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Is it possible to to create a live linux iso containing a win xp virtual machine?

- by mark

I would like to have a Linux live system that contains a Windows xp virtual machine. This would be run from a bootable USB flash drive. My attempts so far have been unsuccessful. I created a Lubuntu 12.04 virtual machine with VMware. I updated and configured it to my needs, and installed Virtualbox. I then created a Windows xp vm with Virtualbox in the Lubuntu vm. I tested everything and everything worked, including USB devices. I installed Remastersys in the Lubuntu vm, copied the xp vm folder to the /etc/skel folder then created the custom iso with remastersys. I burned the iso and tested it on a laptop. It worked flawlessly. All programs and wireless networking worked. My problem was the xp vm. Virtualbox started fine but would not run the vm. I have the following error: Result Code: NS_ERROR_FAILURE (0x80004005) Component: VirtualBox Interface: IVirtualBox {c28be65f-1a8f-43b4-81f1-eb60cb516e66}. I ran remastersys again changing the permissions on the skel folder to R W for everyone. I also logged into Lubuntu as root and ran remastersys again. Each iso I created worked fine but would not start the xp vm inside. The last attempt virtualbox gave me an access error stating it can not access the virtual disk. Is what I want to do possible? In theory I don't see why it would not work. Is it a permissions issue? Should I create the iso then add the xp vm after by editing the iso by hand? Using a vm and not real hardware as a build machine a problem? Any ideas? keep any responses in laymens terms. I am still a Linux novice.

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How do I setup a proper VPN for my friends to play LAN games AND give them internet access?

- by Gizmo

I'm trying to setup a VPN on my local network, but everyone who connects to me DOES have access to my laptop but not to the internet or other devices on the network. How can I properly configure my VPN on windows to work correctly (giving internet + access to all devices on my network to the remote pc)? Or is there software on windows which makes creating a VPN server easier? or maybe a VMWare image linux vpn server? I can't find any of those! My requirement is that my friends don't have to install additional software, they have to be able to connect with default windows stuff. My OS is Windows 8 Standart edition (not pro or enterprise) OEM. Most of my friends have also windows 8, some windows 7. Extra info: My device is DMZ'ed (Demilitarized Zone, [disabled NAT on my device so it's accessible on the WAN]) I can access files, websites and services on other devices on my network, and all devices can access file shares, website and all other services on my device When enabling VPN everything works except the client is unable to get internet access or access to any device on my network, client has only access to my device.

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Revamping an old and unstable office IT-solution using Windows Server and OpenVPN

- by cmbrnt

I've been given the cumbersome task to totally redo the IT-infrastructure for a customer's office. They are currently running Windows XP all over, with one computer acting as a file server with no control over which users have access to which files, and so on. To top it off, this file server also functions as a workstation, which means it gets rebooted every time the user notices some sluggish behavior or experiences problems with flash games. To say the least, this isn't working for them. Now - I've got a very slim budget, but I need to set up a new server, and I wish to run Windows Server 2008 on it. I also need the ability to access the network remotely via VPN. Would it be a good idea to install VMware ESXi 4.1 onto the new server, and then run Windows Server 2008 as well as a separate Debian install for openvpn on it? I don't like the Domain Controller for the future AD to also run a VPN-server, because of stability issues when something goes to hell with either of them. There will be no redundancy though. However, I'm not sure if there is something to gain by installing a VPN solution on the Windows Server itself, when it comes to accessing file shares on the network via VPN. I don't know how to enable users logging in via the VPN to access the remote files, since they will be accessing the network from their own home computers (which is indeed a really bad idea, but this is what I've got to work with). They won't be logged in to the windows Domain, but rather their home workgroups. I need to be able to grant access to files in certain directories based on the logged in AD-user, but every computer won't necessarily be configured to log into the domain. I'm not sure how to explain this in a good way, but I'd be happy to clarify if somethings not clear. Any help would be great, because I've got a feeling that I can't do this without introducing a bunch of costly new rules when it comes to their IT-solution. I'd rather leave that untouched and go on my merry way to the next assignment.

