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  • CSS Background image in Redmine template arbitrarily not loading

    - by Pekka
    I`m in the process of building a template for Redmine (a project management system based on Ruby on Rails.) Ruby is running on a virtual server from a Bitnami.org installation package. The OS is Windows. The template essentially consists of a styles.css file. In that file, I have the following line: #header { padding: 0px; padding-top: 48px; background-color: #62DFFF; background-image: url(../images/bkg.jpg) background-position: center bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; height:150px; } It's a header element with a background image. The problem: This background image arbitrarily appears and disappears when reloading. Say you reload ten times in twenty seconds; the image will appear in two instances, and be missing in the 18 others. I would have put this down to server problems, but the weird thing is that when it's missing, the request for the image doesn't appear in Firebug's net tab at all. Even if it were cached, the request should be there. Raw screenshots of the identical page on two reloads: I am 100% sure the CSS file does not change in between. I have examined both instances with Firebug and the CSS is identical. It happens in both Firefox and Chrome so it must be something basic I'm overlooking. What could be causing a browser not to load a resource at all? I have zero idea about Ruby nor Rails - getting Redmine running and customized is all I have ever had to do with this platform - so I don't really know where to look. Apache's, Mongrel's and Redmine's error logs look fine, though.

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  • Windsor IHandlerSelector in RIA Services Visual Studio 2010 Beta2

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hi everybody! I want to implement multi tenancy using Windsor and i don't know how to handle this situation: i succesfully used this technique in plain ASP.NET MVC projects and thought incorporating in a RIA Services project would be similar. So i used IHandlerSelector, registered some components and wrote an ASP.NET MVC view to verify it works in a plain ASP.NET MVC environment. And it did! Next step was to create a DomainService which got an IRepository injected in the constructor. This service is hosted in the ASP.NET MVC application. And it actually ... works:i can get data out of it to a Silverlight application. Sample snippet: public OrganizationDomainService(IRepository<Culture> cultureRepository) { this.cultureRepository = cultureRepository; } Last step is to see if it works multi-tenant-like: it does not! The weird thing is this: using some line of code and writing debug messages in a log file i verified that the correct handler is selected! BUT this handler seems not to be injected in the DomainService. I ALWAYS get the first handler (that's the logic in my SelectHandler) Can anybody verify this behavior? Is injection not working in RIA Services? Or am i missing something basic?? Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Beta2 Thanks in advance

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  • Strange javascript decoding behavior in IE

    - by Yoni
    I run the following html snippet in IE8 and IE7 with non-English characters (we tried both Hebrew and Chinese), and the second link never works properly. The displayed text in the alert box is mangled. This occurs in IE8 and IE7, but not in firefox. It is not dependent on Windows's regional settings. Here is the html snippet (html header and footer omitted for brevity, the content-type is "text/html; charset=utf-8", and so is the response header): <p> <a href="javascript:alert('ab????ab')">link with English and Hebrew text</a> <a href="javascript:alert('ab%D7%A9%D7%9C%D7%95%D7%9Dab')">same text, url encoded</a> </p> Here is the alert box that pops up when clicking the second link: I know that the string for "????" is encoded as 8 bytes in utf-8, thus there are 8 %NN items, and there are also 8 weird characters in the alert box. The problem is, how can I make IE recognize that this is utf-8 encoding text, like firefox does?

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  • Rails with passenger only runs in development

    - by Ignace
    Hey, I have a problem on one of our webservers. I'll try to explain it as clear as possible, but I'm not 100% aware of all the configuration of the server. There are 2 sites running next to eachother (blcc_preprod and blcc_prod), so in the 'sites-enabled' of apache this i have a file 'blcc' like this: <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /opt/dn/blcc/www RailsBaseURI /blcc_preprod RailsBaseURI /blcc_prod RailsEnv production </VirtualHost> My config/environments/production.log (from both) looks like this(I removed all comments, because it messes with the layout) config.cache_classes = true config.action_controller.consider_all_requests_local = false config.action_controller.perform_caching = true config.action_view.cache_template_loading = true config.log_level = :debug The weird thing is, that my production log dates from months ago, so something is really wrong. Could someone help? If you need more info, just ask. Thanks! Edit: Error.log from apache show the normal output for a event to the server (the situation here is that the webserver plugs in to another business (java) server via a framework) Access.log is empty Content from other_vhosts_access.log after we surf to ip/blcc_preprod is the following blcc.localdomain:80 192.168.21.194 - - [25/May/2010:08:33:04 +0200] "GET/ blcc_preprod HTTP/1.1" 500 594 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727)"

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  • Several Objective-C objects become Invalid for no reason, sometimes.

