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  • Tearing my hair out - ASP.Net AJAX AutoComplete not working

    - by Dave
    Hope someone can help with this. I've been up and down the web and through this site looking for an answer, but still can't get the Autocomplete AJAX control to work. I've gone from trying to include it in an existing site to stripping it right back to a very basic form and it's still not functioning. I'm having a little more luck using Page Methods rather than a local webservice, so here is my code <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="droptest.aspx.cs" Inherits="droptest" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePageMethods="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" runat="server" MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="getResults" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </form> </body> </html> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Web.Services; public partial class droptest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public string[] getResults(string prefixText, int count) { string[] test = new string[5] { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five" }; return test; } } Tried to keep things as simple as possible, but all I get is either the autocomplete dropdown with the source of the page (starting with the <! doctype...) letter by letter, or in IE7 it just says "UNDEFINED" all the way down the list. I'm using Visual Web Developer 2008 at the moment, this is running on Localhost. I think I've exhausted all the "Try this..." options I can find, everything from adding in [ScriptMethod] to changing things in Web.Config. Is there anything obviously wrong with this code? Only other thing that may be having an effect is in Global.asax I do a Context.RewritePath to rewrite URLs - does this have any effect on AJAX? Thanks for any help you can give.

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  • Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • NullPointerException when trying to connect to web service using kSoap method Android

    - by benjamin schultz
    My web service should be returning an integer, but every time i run the code i get the NullPointerException error. Any ideas or help would be very appreciated Here's my code: public class CGCountTest extends Activity { TextView testTV; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://passport-america.com/webservices/"; private static final String URL = "http://localhost:11746/Service1.asmx"; private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://www.passport-america.com/webservices/getCGCount"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "getCGCount"; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.soap_test); SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.dotNet = true; envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); try { androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); java.lang.Integer result = (Integer)envelope.getResponse(); TextView testTV = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.testTV); result.toString(); testTV.setText(result); } catch(Exception e) { testTV.setText(e.getMessage()); } } here's the logcat 06-02 15:13:36.557: WARN/dalvikvm(326): threadid=3: thread exiting with uncaught exception (group=0x4001aa28) 06-02 15:13:36.557: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{com.pa.passammain/com.pa.passammain.CGCountTest}: java.lang.NullPointerException 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2401) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2417) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2100(ActivityThread.java:116) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1794) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4203) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:791) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:549) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at com.pa.passammain.CGCountTest.onCreate(CGCountTest.java:46) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1123) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2364) 06-02 15:13:36.876: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(326): ... 11 more i think my url string may be the problem, but i've tried using my ip with no luck

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  • markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); }); --> </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#SubmitPost").click(function(){ data = markItUp.textarea.value; $.post("scripturl",{ key1: "value1", key2: "value2", text: data }); }); }); --> </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#postpreview").submit(function(){ var data = $("#markItUp").html(); $.post("live",{ func: "posting", text: data }); return false; }); }); --> </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

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  • OSGI classcast exception on felix

    - by Nico
    Hi, i'm fairly new to osgi and am trying to get a functional proof of concept together. The setup is that my common api is created in a bundle creatively named common-api.jar with no bundle activator, but it exports all it's interfaces. the one of interest in this situation is DatabaseService.java. I then have a Second bundle called systemx-database-service. That implements the database service interface. this works fine as in the activator of the implementation bundle i test the connection to the database and select some arbitraty values. I also register the service i want to be available to the other bundle's like so: context.registerService(DatabaseService.class.getName(), new SystemDatabaseServiceImpl(context), new Properties()); The basic idea being when you look for a service reference for a Database service you'll get back the SystemDatabaseService implementation. When i do a inspect service the output it this: -> inspect s c 69 System Database Service (69) provides services: ---------------------------------------------- objectClass = za.co.xxx.xxx.common.api.DatabaseService service.id = 39 which would lead me to believe that if i do this in a test bundle: context.getService(context.getServiceReference(DatabaseService.class)); i should get back an instance of DatabaseService.class, but alas no such luck. it simply seems like it cannot find the service. stick with me here my story gets stranger. figuring there is no where to go but up i wrote this monstrosity: for (Bundle bundle : bundles) { if (bundle.getSymbolicName().equals("za.co.xxx.xxx.database-service")) { ServiceReference[] registeredServices = bundle.getRegisteredServices(); for (ServiceReference ref : registeredServices) { DatabaseService service = (DatabaseService) context.getService(ref); // use service here. } } } } now i can actually see the service reference, but i get this error java.lang.ClassCastException: za.co.xxx.xxx.database.service.impl.SystemDatabaseServiceImpl cannot be cast to za.co.xxx.xx.common.api.DatabaseService which is crazy since the implementation clearly implements the interface! Any help would be appreciated. Please keep in mind i'm very new at the osgi way of thinking so my whole approach here might be flawed. oh. if anyone wants the manifests i can post them. and i'm using the maven-bnd-plugin to build and executing on felix. thanks Nico

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  • Spring, Jersey and Viewable JSP Integration

