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  • How can I scale an OSMF player in ActionScript 3/Flex

    - by Greg Hinch
    I am trying to create a simple video player SWF using the open source media framework in Flex 4. I want to make it dynamically scale based on the dimensions of the video, input by the user. I am following the directions on the Adobe help site, but the video does not seem to scale properly. Depending on the size, sometimes videos play larger than the space allotted on the webpage, and sometimes smaller. The only way I have been able to get it to work properly is by including a SWF metadata tag hardcoding the width and height, but I can't use that if I want to make the player dynamically sized. My code is : package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.events.Event; import org.osmf.media.MediaElement; import org.osmf.media.MediaPlayer; import org.osmf.media.URLResource; import org.osmf.containers.MediaContainer; import org.osmf.elements.VideoElement; import org.osmf.layout.LayoutMetadata; public class GalleryVideoPlayer extends Sprite { private var videoElement:VideoElement; private var mediaPlayer:MediaPlayer; private var mediaContainer:MediaContainer; private var flashVars:Object; public function GalleryVideoPlayer() { if (stage) init(); else addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); } private function init(e:Event = null):void { removeEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); flashVars = loaderInfo.parameters; mediaPlayer = new MediaPlayer(); videoElement = new VideoElement(new URLResource(flashVars.file)); mediaContainer = new MediaContainer(); var layoutMetadata:LayoutMetadata = new LayoutMetadata(); layoutMetadata.width = Number(flashVars.width); layoutMetadata.height = Number(flashVars.height); videoElement.addMetadata(LayoutMetadata.LAYOUT_NAMESPACE, layoutMetadata); mediaPlayer.media = videoElement; mediaContainer.addMediaElement(videoElement); addChild(mediaContainer); } }}

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  • Post-loading : check if an image is in the browser cache

    - by Mathieu
    Short version question : Is there navigator.mozIsLocallyAvailable equivalent function that works on all browsers, or an alternative? Long version :) Hi, Here is my situation : I want to implement an HtmlHelper extension for asp.net MVC that handle image post-loading easily (using jQuery). So i render the page with empty image sources with the source specified in the "alt" attribute. I insert image sources after the "window.onload" event, and it works great. I did something like this : $(window).bind('load', function() { var plImages = $(".postLoad"); plImages.each(function() { $(this).attr("src", $(this).attr("alt")); }); }); The problem is : After the first loading, post-loaded images are cached. But if the page takes 10 seconds to load, the cached post-loaded images will be displayed after this 10 seconds. So i think to specify image sources on the "document.ready" event if the image is cached to display them immediatly. I found this function : navigator.mozIsLocallyAvailable to check if an image is in the cache. Here is what I've done with jquery : //specify cached image sources on dom ready $(document).ready(function() { var plImages = $(".postLoad"); plImages.each(function() { var source = $(this).attr("alt") var disponible = navigator.mozIsLocallyAvailable(source, true); if (disponible) $(this).attr("src", source); }); }); //specify uncached image sources after page loading $(window).bind('load', function() { var plImages = $(".postLoad"); plImages.each(function() { if ($(this).attr("src") == "") $(this).attr("src", $(this).attr("alt")); }); }); It works on Mozilla's DOM but it doesn't works on any other one. I tried navigator.isLocallyAvailable : same result. Is there any alternative?

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  • PHP site keeps opening to blank page, no errors.

    - by gene
    First, the premises: PHP loaded on IIS6 on Win2003 STD R2 SP2, PHP_5213 using FastCGI, MySQL_5145. Customer sent me the site files, which I unzipped to C:\InetPub\wwwroot\<site root>, then I created a new site in IIS, pointed to <site root>, added test.php to the site files for testing and it works, but visiting index.php produces a blank page with no errors. The readme.txt file present makes reference to application.php and explains root folder var and sets it to a non-existent file. I don't know PHP syntax, but I tried several logical changes with zero results. At this point I'm not even sure if that is the problem anymore. With PHP, MySQL & site debugging have put in over 20 hours. Still confused, I have resorted to heavy drug use and purchased a small firearm, loaded with a single round (even this seemed to take an inordinate amount of time). I've given up all hope. Someone please help save a new server and/or old administrator.

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  • How can I load a Class contained in a website from a DLL referenced by that website???