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Samba access works with IP address only

- by Sebastian Rittau

I added a Debian etch host (hostname: webserver, IP address: 192.168.101.2) running Samba to a Windows network with a Windows 2003 PDC (IP address 192.168.101.3). The Samba server exports a public guest share, called "Intranet". The server shows up fine in the network, but trying to click on it produces an error dialog, stating I don't have the necessary permissions. So does entering \webserver manually and using \webserver\internet states that the path does not exist. Interestingly, accessing the share by IP address (\192.168.101.2 or \192.168.101.2\intranet) works fine. DNS is configured correctly, and "smbclient //webserver/intranet" on another Linux client works fine. One complicating issue is that the webserver is only a VMware virtual machine running on PDC server. Here is our smb.conf: [global] workgroup = Foobar server string = Webserver wins support = yes ; commenting out these wins server = 192.168.101.3 ; two lines has no effect dns proxy = no guest account = nobody [... snipped some unrelated bits, like logging ...] security = share [... snipped some password-related things ...] domain master = no [intranet] comment = Intranet path = /srv/webserver/contents browseable = yes guest ok = yes guest only = yes read only = yes create mask = 0775 directory mask = 0775

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Revamping an old and unstable IT-solution for a customer?

- by cmbrnt

I've been given the cumbersome task to totally redo the IT-infrastructure for a customer's office. They are currently running Windows XP all over, with one computer acting as a file server with no control over which users have access to which files, and so on. To top it off, this file server also functions as a workstation, which means it gets rebooted every time the user notices some sluggish behavior or experiences problems with flash games. To say the least, this isn't working for them. Now - I've got a very slim budget, but I need to set up a new server, and I wish to run Windows Server 2008 on it. I also need the ability to access the network remotely via VPN. Would it be a good idea to install VMware ESXi 4.1 onto the new server, and then run Windows Server 2008 as well as a separate Debian install for openvpn on it? I don't like the Domain Controller for the future AD to also run a VPN-server, because of stability issues when something goes to hell with either of them. There will be no redundancy though. However, I'm not sure if there is something to gain by installing a VPN solution on the Windows Server itself, when it comes to accessing file shares on the network via VPN. I don't know how to enable users logging in via the VPN to access the remote files, since they will be accessing the network from their own home computers (which is indeed a really bad idea, but this is what I've got to work with). They won't be logged in to the windows Domain, but rather their home workgroups. I need to be able to grant access to files in certain directories based on the logged in AD-user, but every computer won't necessarily be configured to log into the domain. I'm not sure how to explain this in a good way, but I'd be happy to clarify if somethings not clear. Any help would be great, because I've got a feeling that I can't do this without introducing a bunch of costly new rules when it comes to their IT-solution. I'd rather leave that untouched and go on my merry way to the next assignment.

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Expanding raidz vdev

- by Blubber

I'm currently planning on installing FreeBSD 9 on my home server. The machine has 4x 1.5TB disks, and at some point, when HDD prices drop I'll be upgrading to something bigger, perhaps 3TB. The disks are connected to an IBM ServerRaid m1015 in IT mode, this card has room for up to eight disks. Now here is the problem, currently the 4x 1.5TB will be connected to the m1015. Then when prices drop I'll be adding something like 4x 3TB, also connected to the m1015. No problem yet, I can just run 2 raidz2 vdevs and put them in the same pool. But, at some point the 1.5TBs will start to break, or I will have to upgrade them when the pool runs out of space. So I started researching if it's possible to expand a raidz vdev, and I found several pages explaining the same procedure, like this on SF: How to upgrade a ZFS RAID-Z array to larger disks on OpenSolaris?. So I went a head and tried that in vmware, I installed FreeBSD 9 and created 6 virtual disks, 3 of 1GB each and 3 of 10GB each. After building a raidz vdev of the 1GBs I replaced them one by one with the 10GB, but the pool did not increase in size. Is this a limitation of the ZFS implementation in FreeBSD? Or am I just doing something wrong?

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Ethernet cable unplugged after updating from windows 8.0 to 8.1

- by Pehmolelu

Yeah, so I went and updated my windows 8 pro to 8.1. Now everything else seems to work but the network. The Ethernet just says that Network cable is unplugged, even though it is plugged and I have tried different cord as well and I have tested that the router works. I have tried uninstalling the network drivers (Realtec PCIe GBE) and reinstall them with no success. After installing drivers the Device Management gives error for it "Device could not be started. Code 10" Before 8.1 update I had rt630x64.inf, after update it was netrt630x64.inf, and after installing the latest driver rt630x64.inf. With rt630x64.inf there isn't any error, but it's still not just working. New downloaded version: 8.020.0815.2013 (From Realtek website) The driver before: 8.1.510.2013 (After updating the windows to 8.1) I'm using Desktop PC, no VM. I dont have VirtualBox or Vmware installed. I have checked from BIOS that the card is enabled. I have booted in safe mode with network enabled. Says unplugged there as well. I have put the power off for few minutes and put back on, no effect. If anyone has any kind of suggestions, please tell.