    - by Brian D.
    I'm trying to integrate Spring 3.0.5 with Jersey 1.4. I seem to have everything working, but whenever I try and return a Viewable that points to a JSP, I get a 404 error. When I wasn't using spring I could use this filter: <filter> <filter-name>Jersey Filter</filter-name> <filter-class>com.sun.jersey.spi.container.servlet.ServletContainer</filter-class> <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.config.feature.Redirect</param-name> <param-value>true</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.config.property.packages</param-name> <param-value>cheetah.frontend.controllers</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.config.feature.FilterForwardOn404</param-name> <param-value>true</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.config.property.WebPageContentRegex</param-name> <param-value>/(images|css|jsp)/.*</param-value> </init-param> </filter> And I could return a Viewable to any JSP's, image, css that were stored in the appropriate folder. However, now that I have to use the SpringServlet to get spring integration, I'm at a loss for how to access resources, since I can't use the filter above. I've tried using this servlet mapping with no luck: <servlet> <servlet-name>jerseyspring</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.jersey.spi.spring.container.servlet.SpringServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> <init-param> <param-name>com.sun.jersey.config.property.WebPageContentRegex</param-name> <param-value>/(images|css|jsp)/.*</param-value> </init-param> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jerseyspring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Does anyone know the proper configurations to achieve this? Thanks for any help.

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  • Can MFMailComposeViewController attach an XML doc to an HTML message?

    - by Luther Baker
    I am creating an email in MFMaiilComposeViewController and if I simply create some html snippets and assign them to the message body - all is well. The resulting email (in GMail and Yahoo) looks like the original HTML I sent. [mailMan_ setMessageBody:body isHTML:YES]; On the other hand, if I also include an XML attachment, my email reader renders everything as plain text … including, the XML inlined. IE: my mail client (GMail, Yahoo) shows the raw HTHML and XML tags - including html tags that I didn't supply - ie: the html, head, body tags the iPhone provides around the content: NSData *opmlData = [[NSData alloc] initWithData:[opml dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSString *fileName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f.opml", [NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate]]; [mailMan_ addAttachmentData:opmlData mimeType:@"text/xml" fileName:fileName]; I pop3'd the mails to see what was happening and found that WITHOUT an attachment, the resulting html section of the email contains this block: --0-1682099714-1273329398=:59784 Content-Type: text/html; charset=us-ascii <html><body bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><div><h2 style="b while on the other hand, WITH the XML attachment, the iPhone is sending this: --0-881105825-1273328091=:50337 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii <html><body bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><div><h2 style="bac Notice the difference? Look at the Content-Type … text/html vs text/plain. It looks like when I include an XML attachment, the iPhone is errantly tagging the HTML version of the body as plain text! Just to clarify, technically, both with and without the attachment, the iPhone also includes this: --0-881105825-1273328091=:50337 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Notebook Carpentry Bathroom floor tile Bathroom wall tile Scrape thinset But this obviously isn't where the problem lies. Am I doing something wrong? What must I do to actually "attach" XML without the iPhone labeling the entire HTML body as plain text. I tried reversing the assignments (attachment first and then body) but no luck. For what it's worth, the email looks perfect from the iPhone's sending interface. Indeed, the HTML renders correctly and the attachment looks like a little icon at the bottom of the message. This problem has more to do with what the iPhone is actually sending.

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  • Crystal reports .net visual studio 2008 bundled edition

    - by DeveloperChris
    I have a serious issue with crystal reports. when run in my development environment or debugged on my local machine it works fine. but when the application is published to a windows server 2003 it has the dreaded "The report you requested requires further information" Message I have had no luck trying to get rid of this message Anybody know what I can try? DC Here is a bunch more info. I use a placeholder in the aspx page and then set the user/password and database in the codebehind I could not get it to work with a dataset and found that I had to assign odbc connection in the cr designer. and then in the code behind change the above details as required. This is done because the same report can get the data from 3 different databases (live development and training) protected override void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { base.Page_Load(sender, e); CrystalReportSource1.ReportDocument.Load(Server.MapPath(@"~/Reports/Report5asp.rpt")); CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = ConfigureCrystalReports(CrystalReportSource1.ReportDocument,CrystalReportViewer1); // parameters CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo.Clear(); AddParameter("DIid", _app.Data["DIid"], CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo); AddParameter("EEid", _app.Data["EEid"], CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo); AddParameter("CTid", _app.Data["CTid"], CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo); } public ReportDocument ConfigureCrystalReports(ReportDocument report, CrystalReportViewer viewer) { String _connectionString = _app.ConnectionString(); String dsn = _app.DSN(); SqlConnectionStringBuilder SConn = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(_connectionString); TableLogOnInfos crtableLogoninfos = new TableLogOnInfos(); TableLogOnInfo crtableLogoninfo = new TableLogOnInfo(); ConnectionInfo crConnectionInfo = new ConnectionInfo(); crConnectionInfo.ServerName = dsn;// SConn.DataSource; crConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog; crConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID; crConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password; crConnectionInfo.Type = ConnectionInfoType.SQL; crConnectionInfo.IntegratedSecurity = false; foreach (CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.Table CrTable in report.Database.Tables) { crtableLogoninfo = CrTable.LogOnInfo; crtableLogoninfo.ConnectionInfo = crConnectionInfo; CrTable.ApplyLogOnInfo(crtableLogoninfo); } return report; } As stated this works fine on my XP machine used for development when deployed on winserver 2003 I get the error DC Some interesting additional information I moved the development to my home machine so I could work on the problem this weekend. So now I am developing debugging and testing on the same machine! In VS2008 I can edit and preview the reports with no problems If I fire up the debugger I can view the reports in the browser with no problems But if I publish the website to another folder on the same machine and fire up IIS and try to browse to a report I get the aforementioned error. All else works as expected. IIS runs under different permissions than VS2008 so perhaps its something to do with that, but I have tried lots of different permissions and cannot get it to run. DC