    - by Morgeh
    Ok so this is alittle bit obscure and I'm not sure its the best way of doing what I'm trying to do but here goes. Basically I have a Presentation Layer Dll in my web site which handles the Model View Presenter classes. The presentation layer also handles login for my website and then calls off to a web service. Currently whenever the presentation layer calls to a model it verifies the users details and if they are invalid it calls to a loginHandler which redirects the user to the login page. However I cannot dynamically load a new istance of the Login Page in my website from within my Presentation layer. I've tried to use reflection to dynamically load the class but Since the method call is in the presentation assembly it is only looking within that assembly while the page I want to load is in the website. heres the reflection code that loads the View: public ILoginView LoadView() { string viewName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LoginView"].ToString(); Type type = Type.GetType(viewName, true); object newInstance = Activator.CreateInstance(type); return newInstance as ILoginView; } Anyone got any suggestions on how to search within the website assembly? Ideal I don't want to tie this implementation into the website specifically as the presentation layer is also used in a WPF application.

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  • Why is "rake tests" running an empty suite when I use shoulda?

    - by ryeguy
    So here is my test suite: class ReleaseTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase should_not_allow_values_for :title, '', 'blah', 'blah blah' should_allow_values_for :title, 'blah - bleh', 'blah blah - bleh bleh' def test_something assert true end end Shoulda's macros generate 5 tests, and then I have test_something below (just to see if that would matter), totalling 6 tests. They all pass as you can see below, but then it runs a 0-test suite. This happens even if I completely empty out ReleaseTest. This problem only exists if I have config.gem 'shoulda' in my environment.rb. If I explicitly do require 'shoulda' at the top of my tests, everything works fine. What would be causing this? /usr/bin/ruby -e STDOUT.sync=true;STDERR.sync=true;load($0=ARGV.shift) /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/bin/rake test Testing started at 6:58 PM ... (in /home/rlepidi/projects/rails/testproject) /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/unit/release_test.rb" Loaded suite /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader Started ...... Finished in 0.029335778 seconds. 6 tests, 6 assertions, 0 failures, 0 errors, 0 pendings, 0 omissions, 0 notifications 100% passed /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" Loaded suite /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/bin/rake Started Finished in 0.000106717 seconds. 0 tests, 0 assertions, 0 failures, 0 errors, 0 pendings, 0 omissions, 0 notifications 0% passed Empty test suite.

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  • SQLAlchemy DetachedInstanceError with regular attribute (not a relation)

    - by haridsv
    I just started using SQLAlchemy and get a DetachedInstanceError and can't find much information on this anywhere. I am using the instance outside a session, so it is natural that SQLAlchemy is unable to load any relations if they are not already loaded, however, the attribute I am accessing is not a relation, in fact this object has no relations at all. I found solutions such as eager loading, but I can't apply to this because this is not a relation. I even tried "touching" this attribute before closing the session, but it still doesn't prevent the exception. What could be causing this exception for a non-relational property even after it has been successfully accessed once before? Any help in debugging this issue is appreciated. I will meanwhile try to get a reproducible stand-alone scenario and update here. Update: This is the actual exception message with a few stacks: File "/home/hari/bin/lib/python2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.6.1-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/attributes.py", line 159, in __get__ return self.impl.get(instance_state(instance), instance_dict(instance)) File "/home/hari/bin/lib/python2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.6.1-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/attributes.py", line 377, in get value = callable_(passive=passive) File "/home/hari/bin/lib/python2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.6.1-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/state.py", line 280, in __call__ self.manager.deferred_scalar_loader(self, toload) File "/home/hari/bin/lib/python2.6/site-packages/SQLAlchemy-0.6.1-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 2323, in _load_scalar_attributes (state_str(state))) DetachedInstanceError: Instance <ReportingJob at 0xa41cd8c> is not bound to a Session; attribute refresh operation cannot proceed The partial model looks like this: metadata = MetaData() ModelBase = declarative_base(metadata=metadata) class ReportingJob(ModelBase): __tablename__ = 'reporting_job' job_id = Column(BigInteger, Sequence('job_id_sequence'), primary_key=True) client_id = Column(BigInteger, nullable=True) And the field client_id is what is causing this exception with a usage like the below: Query: jobs = session \ .query(ReportingJob) \ .filter(ReportingJob.job_id == job_id) \ .all() if jobs: # FIXME(Hari): Workaround for the attribute getting lazy-loaded. jobs[0].client_id return jobs[0] This is what triggers the exception later out of the session scope: msg = msg + ", client_id: %s" % job.client_id

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  • Optimizing drawing on UITableViewCell