    - by farnsworth
    - (void)loadLocations { NSString *url = @"<URL to a text file>"; NSStringEncoding enc = NSUTF8StringEncoding; NSString *locationString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url] usedEncoding:&enc error:nil]; NSArray *lines = [locationString componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; for (int i=0; i<[lines count]; i++) { NSString *line = [lines objectAtIndex:i]; NSArray *components = [line componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]; Restaurant *res = [byID objectForKey:[components objectAtIndex:0]]; if (res) { NSString *resAddress = [components objectAtIndex:3]; NSArray *loc = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[components objectAtIndex:1], [components objectAtIndex:2]]; [res.locationCoords setObject:loc forKey:resAddress]; } else { NSLog([[components objectAtIndex:0] stringByAppendingString:@" res id not found."]); } } } There are a few weird things happening here. First, at the two lines where the NSArray lines is used, this message is printed to the console- *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFDictionary count]: method sent to an uninitialized mutable dictionary object' which is strange since lines is definitely not an NSMutableDictionary, definitely is initialized, and because the app doesn't crash. Also, at random points in the loop, all of the variables that the debugger can see will become Invalid. Local variables, property variables, everything. Then after a couple lines they will go back to their original values. setObject:forKey never has an effect on res.locationCoords, which is an NSMutableDictionary. I'm sure that res, res.locationCoords, and byId are initialized. I also tried adding a retain or copy to lines, same thing. I'm sure there's a basic memory management principle I'm missing here but I'm at a loss.

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  • SQL Server Database In Single User Mode after Failover

    - by jlichauc
    Here is a weird situation we experienced with a SQL Server 2008 Database Mirroring Failover. We have a pair of mirrored databases running in high-availability mode and both the principal and mirror showed as synchronized. As part of some maintenance I triggered a manual failover of the principal to the mirror. However after the failover the principal was now in single-user mode instead of the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state we usually get. The database had been in multi-user mode on the previous principal before this had happened. We ended up stopping all applications, restarting the SQL Server instances, and executing "ALTER DATABASE ... SET MULTI_USER" to bring the database back to the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state in a multi-user mode. Question. Does anyone know where SQL Server stores information about whether a database should be in single-user mode or not? I'm wondering if there is some system database or table that has this setting recorded somewhere. In particular we had an incident once with the database on the original principal (the one I was failing over to) where when trying to detach the database it was put into single-user mode. I'm wondering if that setting is cached somewhere and is the reason that SQL Server put it back into single-user mode after a failover.

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  • php simplexmlelement - I can access most properties (except the one with a dash?)

    - by Matthew Steiner
    So I run some code like this: $quote = simplexml_load_string($xml); $quote = $quote->Stock; echo 'Name: '; echo $quote->Name; echo '<br>'; echo 'Sybmol: '; echo $quote->Symbol; echo '<br>'; echo 'Last Price: '; echo $quote->Last; echo '<br>'; echo 'Earnings To Price Ratio: '; echo $quote->P-E; echo '<br>'; I know that the second to last line ($quote-P-E) is incorrect - I don't think you can use dashes like that. But for some reason I can't figure out how to access that property. The weird thing is that's how it's written if I var_dump($quote) (It's towards the end): object(SimpleXMLElement)#17 (16) { ["Symbol"]=> string(4) "AAPL" ["Last"]=> string(6) "271.87" ["Date"]=> string(9) "6/17/2010" ["Time"]=> string(6) "3:59pm" ["Change"]=> string(5) "+4.62" ["Open"]=> string(6) "270.72" ["High"]=> string(6) "272.90" ["Low"]=> string(6) "269.50" ["Volume"]=> string(8) "31195032" ["MktCap"]=> string(6) "247.4B" ["PreviousClose"]=> string(6) "267.25" ["PercentageChange"]=> string(6) "+1.73%" ["AnnRange"]=> string(15) "132.88 - 272.90" ["Earns"]=> string(6) "11.796" ["P-E"]=> string(5) "22.66" ["Name"]=> string(10) "Apple Inc." } How should I be accessing this attribute/property?