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  • "ResolveAssemblyReference" task fails and System.BadImageFormatException, but assembly isn't used an

    - by bdwakefield
    I am getting an error about the assembly "C:\Ora10g\bin\Zip.exe". The trouble is this solution does NOT use anything in Oracle at all. I could not find a single reference to 10g anywhere in the project. I inherited this from another person who left our group. He never had this issue. Another member of my team said he got this before but reinstalling the client portion of 10g fixed it. No such luck there. I even tried using WinGrep to search the entire solution folder for "Ora10g" but it wasn't there. Any ideas? I can't build this solution until I can figure out how to get rid of this false reference to Oracle. VS 2005 solution. Contains a couple WinForm apps, a couple class libraries, and a web service. The error occurs in the main class library project. Here is the error message: Error 1 The "ResolveAssemblyReference" task failed unexpectedly. System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'C:\Ora10g\bin\Zip.exe' or one of its dependencies. The module was expected to contain an assembly manifest. File name: 'C:\Ora10g\bin\Zip.exe' at System.Reflection.AssemblyName.nGetFileInformation(String s) at System.Reflection.AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(String assemblyFile) at Microsoft.Build.Shared.AssemblyNameExtension.GetAssemblyNameEx(String path) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.SystemState.GetAssemblyName(String path) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.Resolver.FileMatchesAssemblyName(AssemblyNameExtension assemblyName, Boolean isPrimaryProjectReference, Boolean wantSpecificVersion, Boolean allowMismatchBetweenFusionNameAndFileName, String pathToCandidateAssembly, ResolutionSearchLocation searchLocation) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.Resolver.ResolveAsFile(String fullPath, AssemblyNameExtension assemblyName, Boolean isPrimaryProjectReference, Boolean wantSpecificVersion, Boolean allowMismatchBetweenFusionNameAndFileName, ArrayList assembliesConsideredAndRejected) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.Resolver.ResolveFromDirectory(AssemblyNameExtension assemblyName, Boolean isPrimaryProjectReference, Boolean wantSpecificVersion, String[] executableExtensions, String directory, ArrayList assembliesConsideredAndRejected) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.AssemblyFoldersResolver.Resolve(AssemblyNameExtension assemblyName, String rawFileNameCandidate, Boolean isPrimaryProjectReference, Boolean wantSpecificVersion, String[] executableExtensions, String hintPath, String assemblyFolderKey, ArrayList assembliesConsideredAndRejected, String& foundPath, Boolean& userRequestedSpecificFile) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.AssemblyResolution.ResolveReference(IEnumerable`1 jaggedResolvers, AssemblyNameExtension assemblyName, String rawFileNameCandidate, Boolean isPrimaryProjectReference, Boolean wantSpecificVersion, String[] executableExtensions, String hintPath, String assemblyFolderKey, ArrayList assembliesConsideredAndRejected, String& resolvedSearchPath, Boolean& userRequestedSpecificFile) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.ReferenceTable.ResolveReference(AssemblyNameExtension assemblyName, String rawFileNameCandidate, Reference reference) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.ReferenceTable.ResolveAssemblyFilenames() at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.ReferenceTable.ComputeClosure() at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.ReferenceTable.ComputeClosure(DependentAssembly[] remappedAssembliesValue, ITaskItem[] referenceAssemblyFiles, ITaskItem[] referenceAssemblyNames, ArrayList exceptions) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.ResolveAssemblyReference.Execute(FileExists fileExists, DirectoryExists directoryExists, GetDirectories getDirectories, GetAssemblyName getAssemblyName, GetAssemblyMetadata getAssemblyMetadata, GetRegistrySubKeyNames getRegistrySubKeyNames, GetRegistrySubKeyDefaultValue getRegistrySubKeyDefaultValue, GetLastWriteTime getLastWriteTime) at Microsoft.Build.Tasks.ResolveAssemblyReference.Execute() at Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.TaskEngine.ExecuteTask(ExecutionMode howToExecuteTask, Hashtable projectItemsAvailableToTask, BuildPropertyGroup projectPropertiesAvailableToTask, Boolean& taskClassWasFound) WRN: Assembly binding logging is turned OFF. To enable assembly bind failure logging, set the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog] (DWORD) to 1. Note: There is some performance penalty associated with assembly bind failure logging. To turn this feature off, remove the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog].