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How To Completely Move Users/Program Files/Program Files (x86)/ProgramData (Folders) To Another Partition(s) On Windows 8?

- by Enigma83

I am attempting to move folders Users Program Files Program Files (x86), ProgramData (at the root of the C drive) to at least 2 other partitions, preferably on a fresh install. I have read that there are methods for doing this post-install, but it seems like it would be a bit more tedious to do things that way. I want to move the 2 Program Files folders to another partition on the same HDD, and Users/ProgramData will go to yet another partition on same HDD. I have done a bit of research on this, read up on some things that involved booting into Audit Mode, using the RoboCopy command to copy folders via booting into my Windows 8 USB drive, creating NTFS junctions/symbolic links, Registry edits, as well as accomplishing this automatically by creating an auto-attend file which Windows Setup processes automatically before the user is ever booted in for the 1st time. I tried this morning and now have a basic installation in which programs like Internet Explorer fail to open, certain files can't be found/opened (even if I click on them directly), an example is Regedit. Also, I can't run the Command/DOS (CMD) prompt as Administrator (or otherwise, as any other user), can't activate the real Administrator account or open any of the Administrative Tools (despite having added them to my Start Screen). So far I have only tried RoboCopy-ing Program Files and Program Files (x86) so far, creating junction points for them, and editing the Registry in the relevant locations. This is what I'm left with now. I also found the following blog article which describes how to do this for Windows 7 So, where should I go from here and where can I find more information? And how can this be done without disabling the Metro apps, which I've read will stop working if you move ProgramData. Once I have everything moved, where do I install programs to? Do I tell them to install to C:\Program Files\Program Files (x86) or to the junctioned/symbolic-linked partition/drive? I plan to test in VMware virtual machines from here on until things are working correctly, while using a baseline default install for daily tasks.

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iptables port redirection on Ubuntu

- by Xi.

I have an apache server running on 8100. When open http://localhost:8100 in browser we will see the site running correctly. Now I would like to direct all request on 80 to 8100 so that the site can be accessed without the port number. I am not familiar with iptables so I searched for solutions online. This is one of the methods that I have tried: user@ubuntu:~$ sudo iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT user@ubuntu:~$ sudo iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 8100 -j ACCEPT user@ubuntu:~$ sudo iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 80 -j REDIRECT --to-ports 8100 It's not working. The site works on 8100 but it's not on 80. If print out the rules using "iptables -t nat -L -n -v", this is what I see: user@ubuntu:~$ sudo iptables -t nat -L -n -v Chain PREROUTING (policy ACCEPT 14 packets, 2142 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 0 0 REDIRECT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:80 redir ports 8100 Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT 14 packets, 2142 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 177 packets, 13171 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT 177 packets, 13171 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination The OS is a Ubuntu on a VMware. I thought this should be a simple task but I have been working on it for hours without success. :( What am I missing?

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Cloned Centos 6.4 websrver for test purpose. Virtual host, .htaccess, redirecting url issue

- by Shogoot

I see similar questions, but not my exact challenge. What I have done so far I cloned a prod server over to a vmware to use it as a test server for new functionality I'm going to write. I'm not a sysadmin by trade, but I'm new to this company and I have to do some thing that are outside of my comfort zone (thats a good thing :) ) The prod server has 2 sites on it s1.com and s2.com. In /html/s1/, /html/s2/ there's an .htaccess file under each s*/. Looking like this: RewriteEngine ON RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} id=([0-9]+) RewriteRule ^.* %1.htm RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} page=modules/checkout RewriteRule ^.* order.php RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} page=pages/sidekart RewriteRule ^.* pages/sidekart.htm The issue is that s1 has a lot of pages that really belongs under a third domain s3, the rule in line 4 and 5 redirects them to /html/s1/. An example of such URL is: s3.com/?page=modules/product&id=521614 I'm trying then to get those URLs (without modifying the URL) to redirect to s3's /html/s3/ server structure, which I set up making a new virtualhost s3 in test servers httpd.conf with a test3.com as servername and changing the other sites to tests1.com and tests2.com, and adding .htaccess also to this s3 root directory, and making a html/s3/ directory structure I populated with an index.html, etc. But, when I take the same URL (s3.com/?page=modules/product&id=521614) changing it to tests3.com/?page=modules/product&id=521614, I get s1's index page showing up in my browser. I've poked around about a day now and i cant figure out why this happens.