    - by Brian
    I am drawing content to a UITableViewCell and it is working well, but I'm trying to understand if there is a better way of doing this. Each cell has the following components: Thumbnail on the left side - could come from server so it is loaded async Title String - variable length so each cell could be different height Timestamp String Gradient background - the gradient goes from the top of the cell to the bottom and is semi-transparent so that background colors shine through with a gloss It currently works well. The drawing occurs as follows: UITableViewController inits/reuses a cell, sets needed data, and calls [cell setNeedsDisplay] The cell has a CALayer for the thumbnail - thumbnailLayer In the cell's drawRect it draws the gradient background and the two strings The cell's drawRect it then calls setIcon - which gets the thumbnail and sets the image as the contents of the thumbnailLayer. If the image is not found locally, it sets a loading image as the contents of the thumbnailLayer and asynchronously gets the thumbnail. Once the thumbnail is received, it is reset by calling setIcon again & resets the thumbnailLayer.contents This all currently works, but using Instruments I see that the thumbnail is compositing with the gradient. I have tried the following to fix this: setting the cell's backgroundView to a view whose drawRect would draw the gradient so that the cell's drawRect could draw the thumbnail and using setNeedsDisplayInRect would allow me to only redraw the thumbnail after it loaded --- but this resulted in the backgroundView's drawing (gradient) covering the cell's drawing (text). I would just draw the thumbnail in the cell's drawRect, but when setNeedsDisplay is called, drawRect will just overlap another image and the loading image may show through. I would clear the rect, but then I would have to redraw the gradient. I would try to draw the gradient in a CAGradientLayer and store a reference to it, so I can quickly redraw it, but I figured I'd have to redraw the gradient if the cell's height changes. Any ideas? I'm sure I'm missing something so any help would be great.

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  • jQuery HOW TO?? pass additional parameters to success callback for $.ajax call ?

    - by dotnetgeek
    Hello jQuery Ninjas! I am trying, in vain it seems, to be able to pass additional parameters back to the success callback method that I have created for a successful ajax call. A little background. I have a page with a number of dynamically created textbox / selectbox pairs. Each pair having a dynamically assigned unique name such as name="unique-pair-1_txt-url" and name="unique-pair-1_selectBox" then the second pair has the same but the prefix is different. In an effort to reuse code, I have crafted the callback to take the data and a reference to the selectbox. However when the callback is fired the reference to the selectbox comes back as 'undefined'. I read here that it should be doable. I have even tried taking advantage of the 'context' option but still nothing. Here is the script block that I am trying to use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function getImages(urlValue, selectBox) { $j.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $j(urlValue).val(), dataType: "jsonp", context: selectBox, success:function(data){ loadImagesInSelect(data, $j(this)) } , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } function loadImagesInSelect(data, selectBox) { //var select = $j('[name=single_input.<?cs var:op_unique_name ?>.selImageList]'); var select = selectBox; select.empty(); $j(data).each(function() { var theValue = $j(this)[0]["@value"]; var theId = $j(this)[0]["@name"]; select.append("<option value='" + theId + "'>" + theValue + "</option>"); }); select.children(":first").attr("selected", true); } From what I have read, I feel I am close but I just cant put my finger on the missing link. Please help in your typical ninja stealthy ways. TIA

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  • Git Diff with Beyond Compare

    - by Avanst
    I have succeeded in getting git to start Beyond Compare 3 as a diff tool however, when I do a diff, the file I am comparing against is not being loaded. Only the latest version of the file is loaded and nothing else, so there is nothing in the right pane of Beyond Compare. I am running git 1.6.3.1 with Cygwin with Beyond Compare 3. I have set up beyond compare as they suggest in the support part of their website with a script like such: #!/bin/sh # diff is called by git with 7 parameters: # path old-file old-hex old-mode new-file new-hex new-mode "path_to_bc3_executable" "$2" "$5" | cat Has anyone else encountered this problem and know a solution to this? Edit: I have followed the suggestions by VonC but I am still having exactly the same problem as before. I am kinda new to Git so perhaps I am not using the diff correctly. For example, I am trying to see the diff on a file with a command like such: git diff main.css Beyond Compare will then open and only display my current main.css in the left pane, there is nothing in the right pane. I would like the see my current main.css in the left pane compared to the HEAD, basically what I have last committed. My git-diff-wrapper.sh looks like this: #!/bin/sh # diff is called by git with 7 parameters: # path old-file old-hex old-mode new-file new-hex new-mode "c:/Program Files/Beyond Compare 3/BCompare.exe" "$2" "$5" | cat My git config looks like this for Diff: [diff] external = c:/cygwin/bin/git-diff-wrapper.sh

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  • WPF - binding ElementName problem...

    - by zvi
    Hello First Sorry for my English. I wanted to ask why ElementName does not work the first case, and work in the second. I give the two sections of code . the firts not work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=ttt}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" From="10" To="5" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> But it does work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=button1}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Width" From="100" To="50" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> I know I can use Storyboard.TargetName .