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  • Convert List of one type to Array of another type using Dozer

    - by aheu
    I'm wondering how to convert a List of one type to an array of another type in Java using Dozer. The two types have all the same property names/types. For example, consider these two classes. public class A{ private String test = null; public String getTest(){ return this.test } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } public class B{ private String test = null; public String getTest(){ return this.test } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } I've tried this with no luck. List<A> listOfA = getListofAObjects(); Mapper mapper = DozerBeanMapperSingletonWrapper.getInstance(); B[] bs = mapper.map(listOfA, B[].class); I've also tried using the CollectionUtils class. CollectionUtils.convertListToArray(listOfA, B.class) Neither are working for me, can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? The mapper.map function works fine if I create two wrapper classes, one containing a List and the other a b[]. See below: public class C{ private List<A> items = null; public List<A> getItems(){ return this.items; } public void setItems(List<A> items){ this.items = items; } } public class D{ private B[] items = null; public B[] getItems(){ return this.items; } public void setItems(B[] items){ this.items = items; } } This works oddly enough... List<A> listOfA = getListofAObjects(); C c = new C(); c.setItems(listOfA); Mapper mapper = DozerBeanMapperSingletonWrapper.getInstance(); D d = mapper.map(listOfA, D.class); B[] bs = d.getItems(); How do I do what I want to do without using the wrapper classes (C & D)? There has got to be an easier way... Thanks!

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  • R Install/Update on Mac OS X (Snow Leopard): where does R put files during install/config?

    - by doug
    In sum, there's a stray preference-like file or two (probably just one) that i can't find. Here's the whole story: I recently attempted to update my R install from 2.10 to 2.11. As i have done before, i installed from source. I know that all of the dependencies are correctly installed and made available to R, because my prior install worked fine. When i upgraded to 2.11, i am unable to install packages (no exception thrown, it just doesn't appear to complete the install and is unresponsive so i have to quit + restart R. Given i install from source, there are any number of points in the process that i could have messed up. What i need to do now is "start over" which requires that i clear out my my prior install. I am having trouble doing that. There is still at least one preference file or something like that i can't find and one of these is causing the problem, so i need to find it and terminate it with extreme prejudice before i do a fresh install. Although i set a number of flags during the install, i have never opted out of the default install locations during the config step. There has to be one or more preference files still in my file structure (and that's also accessible to the new install of R) because after i follow all of the steps below, then do a fresh install, when i start R for the first time, some of my preferences have persisted (e.g., quartz settings, GUI background color, editor selection, etc.). Again, the problem is that i just cannot locate those files. Finally, the problem can't be that during my last install from source, i inadvertently caused a preference file to be sent to an off-spec location--because again, a fresh R install (whether from source or from the OS X binaries) is finding those files Here's what i've done prior to attempting a clean install of R: Removed files from these locations: ~/.RData ~/.RHistory /Applications/R64.app /Applications/R.app /Library/Frameworks/R.framework (i also removed all symlinks from these) Cleared all RAM and disk caches, in particular the directory where i know R caches: ~/Library/Caches/R* (in fact i've cleared this entire directory) Checked for all 'hidden' files in the OS X directories where login/startup files are often placed: /etc/ ~/ In addition, i've checked R-help, and i've also read through the relevant portions of 'R Installation and Administration'--no luck. I've also searched searched my file structure using the various bash utilities, which nearly always solves problems of this sort quite easily, but in this case obviously searching by name or even pattern is more problematic.

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  • Volunteer for a potential employer?

    - by EoRaptor013
    I've been looking for work since March, and haven't had much luck. Recently, however, I interviewed with a small company near my home for a C#, .NET, SQL development position. I hit it off very well with the hiring manager during the phone screen, and even more so during the face to face. Unfortunately, I failed the practical test: wiring up a web form, creating a couple of SQL stored procedures, saving new data with validation, and creating a minimal search screen. I knew what I was doing, but I was too slow to meet their standards as all the work needed to be done within an hour. Nevertheless, I really liked the place, the environment, the people who I would have been working with, and the boss. (I gave the company an 11 on Joel's 12 point scale.) So, the obvious next step was to scrape the rust off. I've been trying to create little projects for myself, but I don't know that I've been effective in getting any faster. What with all that goes into creating a project, I'm not heads-down coding as much as I think I need. Now, with all that introduction, here's the question. I have been thinking about calling the hiring manager at that place, and asking him to let me volunteer for three or four weeks, with no strings attached. I think it would benefit me, and wouldn't cost him anything (as long as I didn't slow the existing people down!). At the end of that period, he might, or might not, be inclined to hire me, but even if not, I would have had as much as 160 hours of in the trenches development. Maybe not all shiny, but no more rust, I would think. Does this plan make any sense at all? I certainly don't want to sound desperate (although, I'm not far from being there), and I very much need the tuneup, lube, and change the oil. What's the downside, if any, to me doing this? Do any of you see red flags going up—either from the prerspective of the hiring manager, or from the perspective of a developer?

