((uint32_t*)&size+0x1); I'm assuming that this would be the canonical, safe style: uint64_t size = 0; // ... uint32_t smallSize; getBytes(&smallSize); size = smallSize;

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  • Insert data in an object to a database.

    - by paul
    I am facing the following design/implementation dilemma. I have a class Customer which is below with getters and setters. I would like to insert the value of the Customer into a "Customer" table of a database. But Customer has an address which is of type "Address". How do I go about inserting this field into the database?(I am using sqlite3). I thought of writing a separate table "Address(customerId,doorNo,city,state,country,pinCode)". But I am having second thoughts about generating the primary key(customerId) which should be same for both the "customer" and "Address" table. Sqlite3 faq states that I can do "Integer Primary Key" to use the field to generate an auto number. But if I do that in customer table, I would have to retrieve the same Id to be used in Address table. This kinda looks wrong to me :-?. There should be an elegant method to solve this. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; class Customer { private String id; private String name; private Address address; private Connection connection; private ResultSet resultSet; private PreparedStatement preparedStatement; public void insertToDatabase(){ } } class Address{ private String doorNumber; private String streetName; private String cityName; private String districtName; private String stateName; private String countryName; private long pinCode; }

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • Configure static IPv6 on Ubuntu

    - by Charles Offenbacher
    I'm trying to configure IPv6 on a dedicated Ubuntu server. My provider gave me a "/64" (whatever that is - I'm still confused) of IPv6 addresses. However, when I try to use them, I can't ping anything. What do I do? :( # ping6 ipv6.google.com PING ipv6.google.com(vx-in-x63.1e100.net) 56 data bytes From fe80::219:d1ff:fefb:42d8 icmp_seq=1 Destination unreachable: Address unreachable From fe80::219:d1ff:fefb:42d8 icmp_seq=2 Destination unreachable: Address unreachable From fe80::219:d1ff:fefb:42d8 icmp_seq=3 Destination unreachable: Address unreachable --- ipv6.google.com ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 0 received, +3 errors, 100% packet loss, time 2014ms # tracepath6 ipv6.google.com 1?: [LOCALHOST] 0.025ms pmtu 1500 1: fe80::219:d1ff:fefb:42d8%eth0 2000.022ms !H Resume: pmtu 1500 # cat /etc/network/interfaces # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 64.***.***.*** netmask 255.255.255.248 gateway 64.***.***.*** iface eth0 inet6 static pre-up modprobe ipv6 address 2607:F878:1:***::1 netmask 64 gateway 2607:F878:1:***(same as address)::1 # ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:19:d1:fb:42:d8 inet addr:64.***.***.*** Bcast:64.***.***.*** Mask:255.255.255.248 inet6 addr: fe80::219:d1ff:fefb:42d8/64 Scope:Link inet6 addr: 2607:f878:1:***::1/64 Scope:Global UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:52451 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:39729 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:6817761 (6.8 MB) TX bytes:6153835 (6.1 MB) Interrupt:41 Base address:0xc000 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:166 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:166 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:31714 (31.7 KB) TX bytes:31714 (31.7 KB)

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  • Extract Distinct restful MVC routes from IIS logs

    - by Grummle
    This is a cross post from StackOverflow that after some consideration I believe can be asked here (not getting anything on SO). My shop is using MVC3/FUBU on IIS 7. I recently put something into production and I wanted to gather metrics from the IIS logs using log parser. I've done this many times before with file endpoints but because the MVC3 routes are of the form /api/person/{personid}/address/{addressid} the log saves /api/person/123/address/456 in the uristem column. Does anyone have any ideas on how to get data about specific routes from IIS logs? As an exmaple: Log Like this: cs-uri-stem /api/person/123/address/456 /api/person/121/address/33 /api/person/3555 /api/person/1555/address/5555 I want information about all where the route used was /api/person/{personid} so the count would be 1 in this case. Ideally what I'd like to figure out is how to do is is have IIS log the regex for the route that is choose for a particular url. So in the IIS logs have /api/person/{personid}/address/{addressid} in a column in addition to the cs-uristem /api/person/1555/address/5555

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  • How can I get an e-mail address out of a string of key=value pairs?

    - by noob
    How can I get some part of string that I need? accountid=xxxxxx type=prem servertime=1256876305 addtime=1185548735 validuntil=1265012019 username=noob directstart=1 protectfiles=0 rsantihack=1 plustrafficmode=1 mirrors= jsconfig=1 [email protected] lots=0 fpoints=6076 ppoints=149 curfiles=38 curspace=3100655714 bodkb=60000000 premkbleft=25000000 ppointrate=116 I want data after email= but up to live.com.?