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1 PC, 2 consoles (as in 2 monitors, keyboards and mice)

- by ciuly

I have this desire to "kill 2 birds with one shot". Currently, I have 1 server running round the clock, 1 laptop that runs about 8 hours a day, 7 days a week, and a desktop that runs about the same length of time. All 3 are ... old, to say the least. So there is a great need to upgrade (well, the server might handle its job for another year or so, but that only depends on how much time I have to put it to "work"). Now, I'm "dreaming" of only one PC. I'm thinking vmware's ESX. So there will be a VM for the server, a VM for the "laptop" and one for the "desktop". And obviously I'll have to somehow "link" a set of monitor/keyboard/mouse with one of the laptop/desktop VMs. The server doesn't need such things, obviously (it doesn't have them at this moment either). Is something like this possible? ESX is not a requirement, it's just something I found that answers part of my problems, but there still remains the 2 KVM set that needs connecting and "linking" to appropriate VM. Why I would want to do this? well, first of all, it's much cheaper to upgrade one PC than 3. Then, the power consumption is obviously lower. Plus the extra space.Plus it allows me to better separate networks and services. Thanks.

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1 PC, 2 consoles (as in 2 monitors, keyboards and mice)

- by ciuly

I have this desire to "kill 2 birds with one shot". Currently, I have 1 server running round the clock, 1 laptop that runs about 8 hours a day, 7 days a week, and a desktop that runs about the same length of time. All 3 are ... old, to say the least. So there is a great need to upgrade (well, the server might handle its job for another year or so, but that only depends on how much time I have to put it to "work"). Now, I'm "dreaming" of only one PC. I'm thinking vmware's ESX. So there will be a VM for the server, a VM for the "laptop" and one for the "desktop". And obviously I'll have to somehow "link" a set of monitor/keyboard/mouse with one of the laptop/desktop VMs. The server doesn't need such things, obviously (it doesn't have them at this moment either). Is something like this possible? ESX is not a requirement, it's just something I found that answers part of my problems, but there still remains the 2 KVM set that needs connecting and "linking" to appropriate VM. Why I would want to do this? well, first of all, it's much cheaper to upgrade one PC than 3. Then, the power consumption is obviously lower. Plus the extra space.Plus it allows me to better separate networks and services. Thanks.

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PPTP VPN on Server 2008 Enterprise

- by Mike K

I asked this question on Server fault and was told that was not allowed so im moving it here. I am running Windows Server 2008 enterprise in my HOME network inside of vmware workstation. I am running this on my home network to setup a PPTP VPN connection at home. I have correctly setup everything I needed to make it work, including opening all the ports, 1723 and 43 (GRE). I am able to connect just fine, but when I connect I dont have internet unless I uncheck use remote gateway. The thing is, I want to use the remote gateway to route all my traffic through that connection. Can someone tell me why this isnt working and how to get it to work. When I have remote gateway checked, and I do an ipconfig I dont get a remote gateway for the VPN connection, its 0.0.0.0 when id assume if connected properly should be 192.168.1.254 (my ATT Home Router). Also, if I cant get the remote gateway issue to work, and I have to uncheck that box to get internet, does this mean my VPN session is no longer encrypted? I am fully aware the PPTP VPN is the weakest VPN encryption out there but still having that extra layer of security when im on an unsecure wifi connection makes me feel a bit better. Thank you for all your help in advance. Someone told me I need to setup a gateway or router configured on the server. If thats the case, how go I go about telling the remote co

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Copy past speed very slow for a large number of files on Windows [closed]