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  • How to fine tune a Membership Provider?

    - by Venemo
    After all the answers to my last question about fine-tuning turned out to be more useful than I expected, I thought that I would ask another similar Question about the MembershipProviders as well. Okay, so firstly, to clarify: I know what a Membership, Role, and Profile provider is, how to implement my own, and how to configure them, and most of the things about them. Implementing a role and profile provider is pretty straightforward, because they only require simple CRUD most of the time. (A single line of LINQ is enough for about half of the RoleProvider's methods.) However, the Membership provider is a differend beast. Many of you may realize that it violates the SR (Single Responsibility) principle, because it has to do EVERYTHING related to user management. While this leaves a lot of room for customizations, it has its downsides as well. There is no information on the Internet about what their EXACT expected behaviour is, such as when should they throw exceptions or simply return null, and stuff like that. I use this sample implementation for reference, but it also contains several contradictions. For example, it uses its own ValidateUser method for checking for credentials in the ChangePassword method. But the ValidateUser also updates the user's LastLoginDate to the current date. So, does the framework expect that I set it in my own provider as well, or is it simply a mistake in the sample? The other is: the ChangePassword method throws an exception every time when validating the new password, but CreateUser doesn't ever throw an exception, it simply returns false. And last, but not least: it counts the invalid password attempts of the user and locks them if it passes a threshold. While this is good, but it requires manual action to unlock the users. Is it a problem if my provider automatically unlocks the user after a certain amount of time? (EDIT) I almost forgot: the CreateUser method in the sample inserts the ID from the method parameter. I actually think this is bad practice, because I use inters with auto incement as IDs, so inserting them from some method parameter is not an option. Should I just ignore the parameter, or require that its value is null and throw an exception if it isn't? All in all, does ASP.NET have any assumptions about the behaviour of a MembershipProvider? Is there any documentation which describes when should I throw an exception or just return null? I also tried to find a set of generic unit tests which would provide some guidance about the expected behaviour, but no luck, I found plenty of articles about "Unit testing is good", and "How to unit test a MembershipProvider", but not one where there would be any actual tests. Thanks in advance for everyone!

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  • Hosting a WCF Service Lib through a Windows service get a System.InvalidOperationException: attempti

    - by JohnL
    I have a WCF Service Library containing five service contracts. The library is hosted through a Windows Service. Most if not all my configuration for the WCF Library is declaritive. The only thing I am doing in code for configuration is to pass the type of the class implementing the service contracts into ServiceHost. I then call Open on each of the services during the Windows Service OnStart event. Here is the error message I get: Service cannot be started. System.InvalidOperationException: Service '[Fubu.Conversion.Service1' has zero application (non-infrastructure) endpoints. This might be because no configuration file was found for your application, or because no service element matching the service name could be found in the configuration file, or because no endpoints were defined in the service element. at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.EnsureThereAreNonMexEndpoints(ServiceDescription description) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(ServiceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open() at Fubu.RemotingHost.RemotingHost.StartServ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { // Uncomment to debug this properly //System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break(); StartService1(); StartService2(); StartService3(); StartService4(); StartService5(); } Each of the above simply do the following: private void StartSecurityService() { host = new ServiceHost(typeof(Service1)); host.Open(); } Service Lib app.congfig summary <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="Fubu.Conversion.Service1"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TCPBindingConfig" name="Service1" bindingName="TCPEndPoint" contract="Fubu.Conversion.IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="" name="mexSecurity" bindingName="TcpMetaData" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8025/Fubu/Conversion/Service1/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> ... Contract is set up as follows: namespace Fubu.Conversion.Service1 { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "net.tcp://localhost:8025/Fubu")] public interface IService1 { I have looked "high and low" for a solution without any luck. Is the answer obvious? The solution to this does not appear to be. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET Web Service - how to handle special characters in strings?

    - by Vlorg
    To show this fundamental issue in .NET and the reason for this question, I have written a simple test web service with one method (EditString), and a consumer console app that calls it. They are both standard web service/console applications created via File/New Project, etc., so I won't list the whole code - just the methods in question: Web method: [WebMethod] public string EditString(string s, bool useSpecial) { return s + (useSpecial ? ((char)19).ToString() : ""); } [You can see it simply returns the string s if useSpecial is false. If useSpecial is true, it returns s + char 19.] Console app: TestService.Service1 service = new SCTestConsumer.TestService.Service1(); string response1 = service.EditString("hello", false); Console.WriteLine(response1); string response2 = service.EditString("hello", true); // fails! Console.WriteLine(response2); [The second response fails, because the method returns hello + a special character (ascii code 19 for argument's sake).] The error is: There is an error in XML document (1, 287) Inner exception: "'', hexadecimal value 0x13, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 287." A few points worth mentioning: The web method itself WORKS FINE when browsing directly to the ASMX file (e.g. http://localhost:2065/service1.asmx), and running the method through this (with the same parameters as in the console application) - i.e. displays XML with the string hello + char 19. Checking the serialized XML in other ways shows the special character is being encoded properly (the SERVER SIDE seems to be ok which is GOOD) So it seems the CLIENT SIDE has the issue - i.e. the .NET generated proxy class code doesn't handle special characters This is part of a bigger project where objects are passed in and out of the web methods - that contain string attributes - these are what need to work properly. i.e. we're de/serializing classes. Any suggestions for a workaround and how to implement it? Or have I completely missed something really obvious!!? Thanks in advance... PS. I've not had much luck with getting it to use CDATA tags (does .NET support these out of the box?).