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  • ExternalInterface issue on loadup with FireFox

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my ExternalInterface. The way it is currently set up is, on the page load up, a boolean is set to true in JavaScript and then checked by ActionScript constructors (using a timer) until it is true. This marks that JavaScript is ready to get calls from AS3. At this point, AS3 will add the callback and do some internal stuff, and at the end of the constructor I call JavaScript. So far so good. JavaScript will at this point call a function in AS3 (that was defined in the callback described above), and this is where it all messes up. On IE this works perfectly fine. On FireFox though, it does not. When I debug it, I see that the javascript function is called but when it tries to call AS3, nothing happens. I also tried to add a timer, but for some reason the function STILL executes straight away (in IE). What is very weird is that a second or two later, that function will work, so it seems that the Flash is not completely loaded in FireFox? But it runs to the last line of my constructor, so I would believe it's loaded. Any idea please, I am really stuck. Thanks a lot, Rudy

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  • Emacs: Often switching between Emacs and my IDE's editor, how to automatically 'synch' the files?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    I very often need to do some Emacs magic on some files and I need to go back and forth between my IDE (IntelliJ IDEA) and Emacs. When a change is made under Emacs (and after I've saved the file) and I go back to IntelliJ the change appears immediately (if I recall correctly I configured IntelliJ to "always reload file when a modification is detected on disk" or something like that). I don't even need to reload: as soon as IntelliJ IDEA gains focus, it instantly reloads the file (and I hence have immediately access to the modifications I made from Emacs). So far, so very good. However "the other way round", it doesn't work yet. Can I configure Emacs so that everytime a file is changed on disk it reloads it? Or make Emacs, everytime it "gains focus", verify if any file currently opened has been modified on disk? I know I can start modifying the buffer under Emacs and it shall instantly warn that it has been modified, but I'd rather have it do it immediately (for example if I used my IDE to do some big change, when I come back to Emacs what I see may not be at all anymore what the file contains and it's a bit weird).

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  • .NET - Is there a way to programmatically fill all tables in a strongly-typed dataset?

    - by Mike Loux
    Hello, all! I have a SQL Server database for which I have created a strongly-typed DataSet (using the DataSet Designer in Visual Studio 2008), so all the adapters and select commands and whatnot were created for me by the wizard. It's a small database with largely static data, so I would like to pull the contents of this DB in its entirety into my application at startup, and then grab individual pieces of data as needed using LINQ. Rather than hard-code each adapter Fill call, I would like to see if there is a way to automate this (possibly via Reflection). So, instead of: Dim _ds As New dsTest dsTestTableAdapters.Table1TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table1) dsTestTableAdapters.Table2TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table2) <etc etc etc> I would prefer to do something like: Dim _ds As New dsTest For Each tableName As String In _ds.Tables Dim adapter as Object = <routine to grab adapter associated with the table> adapter.Fill(tableName) Next Is that even remotely doable? I have done a fair amount of searching, and I wouldn't think this would be an uncommon request, but I must be either asking the wrong question, or I'm just weird to want to do this. I will admit that I usually prefer to use unbound controls and not go with strongly-typed datasets (I prefer to write SQL directly), but my company wants to go this route, so I'm researching it. I think the idea is that as tables are added, we can just refresh the DataSet using the Designer in Visual Studio and not have to make too many underlying DB code changes. Any help at all would be most appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • iPhone Adding Controls (UIButton, UILabel etc.) on a Playing Video!

    - by Taimur Hamza
    I have been assigned an 'easy' task of adding a button over a playing video. I m terming it easy as i have got the sample code downloaded from Apple's sample code. http://rapidshare.com/files/393248642/MoviePlayer_iPhone.zip Anybody who wants to reply to my query and intends to help should download this project and run it otherwise it wudnt be easy to understand my problem. Thanks! And now the weird problem i am facing is: In the sample project developer has added the view ( UILabel and UIButton ) in the Appdelegate. And i want it other xib files not the App delegate . Fine i added a view 'myButtonABC' instead of 'My Overlay View'. And added this code in my xib file's implementation file. (void)viewDidLoad { TaimurAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TaimurAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate initAndPlayMovie:[self localMovieURL]]; NSArray *windows = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows]; if ([windows count] 1) { UIWindow *moviePlayerWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; [moviePlayerWindow addSubview:self.myABC]; } } Now my question is do i need to declare a UIWindow object in the header file here. As i am not working in the app delegate class. As i said previously i have to add this button over a video in other screen and not on the main screen. The third question is can anyone, which in fact is the most imp of all. In my view , if i am able to do this one my problem would be solved. As i have spend considerable amount of time on this task so far. The question is " How can i connect myABCButton (which is a view added to my xib file ) to the File's Owner. Thanks for your patience. Replies Appreciated ! Taimur