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  • Hierarchy inheritance

    - by reito
    I had faced the problem. In my C++ hierarchy tree I have two branches for entities of difference nature, but same behavior - same interface. I created such hierarchy trees (first in image below). And now I want to work with Item or Base classes independetly of their nature (first or second). Then I create one abstract branch for this use. My mind build (second in image below). But it not working. Working scheme seems (third in image below). It's bad logic, I think... Do anybody have some ideas about such hierarchy inheritance? How make it more logical? More simple for understanding? Image Sorry for my english - russian internet didn't help:) Update: You ask me to be more explicit, and I will be. In my project (plugins for Adobe Framemaker) I need to work with dialogs and GUI controls. In some places I working with WinAPI controls, and some other places with FDK (internal Framemaker) controls, but I want to work throw same interface. I can't use one base class and inherite others from it, because all needed controls - is a hierarchy tree (not one class). So I have one hierarchy tree for WinAPI controls, one for FDK and one abstract tree to use anyone control. For example, there is an Edit control (WinEdit and FdkEdit realization), a Button control (WinButton and FdkButton realization) and base entity - Control (WinControl and FdkControl realization). For now I can link my classes in realization trees (Win and Fdk) with inheritence between each of them (WinControl is base class for WinButton and WinEdit; FdkControl is base class for FdkButton and FdkEdit). And I can link to abstract classes (Control is base class for WinControl and FdkControl; Edit is base class for WinEdit and FdkEdit; Button is base class for WinButton and FdkButton). But I can't link my abstract tree - compiler swears. In fact I have two hierarchy trees, that I want to inherite from another one. Update: I have done this quest! :) I used the virtual inheritence and get such scheme (http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/7782/99614779.png). Abstract tree has only absolute abstract methods. All inheritence in abstract tree are virtual. Link from realization tree to abstract are virtual. On image shown only one realization tree for simplicity. Thanks for help!

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  • How to get address the object of an related entity with CoreData ?

    - by eemceebee
    Hi Ok, after I ran into a dead end modifieing an existing Apple example for CoreData, I started completely new creating my own project and that worked fine,..... until I tried to access a related entity. So here is what I did. I created 2 entities, where one is just the detail information of the other one, so there is a one-2-one relationship. Entity #1, Stocks: name value details -- relationship to Entity #2 Entity #2, StockDetails: bank published stock -- relationship to Entity #1 Now, I created the "Managed Object Class" for both of the Entities. Then I created a few lines to put some data into it NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self managedObjectContext]; Stocks *stockinfo= [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Stocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; stockinfo.name = @"Apple"; stockinfo.value = [NSNumber numberWithInt:200]; StockDetails *thestockdetails = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"StockDetails" inManagedObjectContext:context]; thestockdetails.bank = @"Bank of America"; thestockdetails.published = [NSDate date]; thestockdetails.stock = stocks_; stockinfo.details = thestockdetails ; NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { NSLog(@"A Problem occured, couldn't save: %@", [error localizedDescription]); } Just want to mention here, that I do not get an error with this. Next I put everything into a UITableViewController for a preview and another for a detail view. The preview just shows infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) and when selected it shows the detail view. Now here I also display the infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) but I want to show the Entity #2 (StockDetails) aswell. This is how I try to access the data : StockDetails *details_ = [stockinfo details]; And this gives me a EXC_BAD_ACCESS. So any idea what I am doing wrong here ? Thanks

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  • Javascript self contained sandbox events and client side stack

    - by amnon
    I'm in the process of moving a JSF heavy web application to a REST and mainly JS module application . I've watched "scalable javascript application architecture" by Nicholas Zakas on yui theater (excellent video) and implemented much of the talk with good success but i have some questions : I found the lecture a little confusing in regards to the relationship between modules and sandboxes , on one had to my understanding modules should not be effected by something happening outside of their sandbox and this is why they publish events via the sandbox (and not via the core as they do access the core for hiding base libary) but each module in the application gets a new sandbox ? , shouldn't the sandbox limit events to the modoules using it ? or should events be published cross page ? e.g. : if i have two editable tables but i want to contain each one in a different sandbox and it's events effect only the modules inside that sandbox something like messabe box per table which is a different module/widget how can i do that with sandbox per module , ofcourse i can prefix the events with the moduleid but that creates coupling that i want to avoid ... and i don't want to package modules toghter as one module per combination as i already have 6-7 modules ? while i can hide the base library for small things like id selector etc.. i would still like to use the base library for module dependencies and resource loading and use something like yui loader or dojo.require so in fact i'm hiding the base library but the modules themself are defined and loaded by the base library ... seems a little strange to me libraries don't return simple js objects but usualy wrap them e.g. : u can do something like $$('.classname').each(.. which cleans the code alot , it makes no sense to wrap the base and then in the module create a dependency for the base library by executing .each but not using those features makes a lot of code written which can be left out ... and implemnting that functionality is very bug prone does anyonen have any experience with building a front side stack of this order ? how easy is it to change a base library and/or have modules from different libraries , using yui datatable but doing form validation with dojo ... ? some what of a combination of 2+4 if u choose to do something like i said and load dojo form validation widgets for inputs via yui loader would that mean dojocore is a module and the form module is dependant on it ? Thanks .