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  • jQuery jScrollPane - it simply won't work! :'(

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hey folks, OK - I'll admit, I'm quite a beginner in this jQuery-department. I've probably made some amateur mistake, but hey, you gotta learn somewhere! :) So I'm using jScrollPane: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/jScrollPane/jScrollPane.html I want to use it style the scrollable area in my second column. Specifically, I would like to apply and format the scrollbars on the div #ajaxresults My page is... rather jQuery heavy. I don't know if any variables are conflicting or something... in fact I really have no idea at all why this isn't working. Take a look at my problematic page: http://furnace.howcode.com In the header, I've set this to go: <!-- Includes for jScrollPane --> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jquery.mousewheel.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jScrollPane.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="http://localhost:8888/stylesheets/jScrollPane.css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#ajaxresults').jScrollPane(); }); </script> (I've changed localhost on the server copy though) Nothing ever seems to work with the #ajaxresults div. I've set, as the jScrollPane docs say, overflow:auto on it but still no luck. I find that when jScrollPane DOES seem to 'run' it just moves the div down about 100 pixels. Try it for yourself. Perhaps someone could help? There's quite a few jQuery plugins there so I don't know if something's colliding/crashing etc... Please note the site is still in development between myself and a friend, which explains the personal messages we submit to each other ('Hi Donnie!' etc. :D ). Also, when you view the page nothing may appear in the second column for a few seconds - it's just fetching the data via Ajax. So give it a little time. Thanks very much! Jack

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  • WCF (REST) multiple host headers with one endpoint

    - by Maan
    I have an issue with a WCF REST service (.NET 4) which has multiple host headers, but one end point. The host headers are for example: xxx.yyy.net xxx.yyy.com Both host headers are configured in IIS over HTTPS and redirect to the same WCF service endpoint. I have an Error Handling behavior which logs some extra information in case of an error. The problem is that the logging behavior only works for one of both URLs. When I first call the .net URL, the logging is only working for requests on the .net URL. When I first call the .com URL (after a Worker Process recycle), it’s only working on requests on the .com URL. The configuration looks like this: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <services> <service name="XXX.RemoteHostService"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="RemoteHostEndPointBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="HTTPSTransport" contract="XXX.IRemoteHostService" /> </service> </services> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="errorHandling" type="XXX.ErrorHandling.ErrorHandlerBehavior, XXX.Services, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="HTTPSTransport"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="RemoteHostEndPointBehavior"> <webHttp /> <errorHandling /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> …. Should I configure multiple endpoints? Or in which way could I configure the WCF Service so the logging behavior is working for both URLs? I tried several things, also solutions mentioned earlier on StackOverflow. But no luck until now...

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  • Maven 2 assembly with dependencies: jar under scope "system" not included.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello, I am using maven-assembly plugin to create a jar of my application, including its dependencies as follows: <assembly> <id>macosx</id> <formats> <format>tar.gz</format> <format>dir</format> </formats> <dependencySets> <dependencySet> <includes> <include>*:jar</include> </includes> <outputDirectory>lib</outputDirectory> </dependencySet> </dependencySets> </assembly> (I omitted some other stuff that is not related to the question) So far this has worked fine because it creates a lib directory with all dependencies. However, I recently added a new dependency whose scope is system, and it does not copy it to the lib output directory. i must be missing something basic here, so I call for help. The dependency that I just added is: <dependency> <groupId>sourceforge.jchart2d</groupId> <artifactId>jchart2d</artifactId> <version>3.1.0</version> <scope>system</scope> <systemPath>${project.basedir}/external/jchart2d-3.1.0.jar</systemPath> </dependency> The only way I was able to include this dependency was by adding the following to the assembly element: <files> <file> <source>external/jchart2d-3.1.0.jar</source> <outputDirectory>lib</outputDirectory> </file> </files> However, this forces me to change the pom and the assembly file whenever this jar is renamed, if ever. Also, it seems just wrong. I have tried with <scope>runtime</scope> in the dependencySets and <include>sourceforge.jchart2d:jchart2d</include> with no luck. So how do you include a system scoped jar to your assembly file in maven 2? Thanks a lot

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  • How do I get ELMAH to work with SQL Server (permission problems)