- by Arno2501

I've run the following test I've created a folder containing 15'000 files of 400 bytes using this batch : @ECHO off SET times=15000 FOR /L %%i IN (1,1,%times%) DO ( fsutil file createnew filename%%i.txt 400 ) then I copy past it on my Windows Computer using this command : robocopy LargeNumberOfFiles\ LargeNumberOfFiles2\ After it has completed I can see that the transfer rate was 915810 Bytes/sec this is less than 1 MB/s. It took me several seconds to copy 7 MBytes Please note that this is very slow. I've tried the same with a folder with a single file of 50 Mbytes and the transfer rate is 1219512195 Bytes/sec. (yeah GB/s) instantaneous. Why copying large number of files take so much time - ressources on a windows filesystem ? Please note that I've tried to do the same on a linux system which runs on the same computer in a virtual machine (vmware player) with ext3 filesystem. I use the cp command and the copy is instantaneous ! Please also note the following : no antivirus I've tested that behaviour on multiple windows computers (always ntfs) i always get comparable results (transfer rate under 1MB/s avg 7-8 seconds to copy 7 MBytes) I've tested on multiple linux ext3 system the copy is always instantaneous for that amount (15000 files of 400 bytes) The question is about understanding what makes windows filesystem so slow to copy large number of files compared to a linux one for instance.

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Is it possible for a WPF control to have an ActualWidth and ActualHeight if it has never been render

- by DanM

I need a Viewport3D for the sole purpose of doing geometric calculations using Petzold.Media3D.ViewportInfo. I do now want to place it in a Window. I'm creating a Viewport3D using the following code: private Viewport3D CreateViewport(MainSettings settings) { var cameraPosition = new Point3D(0, 0, settings.CameraHeight); var cameraLookDirection = new Vector3D(0, 0, -1); var cameraUpDirection = new Vector3D(0, 1, 0); var camera = new PerspectiveCamera { Position = cameraPosition, LookDirection = cameraLookDirection, UpDirection = cameraUpDirection }; var viewport = new Viewport3D { Camera = camera, Width = settings.ViewportWidth, Height = settings.ViewportHeight }; return viewport; } Later, I'm attempting to use this viewport to convert the mouse location to a 3D location using this method: public Point3D? Point2dToPoint3d(Point point) { var range = new LineRange(); var isValid = ViewportInfo.Point2DtoPoint3D(_viewport, point, out range); if (isValid) return range.PointFromZ(0); else return null; } Unfortunately, it's not working. I think the reason is that the ActualWidth and ActualHeight of the viewport and both zero (and these are read-only properties, so I can't set them manually). (I have tested the exact same with an actual rendered Viewport3D, so I know the issue is not with my converter method.) Any idea how I can get WPF to assign the ActualWidth and ActualHeight based on my Width and Height settings? I tried setting the HorizontalAlignment and VerticalAlignment to Left and Top, respectively, and I also messed with the MinWidth and MinHeight, but none of these properties had any effect on the ActualWidth or ActualHeight.

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post xml to Spring REST server returns Unsupported Media Type

- by Mayra

I'm trying to create a simple spring based webservice that supports a "post" with xml content. In spring, I define an AnnotationMethodHandler: <bean id="inboundMessageAdapter" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"> <property name="messageConverters"> <util:list> <bean class="org.springframework.http.converter.xml.MarshallingHttpMessageConverter"> <property name="marshaller" ref="xmlMarshaller"/> <property name="unmarshaller" ref="xmlMarshaller"/> </bean> </util:list> </property> </bean> And a jaxb based xml marshaller: <bean id="xmlMarshaller" class="org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller"> <property name="contextPaths"> <array> <value>com.company.schema</value> </array> </property> <property name="schemas"> <array> <value>classpath:core.xsd</value> </array> </property> </bean> My controller is annotated as follows, where "Resource" is a class autogenerated by jaxb: @RequestMapping(method = POST, value = "/resource") public Resource createResource(@RequestBody Resource resource) { // do work } The result of a webservice call is always "HTTP/1.1 415 Unsupported Media Type". Here is an example service call: HttpPost post = new HttpPost(uri); post.addHeader("Accept", "application/xml"); post.addHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); StringEntity entity = new StringEntity(request, "UTF-8"); entity.setContentType("application/xml"); post.setEntity(entity); It seems to me that I am setting the correct media type everywhere possible. Anyone have an ideas?