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  • Calling methods in super class constructor of subclass constructor?

    - by deamon
    Calling methods in super class constructor of subclass constructor? Passing configuration to the __init__ method which calls register implicitely: class Base: def __init__(self, *verbs=("get", "post")): self._register(verbs) def _register(self, *verbs): pass class Sub(Base): def __init__(self): super().__init__("get", "post", "put") Or calling register explicitely in the subclass' __init__ method: class Base: def __init__(self): self._register("get", "post") def _register(self, *verbs): pass class Sub(Base): def __init__(self): _register("get", "post", "put") What is better or more pythonic? Or is it only a matter of taste?

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  • How to troubleshoot Linksys E4200 Remote Management

    - by Jordan
    My Linksys E4200 is configured for Remote Management, but the router is not accepting the connections. Here's the configuration under Administration Management Remote Management Access: Remote Management: Enabled Access via: HTTP Remote Upgrade: Disabled Allowed Remote IP Address: Any IP Address Remote Management Port: 8080 The router is setup to use 192.168.10.41 as its static Internet IP address, and 192.168.35.1 as its LAN IP address. I can access the router just fine via its LAN IP address, but I can't make a connection using http://192.168.10.41:8080. I've tried variations of the settings above (enabled HTTPS, enabled Remote Upgrade, set an IP range of 192.168.10.1-254) but nothing has worked yet. Hoping someone can at least point me in the right direction. Thanks. Update: To clarify, I have a wired router that connects straight to the T1 modem. It's configured to use 192.168.10.1-254 as its internal LAN range. The E4200 wireless router in question is on that LAN using 192.168.10.41 as its WAN IP address. The E4200's internal LAN range is 192.168.35.1-254. I'm not trying to access the E4200 from the Internet, I'm just trying to access it from its WAN IP address. Thanks.

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  • How faster is using an internal IP address instead of an external one?

    - by user349603
    I have a mailing list application that sends emails through several dedicated SMTP servers (running Linux Debian 5 and Postfix) in the same network of a hosting company. However, the application is using the servers' external IP addresses in order to connect to them over SMTP, and I was wondering what kind of improvement would be obtained if the application used the internal IP addresses of the servers instead? Thank you in advance for your insight.

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  • How can I inherit an ASP.NET MVC controller and change only the view?

    - by AlexWalker
    I have a controller that's inheriting from a base controller, and I'm wondering how I can utilize all of the logic from the base controller, but return a different view than the base controller uses. The base controller populates a model object and passes that model object to its view, but I'm not sure how I can access that model object in the child controller so that I can pass it to the child controller's view.

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  • Question about [literally] mapping location based on an IP address.

    - by Andrew
    I've been bored lately and I want to start a new project. I was looking at a website mentioned in a different question (http://www.grapevinegame.com/), and I thought the map and how it plots a point based on someone's IP (I assume) is pretty nifty. I want to do something like that, but I have no idea how it's done. I know you can get latitude and longitude, city and state, and some more with some already-written scripts, but how would you plot those on a map of the world? I've seen it other places, like Google Analytics and such, as well. It seems like a neat thing to be able to do, so I was just wondering how exactly it works. :-p.

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  • Question about CALL statement

    - by Bruce
    I have the following code in VC++ Func5(){ StackWalk(); } Func4{ Func5();} I am a Beginner in x86 Assembly Language. I am trying to find out the starting address of Func5(). I get the Func5()'s return address from its stack frame. Now before this return address there should be a CALL statement. So I extract out the bytes before the return address. Sometimes it's a near call like E8 ff ff ff d8. So for this statement I subtract the offset 0x28 from the function's return address to get Func5()'s base address (where it resides in memory). The problem is I don't know how to calculate this for a indirect NEAR call. I have been trying to find out how to do it for some time now. So I have extracted out the first 5 bytes before the return address and they are ff 75 08 ff d2 I think this stands for CALL ECX (ff d2) but I am not sure. I will be very grateful if someone can tell me what kind of CALL statement this is and how I can calculate the function's base address from this kind of call.

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  • Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

    - by Andy
    I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

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