    - by Gary McGill
    I've got ELMAH working on my (Cassini) development server, and was quite happy with it, but now that I'm trying to move everything to my production server (IIS7), the honeymoon looks like being over. I've got past the "gotcha" with IIS7, which frankly could have been better highlighted in the documentation, and if I just use the in-memory log then it works. However, I'm trying to get it to use the SQL Server log (as I do on my development system), and I'm getting an error along the lines of: The EXECUTE permission was denied on the object ELMAH_GetErrorsXml Well, fine. I know how to grant database permissions, but I'm really struggling to understand which user and which stored procs/tables I need to grant access to. The thing that's really confusing me is that I didn't have to do anything like this to get it to work on my development server. The only difference I can see is that on my development server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\IUSR, whereas on my production server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE. (It's just using a trusted connection so I've not explicitly configured it to do that - I presume it's to do with the web server). UPDATE: I've since established that because I'm using Cassini, it was actually logging in as me (an admin) and not IUSR, which explains why I didn't get any permission problems. On my development server, the IUSR account is a member of the public database role, and has access to the required database (again as "public"). There's no explicit granting of object-level permissions. [See update above - this is irrelevant]. On my production server, I've added NETWORK SERVICE in exactly the same way (public database role, explicit access to the database as "public"). Yet, I get this permission error. Why?!! [See update above - the only reason I don't get a permission error is because I'm running as an admin]. And, of course, if the fact that it works locally is just "luck", I will need to know which SPs/tables to grant access to. My guess would be all 3 SPs and not the table, but it would be good (again) to see some documentation that makes this explicit.

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  • Problems using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .NET4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with VS2010 .Net3.5 using Nhibernate with FluentNHibernate + SQLite, and all works fine. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When setting up the connection a FluentConfigurationException is thrown from FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration saying: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more details. The inner exception gives us more information: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4. It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This is exactly the same code that worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • How do you increase the number of processes in parallel with Powershell 3?

    - by Mark Shay
    I am trying to run 20 processes in parallel. I changed the session as below, but having no luck. I am getting only up to 5 parallel processes per session. $wo=New-PSWorkflowExecutionOption -MaxSessionsPerWorkflow 50 -MaxDisconnectedSessions 200 -MaxSessionsPerRemoteNode 50 -MaxActivityProcesses 50 Register-PSSessionConfiguration -Name ITWorkflows -SessionTypeOption $wo -Force Get-PSSessionConfiguration ITWorkflows | Format-List -Property * Is there a switch parameter to increase the number of processes? This is what I am running: Workflow MyWorkflow1 { Parallel { InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 2 and 2975416"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 2975417 and 5950831"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 5950832 and 8926246"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 8926247 and 11901661"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 11901662 and 14877076"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns"where OrderId between 14877077 and 17852491"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 17852492 and 20827906"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 20827907 and 23803321"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 23803322 and 26778736"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 26778737 and 29754151"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 29754152 and 32729566"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 32729567 and 35704981"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 35704982 and 38680396"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 38680397 and 432472144"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 432472145 and 435447559"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 435447560 and 438422974"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 864944289 and 867919703"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 867919704 and 870895118"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 870895119 and 1291465602"} InlineScript { import-module \\PS_Scripts\bulkins.ps1; BulkIns "where OrderId between 1291465603 and 1717986945"} }

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  • Bring object to the front, in Flash AS3

    - by jimbo
    Hi All, i have the below code, which is basically animating object across the screen, when roll-over happens it pauses the anim, and displays some information. Everything works fine, but when its paused, i wold like that current object to be 'on top' so other items run behind. I have looked at setChildIndex, but didn't have much luck. package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.MouseEvent; import flash.geom.Point; import flash.events.KeyboardEvent; import flash.events.*; import caurina.transitions.Tweener; import fl.motion.Color; public class carpurchase extends Sprite { public function carpurchase() { var carX = 570; //Set cars var car1:fullCar = new fullCar(); car1.info.alpha = 0; //var c:Color = new Color(); //c.setTint(0xff0000, 0.8); //car2.car.transform.colorTransform=c; car1.x = carX; car1.y = 280; car1.info.title.text = "test"; car1.info.desc.text = "test"; addChild(car1); car1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, carPause); car1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, carContinue); function car1Reset():void { Tweener.addTween(car1, {x:carX, time:0, onComplete:car1Tween}); } function car1Tween():void { Tweener.addTween(car1, {x:-120, time:2, delay:3, transition:"linear", onComplete:car1Reset}); } car1Tween(); var car2:fullCar = new fullCar(); car2.info.alpha = 0; var c:Color = new Color(); c.setTint(0xff0000, 0.8); car2.car.transform.colorTransform=c; car1.x = carX; car2.y = 175; car2.info.title.text = "test"; car2.info.desc.text = "test"; addChild(car2); car2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, carPause); car2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, carContinue); function car2Reset():void { Tweener.addTween(car2, {x:carX, time:0, onComplete:car2Tween}); } function car2Tween():void { Tweener.addTween(car2, {x:-120, time:3, delay:0, transition:"linear", onComplete:car2Reset}); } car2Tween(); function carPause(e:MouseEvent):void { Tweener.pauseTweens(e.target); Tweener.addTween(e.target.info, {y:-150, alpha:1, time:.5, transition:"easeout"}); } function carContinue(e:MouseEvent):void { Tweener.addTween(e.target.info, {y:10, alpha:0, time:.5, transition:"easeout"}); Tweener.resumeTweens(e.target); } } } Any help welcome