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bind a WPF datagrid to a datatable

- by Jim Thomas

I have used the marvelous example posted at: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/WPF/WPFDataGridExamples.aspx to bind a WPF datagrid to a datatable. The source code below compiles fine; it even runs and displays the contents of the InfoWork datatable in the wpf datagrid. Hooray! But the WPF page with the datagrid will not display in the designer. I get an incomprehensible error instead on my design page which is shown at the end of this posting. I assume the designer is having some difficulty instantiating the dataview for display in the grid. How can I fix that? XAML Code: xmlns:local="clr-namespace:InfoSeeker" <Window.Resources> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="InfoWorkData" ObjectType="{x:Type local:InfoWorkData}" /> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="InfoWork" ObjectInstance="{StaticResource InfoWorkData}" MethodName="GetInfoWork" /> </Window.Resources> <my:DataGrid DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource InfoWork}}" AutoGenerateColumns="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" Name="dataGrid1" xmlns:my="http://schemas.microsoft.com/wpf/2008/toolkit" /> C# Code: namespace InfoSeeker { public class InfoWorkData { private InfoTableAdapters.InfoWorkTableAdapter infoAdapter; private Info infoDS; public InfoWorkData() { infoDS = new Info(); infoAdapter = new InfoTableAdapters.InfoWorkTableAdapter(); infoAdapter.Fill(infoDS.InfoWork); } public DataView GetInfoWork() { return infoDS.InfoWork.DefaultView; } } } Error shown in place of the designer page which has the grid on it: An unhandled exception has occurred: Type 'MS.Internal.Permissions.UserInitiatedNavigationPermission' in Assembly 'PresentationFramework, Version=3.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' is not marked as serializable. at System.Runtime.Serialization.FormatterServices.InternalGetSerializableMembers(RuntimeType type) at System.Runtime.Serialization.FormatterServices.GetSerializableMembers(Type type, StreamingContext context) at System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.WriteObjectInfo.InitMemberInfo() at System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.WriteObjectInfo.InitSerialize(Object obj, ISurrogateSelector surrogateSelector, StreamingContext context, SerObjectInfoInit serObjectInfoInit, IFormatterConverter converter, ObjectWriter objectWriter) ...At:Ms.Internal.Designer.DesignerPane.LoadDesignerView()

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[WPF] Custom TabItem in TabControl

- by Simon

I've created CustomTabItem which inherits from TabItem and i'd like to use it while binding ObservableCollection in TabControl <TabControl ItemsSource="{Binding MyObservableCollection}"/> It should like this in XAML, but i do not know how change default type of the output item created by TabControl while binding. I've tried to create converter, but it has to do something like this inside convertin method: List<CustomTabItem> resultList = new List<CustomTabItem>(); And iterate through my input ObservableCollection, create my CustomTab based on item from collection and add it to resultList... I'd like to avoid it, bacause while creating CustomTabItem i'm creating complex View and it takes a while, so i don't want to create it always when something change in binded collection. My class extends typical TabItem and i'd like to use this class in TabControl instead of TabItem. <TabControl.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type local:CustomTabItem}"> <Setter Property="MyProperty" Value="{Binding xxx}"/> </Style> </TabControl.ItemContainerStyle> Code above generates error that Style cannot be applied to TabItem. My main purpose is to use in XAML my own CustomTabItem and bind properties... Just like above... I've also tried to use <TabControl.ItemTemplate/> <TabControl.ContentTemaplte/> But they are just styles for TabItem, so i'll still be missing my properties wchich i added in my custom class.

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WPF MenuItem IsChecked Binding not working

- by Kaya

Anyone know why the menu item binding does not work ? <ToggleButton Name="toggleButton" Checked="checkBoxPublish_Checked" > <ToggleButton.Resources> <converters:BooleanToHiddenVisibility x:Key="boolToVis"/> </ToggleButton.Resources> <Grid> <Image Height="auto" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="5" Name="image1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="auto" /> <Viewbox > <TextBlock Text="Blocked" Opacity="0.7" Foreground="Red" Visibility="{Binding Path=IsChecked, ElementName=toggleButton, Converter={StaticResource boolToVis}}"/> </Viewbox> </Grid> <ToggleButton.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu StaysOpen="True" > <MenuItem x:Name="menuItemBlock" Header="Block" Click="menuItemClick" IsCheckable="True" IsChecked="{Binding ElementName=toggleButton, Path=IsChecked}"/> <MenuItem x:Name="menuItemIgnorePtz" Header="Ignore Ptz" Click="menuItemClick" IsCheckable="True" /> </ContextMenu> </ToggleButton.ContextMenu> </ToggleButton>