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  • Alternative to 'Dispatch for ASP' deployment plug-in?

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Hi there, we've recently stumbled across the excellent Dispatch for ASP deployment plug in. It looks great apart from one thing: It doesn't work with Visual Studio 2010, at least for us, anyway. (It's supposed to work fine.) (Yes, we've tried everything: We've managed to get Dispatch working for another FTP site, but not the main one we regularly deploy to. We have managed to connect to our main site through FileZilla FTP, so the site itself is configured correctly. All settings have been triple checked, but the software still throws up weird errors (always to do with its internal libraries).) So does anyone know of any other comparable FTP-based, deployment plug-ins for Visual Studio? Here's what Dispatch does (and so any suggested replacement must do): Monitor any altered files in the project. When a file is changed, it's added to a list of files to be deployed. To deploy these files to the live site, all we need to do is click "Upload" and the plugin will connect via FTP to our live site and upload all the files. We can filter out any filenames we don't want to be monitored/uploaded (e.g. .cs or web.config or /Images/, etc.) I think that's all the features that we need. Thanks for any suggestions!

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  • ActiveRecord exceptions not rescued

    - by zoopzoop
    I have the following code block: unless User.exist?(...) begin user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user user.save! rescue ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid, ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique => e # Check if that user was created in the meantime user = User.exists?(...) raise e if user.nil? end end The reason is, as you can probably guess, that multiple processes might call this method at the same time to create the user (if it doesn't already exist), so while the first one enters the block and starts initializing a new user, setting the attributes and finally calling save!, the user might already be created. In that case I want to check again if the user exists and only raise the exception if it still doesn't (= if no other process has created it in the meantime). The problem is, that regularly ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid exceptions are raised from the save! and not rescued from the rescue block. Any ideas? EDIT: Alright, this is weird. I must be missing something. I refactored the code according to Simone's tip to look like this: unless User.find_by_email(...).present? # Here we know the user does not exist yet user = User.new(...) # Set more attributes of user unless user.save # User could not be saved for some reason, maybe created by another request? raise StandardError, "Could not create user for order #{self.id}." unless User.exists?(:email => ...) end end Now I got the following exception: ActiveRecord::RecordNotUnique: Mysql::DupEntry: Duplicate entry '[email protected]' for key 'index_users_on_email': INSERT INTO `users` ... thrown in the line where it says 'unless user.save'. How can that be? Rails thinks the user can be created because the email is unique but then the Mysql unique index prevents the insert? How likely is that? And how can it be avoided?

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  • Stored procedure woes ... inserting binary ...

    - by Wardy
    Ok so I have this storedproc in my SQL 2008 database (works in 2005 too / used to) ... CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetBinaryContent] @Ref nvarchar(50), @Content varbinary(MAX), @ObjectID uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN DELETE ObjectContent WHERE ObjectId = @ObjectID AND Ref = @Ref IF DATALENGTH(@Content) > 5 BEGIN INSERT INTO ObjectContent (Ref,BinaryContent,ObjectId) VALUES (@Ref,@Content,@ObjectId) END UPDATE Objects SET [Status] = 1 WHERE ID = @ObjectID END Relatively simple, I take a byte array in C# and chuck it in @Content i then give it a guid and string for the other params and off we go. ... Great, it used to work ... but it don't anymore ... so erm ... What's wrong with this stored proc? I've stepped through my C# code thinking I screwed up somehow in that but it definately adds the params and gives them the correct values so what would cause the server to just stop executing this storedproc correctly? When called this proc executes but nothing changes in the db ... no new records are added to the ObjectContent table. Weird huh ...

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  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • How can I superimpose modified loess lines on a ggplot2 qplot?