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  • Dependency injection: Scoping by region (Guice, Spring, Whatever)

    - by Itay
    Here's a simplified version of my needs. I have a program where every B object has its own C and D object, injected through Guice. In addition an A object is injected into every C and D objects. What I want: that for each B object, its C and D objects will be injected with the same A object. Specifically, I want the output of the program (below) to be: Created C0 with [A0] Created D0 with [A0] Created B0 with [C0, D0] Created C1 with [A1] Created D1 with [A1] Created B1 with [C1, D1] Where it currently produces the following output: Created C0 with [A0] Created D0 with [A1] <-- Should be A0 Created B0 with [C0, D0] Created C1 with [A2] <-- Should be A1 Created D1 with [A3] <-- Should be A1 Created B1 with [C1, D1] I am expecting DI containers to allow this kind of customization but so far I had no luck in finding a solution. Below is my Guice-based code, but a Spring-based (or other DI containers-based) solution is welcome. import java.util.Arrays; import com.google.inject.*; public class Main { public static class Super { private static Map<Class<?>,Integer> map = new HashMap<Class<?>,Integer>(); private Integer value; public Super(Object... args) { value = map.get(getClass()); value = value == null ? 0 : ++value; map.put(getClass(), value); if(args.length > 0) System.out.println("Created " + this + " with " + Arrays.toString(args)); } @Override public final String toString() { return "" + getClass().getSimpleName().charAt(0) + value; } } public interface A { } public static class AImpl extends Super implements A { } public interface B { } public static class BImpl extends Super implements B { @Inject public BImpl(C c, D d) { super(c,d); } } public interface C { } public static class CImpl extends Super implements C { @Inject public CImpl(A a) { super(a); } } public interface D { } public static class DImpl extends Super implements D { @Inject public DImpl(A a) { super(a); } } public static class MyModule extends AbstractModule { @Override protected void configure() { bind(A.class).to(AImpl.class); bind(B.class).to(BImpl.class); bind(C.class).to(CImpl.class); bind(D.class).to(DImpl.class); } } public static void main(String[] args) { Injector inj = Guice.createInjector(new MyModule()); inj.getInstance(B.class); inj.getInstance(B.class); } }

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  • Reverse proxy for a REST web service using ADFS/AD and WebApi

    - by Kai Friis
    I need to implement a reverse proxy for a REST webservice behind a firewall. The reverse proxy should authenticate against an enterprise ADFS 2.0 server, preferably using claims in .net 4.5. The clients will be a mix of iOS, Android and web. I’m completely new to this topic; I’ve tried to implement the service as a REST service using WebApi, WIF and the new Identity and Access control in VS 2012, with no luck. I have also tried to look into Brock Allen’s Thinktecture.IdentityModel.45, however then my head was spinning so I didn’t see the difference between it and Windows Identity Foundation with the Identity and Access control. So I think I need to step back and get some advice on how to do this. There are several ways to this, as far as I understand it. In hardware. Set up our Citrix Netscaler as a reverse proxy. I have no idea how to do that, however if it’s a good solution I can always hire someone who knows… Do it in the webserver, like IIS. I haven’t tried it; do not know if it will work. Create a web service to do it. 3.1 Implement it as a SOAP service using WCF. As I understand it ADFS do not support REST so I have to use SOAP. The problem is mobile device do not like SOAP, neither do I… However if it’s the best way, I have to do it. 3.2 Use Azure Access Control Service. It might work, however the timing is not good. Our enterprise is considering several cloud options, and us jumping on the azure wagon on our own might not be the smartest thing to do right now. However if it is the only options, we can do it. I just prefer not to use it right now. Right now I feel there are too many options, and I do not know which one will work. If someone can point me in the right directions, which path to pursue, I would be very grateful.

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  • FormsAuthentication redirecting to login page when visiting root of website

    - by Ryan Lattimer
    I wanted to use FormsAuthentication to secure my static files as well on my site, so I followed the instructions located here http://learn.iis.net/page.aspx/244/how-to-take-advantage-of-the-iis7-integrated-pipeline/ under title "Enabling Forms Authentication for the Entire Application". Now though, when I try to visit the site by going directly to http://www.mysite.com I get redirected to http://www.mysite.com/Login.aspx?ReturnUrl=%2f instead of it using my DefaultDocument I have set. I can go to my default document by just visiting http://www.mysite.com/Home.aspx without any issues because it is set to allow anonymous access. Is there something I need to add into my web.config file to make iis7 allow anonymous access to the root? I tried adding with anonymous access but no such luck. Any help would be much appreciated. Both Home and the Login form allow anonymous. <location path="Home.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="Login.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> Login form is set as the loginUrl <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms protection="All" loginUrl="Login.aspx"> </forms> </authentication> Default document is set as Home.aspx <defaultDocument> <files> <add value="Home.aspx" /> </files> </defaultDocument> I have not removed any of the iis7 default documents. However, Home.aspx is first in the priority.

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