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Access to bound data in IMultiValueConverter.ConvertBack() in C#/WPF

- by absence

I have a problem with a multibinding: <Canvas> <local:SPoint x:Name="sp" Width="10" Height="10"> <Canvas.Left></Canvas.Left> <Canvas.Top> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource myConverter}" Mode="TwoWay"> <Binding ElementName="cp1" Path="(Canvas.Top)"/> <Binding ElementName="cp1" Path="Height"/> <Binding ElementName="cp2" Path="(Canvas.Top)"/> <Binding ElementName="cp2" Path="Height"/> <Binding ElementName="sp" Path="Height"/> <Binding ElementName="sp" Path="Slope" Mode="TwoWay"/> </MultiBinding> </Canvas.Top> </local:SPoint> <local:CPoint x:Name="cp1" Width="10" Height="10" Canvas.Left="20" Canvas.Top="150"/> <local:CPoint x:Name="cp2" Width="10" Height="10" Canvas.Left="100" Canvas.Top="20"/> </Canvas> In order to calculate the Canvas.Top value, myConverter needs all the bound values. This works great in Convert(). Going the other way, myConverter should ideally calculate the Slope value (Binding.DoNothing for the rest), but it needs the other values in addition to the Canvas.Top one passed to ConvertBack(). What is the right way to solve this? I have tried making the binding OneWay and create an additional multibinding for local:SPoint.Slope, but that causes infinite recursion and stack overflow. I was thinking the ConverterParameter could be used, but it seems like it's not possible to bind to it.

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WPF: Update Listbox automatically C#

- by Ashley

Hi, I have two WPF windows developed using the surface SDK, one that is a data entry form, and the second dispays the data in a listbox. The listbox displays the data perfectly but when I add a new record using the data entry form, the listbox is not updated until I reopen the window. Is there a way to automatically update the listbox through binding or something? This is the listbox code: <s:SurfaceListBox Height="673" Margin="0,26,0,31" Name="surfaceListBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path={}}" Width="490"> <s:SurfaceListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Width="80" FontSize="8" Content="{Binding Path=item1}"></Label> <Label Width="80" FontSize="8" Content="{Binding Path=item2}"></Label> <Label Width="210" FontSize="8" Content="{Binding Path=item3}"></Label> <Label Width="80" FontSize="8" Content="{Binding Path=item4}"></Label> <Label Width="60" FontSize="8" Content="{Binding Path=item5, Converter={StaticResource booleanconverter}}"></Label> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </s:SurfaceListBox.ItemTemplate> </s:SurfaceListBox> I am using Visual C# 2008 and the code to fill the listbox is: private SHIPS_LOGDataSet ShipData = new SHIPS_LOGDataSet(); private SHIPS_LOGDataSetTableAdapters.MAINTableAdapter taMain = new SHIPS_LOGDataSetTableAdapters.MAINTableAdapter(); private SHIPS_LOGDataSetTableAdapters.TableAdapterManager taManager = new ShipsLogSurface.SHIPS_LOGDataSetTableAdapters.TableAdapterManager(); private void SurfaceWindow_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.taMain.Fill(this.ShipData.MAIN); this.DataContext = from MAIN in this.ShipData.MAIN orderby MAIN.MESSAGE_ID descending select MAIN; } The only table in my database is called MAIN. I'm guessing I might have to use a collection view or similar but don't know how to implement that. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks

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WPF TextBox.SelectAll () doesn't work

- by Zoliq

Hi! I have used the following template in my project: <DataTemplate x:Key="textBoxDataTemplate"> <TextBox Name="textBox" ToolTip="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" Tag="{Binding}" PreviewKeyDown="cellValueTextBoxKeyDown"> <TextBox.Text> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource intToStringMultiConverter}"> <Binding Path="CellValue" Mode="TwoWay"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <y:MatrixCellValueRule MaxValue="200" /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> <Binding RelativeSource="{RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type y:MatrixGrid}}" Path="Tag" Mode="OneWay" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> </DataTemplate> I used this template to create an editable matrix for the user. The user is able to navigate from cell to cell within the matrix and I would like to highlight the data in the selected textbox but it doesn't work. I called TextBox.Focus () and TextBox.SelectAll () to achieve the effect but nothing. The Focus () works but the text never gets highlighted. Any help is welcome and appreciated.