    - by briandk
    Background Right now, I'm creating a multiple-predictor linear model and generating diagnostic plots to assess regression assumptions. (It's for a multiple regression analysis stats class that I'm loving at the moment :-) My textbook (Cohen, Cohen, West, and Aiken 2003) recommends plotting each predictor against the residuals to make sure that: The residuals don't systematically covary with the predictor The residuals are homoscedastic with respect to each predictor in the model On point (2), my textbook has this to say: Some statistical packages allow the analyst to plot lowess fit lines at the mean of the residuals (0-line), 1 standard deviation above the mean, and 1 standard deviation below the mean of the residuals....In the present case {their example}, the two lines {mean + 1sd and mean - 1sd} remain roughly parallel to the lowess {0} line, consistent with the interpretation that the variance of the residuals does not change as a function of X. (p. 131) How can I modify loess lines? I know how to generate a scatterplot with a "0-line,": # First, I'll make a simple linear model and get its diagnostic stats library(ggplot2) data(cars) mod <- fortify(lm(speed ~ dist, data = cars)) attach(mod) str(mod) # Now I want to make sure the residuals are homoscedastic qplot (x = dist, y = .resid, data = mod) + geom_smooth(se = FALSE) # "se = FALSE" Removes the standard error bands But does anyone know how I can use ggplot2 and qplot to generate plots where the 0-line, "mean + 1sd" AND "mean - 1sd" lines would be superimposed? Is that a weird/complex question to be asking?

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  • PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

    - by Maxim Zaslavsky
    I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

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  • ApplicationPoolIdentity permissions on Temporary Asp.Net files

    - by Anton
    Hi all, at work I am struggling a bit with the following situation: We have a web application that runs on a WIndows Server 2008 64 bits machine. The app's ApplicationPool is running under the ApplicationPoolIdentity and configured for .net 2 and Classic pipeline mode. This works fine up to the moment that XmlSerialization requires creation of Serializer assemblies where MEF is being used to create a collection of knowntypes. To remedy this I was hoping that granting the ApplicationPoolIdentity rights to the ASP.Net Temporary Files directory would be enough, but alas... What I did was the run the following command from a cmd prompt: icacls "c:\windows\microsoft.net\framework64\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" /grant "IIS AppPool\MyAppPool":(M) Obviously this did not work, otherwise you would not be reading this :) Strange thing is that whenever I grant the Users or even more specific, the Authenticated Users Group those permissions, it works. What's weird as well (in my eyes) is that before I started granting access the ApplicationPoolIdentity was already a member of IIS_IUSRS which does have Modify rights for the temporary asp files directory. And now I'm left wondering why this situation requires Modify rights for the Authenticated Users group. I thought it could be because the apppool account was missing additional rights (googling for this returned some results, so I tried those), but granting the ApplicationPoolIdentity modification rights to the Windows\Temp directory and/or the application directory itself did not fix it. For now we have a workaround, but I hate that I don't know what is exactly going on here, so I was hoping any of you guys could shed some light on this. Thanx in advance!

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  • Strange FileNotFoundException occuring on production server in console application

    - by thmsn
    Hi I have an application that works fine in my dev enviroment, but throws weird errors in the production enviroment, I checked the version of .net on my dev machine aswell as the production server , they both run 3.5.30729.01. The exception I get is a System.IO.FileNotFoundException. StackTrace: at System.Diagnostics.FileVersionInfo.GetVersionInfo(String fileName) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigPaths.SetNamesAndVersion(String applicationFilename, Assembly exeAssembly, Boolean isHttp) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigPaths..ctor(String exePath, Boolean includeUserConfig) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigPaths.GetPaths(String exePath, Boolean includeUserConfig) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationHost.get_ConfigPaths() at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationHost.RequireCompleteInit(IInternalConfigRecord record) at System.Configuration.BaseConfigurationRecord.GetSectionRecursive(String configKey, Boolean getLkg, Boolean checkPermission, Boolean getRuntimeObject, Boolean requestIsHere, Object& result, Object& resultRuntimeObject) at System.Configuration.BaseConfigurationRecord.GetSection(String configKey) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigSystem.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.PrivilegedConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.DirectoryServices.SearchResultCollection.ResultsEnumerator..ctor(SearchResultCollection results, String parentUserName, String parentPassword, AuthenticationTypes parentAuthenticationType) at System.DirectoryServices.SearchResultCollection.GetEnumerator() at System.DirectoryServices.DirectorySearcher.FindOne() Yesterday the error just went away, and today the error is occuring again. I tried using reflector and it appears to have something to do with config files or user config files. any ideas?