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Changing or accessing a control in a Silverlight Data Form Edit Template

- by Aim Kai

I came across an interesting issue today when playing around with the Silverlight Data Form control. I wanted to change the visibility of a particular control inside the bound edit template.. see xaml below. <df:DataForm x:Name="NoteFormEdit" ItemsSource="{Binding Mode=OneWay}" AutoGenerateFields="True" AutoEdit="True" AutoCommit="False" CommitButtonContent="Save" CancelButtonContent="Cancel" CommandButtonsVisibility="Commit" LabelPosition="Top" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" EditEnded="NoteForm_EditEnded"> <df:DataForm.EditTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <df:DataField> <TextBox Text="{Binding Title, Mode=TwoWay}"/> </df:DataField> <df:DataField> <TextBox Text="{Binding Description, Mode=TwoWay}" AcceptsReturn="True" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Height="" TextWrapping="Wrap" SizeChanged="TextBox_SizeChanged"/> </df:DataField> <df:DataField> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Username}" x:Name="tbUsername"/> </df:DataField> <df:DataField> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DateCreated, Converter={StaticResource DateConverter}}" x:Name="tbDateCreated"/> </df:DataField> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </df:DataForm.EditTemplate> </df:DataForm> I wanted to depending on how the container of this data form was accessed to disable or hide the last two data fields. I did a work around which had two data forms but this is a bit excessive! Does anyone know how to access these controls inside the edit template?

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WPF: How to set column width with auto fill in ListView with custom user control.

- by powerk

A ListView with Datatemplate in GridViewColumn: <ListView Name ="LogDataList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding LogDataCollection}" Background="Cyan"> <ListView.View> <GridView AllowsColumnReorder="true" ColumnHeaderToolTip="Event Log Information"> <GridViewColumn Header="Event Log Name" Width="100"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <l:MyTextBlock Height="25" DataContext="{Binding LogName, Converter={StaticResource DataFieldConverter}}" HighlightMatchCase="{Binding Element}" Loaded="EditBox_Loaded"/> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> ... </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> I have no idea about how to make column width autofill although I have tried a lot of way to walk up. The general idea for demo is : <ListView Name ="LogDataList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding LogDataCollection}" Background="Cyan"> <ListView.Resources> <Style x:Key="ColumnWidthStyle" TargetType="{x:Null GridViewColumn}"> <Style.Setters> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" > </Setter> </Style.Setters> </Style> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView AllowsColumnReorder="true" ColumnHeaderToolTip="Event Log Information"> <GridViewColumn Header="Event Log Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=LogName}" HeaderContainerStyle="{StaticResource ColumnWidthStyle}"> It works, but not accord with my demand. I need to customize datatemplate with my custom user control(MyTextBlock) since the enhancement(HighlighMatchCase property) and binding datacontext. How can I set up ColumnWidthMode with Fill in the word? On-line'in. I really appreciate your help.

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C# StreamReader.ReadLine() - Need to pick up line terminators

- by Tony Trozzo

I wrote a C# program to read an Excel .xls/.xlsx file and output to CSV and Unicode text. I wrote a separate program to remove blank records. This is accomplished by reading each line with StreamReader.ReadLine(), and then going character by character through the string and not writing the line to output if it contains all commas (for the CSV) or all tabs (for the Unicode text). The problem occurs when the Excel file contains embedded newlines (\x0A) inside the cells. I changed my XLS to CSV converter to find these new lines (since it goes cell by cell) and write them as \x0A, and normal lines just use StreamWriter.WriteLine(). The problem occurs in the separate program to remove blank records. When I read in with StreamReader.ReadLine(), by definition it only returns the string with the line, not the terminator. Since the embedded newlines show up as two separate lines, I can't tell which is a full record and which is an embedded newline for when I write them to the final file. I'm not even sure I can read in the \x0A because everything on the input registers as '\n'. I could go character by character, but this destroys my logic to remove blank lines. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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