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  • Deterministic and non uniform long string generation from seed

    - by Limonup
    I had this weird idea for an encryption that I wanted to try out, it may be bad, and it may have done before, but I'm just doing it for fun. The short version of the question is: Is it possible to generate a long, deterministic and non-uniformly distributed string/sequence of numbers from a small seed? Long(er) version: I was thinking to encrypt a text by changing encoding. The new encoding would be generated via Huffman algorithm. To work well, the Huffman algorithm would need a fairly long text with non uniform distribution. Then characters can have different bit-lengths which would be the primary strength of this encryption. The problem is that its impractical to enter in/remember a long text each time you want to decrypt the text. So I was wondering if it was possible to generate a text from password seed? It doesn't matter what the text is, as long as it has non uniform distribution of characters and that the exact same sequence can be recreated each time you give it the same seed. Preferably, are there any functions/extensions in Python that can do this? EDIT: To expand on the "strength" of varying bit length: if I have a string "test", ASCII values 116, 101, 115, 116, which gives bit values of 1110100 1100101 1110011 1110100 Then, say my Huffman algorithm generates encoding like t = 101 e = 1100111 s = 10001 The final string is 101 1100111 10001 101, if we encode this back to ASCII, we get 1011100 1111000 1101000, which is 3 entirely different characters. Obviously its impossible to perform any kind of frequency analysis or something like that on this.

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  • Is this the right way to organize my database tables?

    - by Moss
    So I'm making a website that allows users to build contact lists. So their are users, the users have lists, and the lists have contacts. It seems to me that I need 3 tables for this but I just want to make sure. There would be a User table of course, and then a "List of Lists" table that has the username, and listname, as primary key along with whatever other info we want to attach to the lists as a whole. Finally, for lack of a better word, the List table which would again have the username/listname p.k., then the contact ID and notes and such that the user attaches to that contact on that specific list. I hope that is a clear explanation. For some reason I feel unsure about this arrangement. For one thing if the website becomes popular the List table could swell to billions of rows. And it also feels a little weird that everybody's list info is all jumbled up in the same table. I suppose I could create separate tables for each user and even for each list but that seems like a bad idea for other reasons. My db explanation assumes I can use foreign keys on my tables which at the moment isn't actually an option. If I can't get InnoDB tables enabled I will probably use ID's for the lists instead of depending on a compound key. Maybe I should do this anyway?

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  • C++ cin questions

    - by Kim
    This seems to be weird: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { cout << "function main() .." << '\n'; char ch = 0; double number_value=1.1; cin >> ch; cin.putback(ch); cin >> number_value; cout << "1 .. " << " " << cin.good() << " " << number_value << '\n'; cin >> number_value; cout << "2 .. " << " " << cin.good() << " " << number_value << '\n'; return 0; } If I input the following: 7a 1 I get the following: function main() .. 7a 1 1 .. 1 7 2 .. 0 0 I understand the: 1 .. 1 7 but why the variable number_value is 0. cin.good() shows failure so nothing would have read and the value in number_value from the previous assignment would remain. I expect the value of 7.

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  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

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  • topic-comment naming of functions/methods

    - by Daniel
    I was looking at American Sign Language the other day... and I noticed that the construction of the language was topic-comment. As in "Weather is good". That got me to thinking about why we name methods/functions in the manner of: function getName() { ... } function setName(v) { ... } If we think about naming in a topic-comment function, the function names would be function nameGet() { ... } function nameSet() { ... } This might be better for a class had multiple purposes. IE: class events { function ListAdd(); function ListDelete(); function ListGet(); function EventAdd(); function EventDelete(); function EventGet(); } This way the functions are grouped by "topic". Where as the former naming, functions are grouped Action-Noun, but are sorted by Noun. I thought this was an interesting POV, what do other people think about naming functions/methods Topic-Comment? Obviously, mixing naming conventions up in the same project would be weird, but overall? -daniel

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  • svnsync looses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

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