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  • iPhone OpenGL and NSTimer issues

    - by Kyle
    I have an NSTimer that runs at 60hz. With an OpenGL scene loaded and rendering, my game can get 60fps, solid, all day long.. Then if I go and recompile the app, or reload it, it will get 40fps. Same resources loaded. I've been running into this problem for years, and I just want to know why. It's crazy, and I want to know if I should just abandon this stupid Timer. Conditions are not different on my 3GS between loads. It will just get 40fps sometimes. Obviously the clockrate is not different between loads, so the performance figures should be constant given a constant scene. Here is a log of my framerates: A good load: :-) FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 FrameRate: 60 FrameRate: 61 Now, I'll go ahead and do nothing, recompile, and run: FrameRate: 43 FrameRate: 50 FrameRate: 45 FrameRate: 48 FrameRate: 40 FrameRate: 45 FrameRate: 42 FrameRate: 41 FrameRate: 42 FrameRate: 44 FrameRate: 41 FrameRate: 46 ^- Massive difference visually. What the flying heck could cause this? SAME area of the scene, SAME camera setup. No variables are different.

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  • Redirection loop problem at facebook iframe application

    - by Sniff
    I do IFrame application for facebook. Problem is: any link inside it causes redirect loop Link is: http://mydomain/mypage?fb_sig=[what I got from $_GET['fb_sig']] (to test I link to the same page as my loaded canvas is loaded from) when I click on it, my server returns: <script type="text/javascript"> top.location.href = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=5dc632fcef992470341178f492f79b93&v=1.0&next=http%3A%2F%2Fthiismydomain%2Ffacebook%2F%3Ffb_sig%3D96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0%26page%3D1"; </script> then it goes to corresponding page, and facebook returns Location: http://thisismydomain/facebook/?fb_sig=96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0&page=1&auth_token=ce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984 then, my server replies with <script type="text/javascript"> top.location.href = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=5dc632fcef992470341178f492f79b93&v=1.0&next=http%3A%2F%2Fthisismydomain%2Ffacebook%2F%3Ffb_sig%3D96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0%26page%3D1%26auth_token%3Dce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984"; </script> and back, facebook replies: Location: http://thisismydomain/facebook/?fb_sig=96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0&page=1&auth_token=ce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984&auth_token=77df653b7949ca39c1a226c82cce8add and it goes on and one without end. Should I say that this redirect responce from my server is generated automately (most probaby my facebook php lib) I have no more ideas why this happends. Any ideas?

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  • Forcing file redirection on x64 for a 32-bit application

    - by Paul Alexander
    The silent redirection of 64-bit system files to their 32-bit equivalents can be turned off and reverted with Wow64DisableWow64FsRedirection and Wow64RevertWow64FsRedirection. We use this for certain file identity checks in our application. The problem is that in performing some of theses tasks, we might call a framework or Windows API in a DLL that has not yet been loaded. If redirection is enabled at that time, the wrong version of the dll may be loaded resulting in a XXX is not a valid Win32 application error. I've identified the few API calls in question and what I'd like to do force the redirection on for the duration of that call then revert it back - just the opposite of the provided Win32 APIs. Unfortunately these calls do not provide any sort of WOW64 compatibility flag like some of the registry methods do. The obvious alternative is to use Wow64EnableWow64FsRedirection, pass TRUE for Wow64FsEanbledRedirection. However there are a variety of warnings about the use of this method and a note that it is not compatible with Disable/Revert combo methods that have replaced it. Is there a safe way to force redirection on for a give Win32 call? The docs state the redirection is thread specific so I've considered spinning up a new thread for the specific call with appropriate locks and waits, but I was hoping for a simpler solution.

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  • Sort on DataView does not work if DataTable has zero rows

    - by BigBlondeViking
    We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid insode a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { var dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

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  • python __import__() imports from 2 different directories when same module exists in 2 locations

    - by programer_gramer
    Hi, I have a python application , which has directory structure like this. -pythonapp -mainpython.py -module1 -submodule1 -file1.py -file2.py -submodule2 -file3.py -file3.py -submodule3 -file1.py -file2.py -file5.py -file6.py -file7.py when I try to import the python utilities(from mainpython.py) under submodule3 , I get the initial 2 files from submodule1.(please note that submodule1 and 3 have 2 different files with the same name). However the same import works fine when there is no conflict i.e it correctly imports file 5,6,7 from submodule3. Here is the code : name=os.path.splitext(os.path.split("module1\submodule3\file1.py")[1])[0] -- file1.py name here is passed dynamically. module = import(name) //Here is name is like "file1" it works(but with the above said issue, though, when passes the name of the file dynamically), but if I pass complete package as "module1.submodule1.file1" it fails with an ImportError saying that "no module with name file1" Now the question is how do we tell the interpreter to use only the ones under "module1.submodule3.file2"? I am using python This is really urgent one and I have run out of all the tries. Hope some experienced python developers can solve this for me?

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  • jQuery Colorbox Iframe and Selector

    - by Joker
    I have this: $("a.money").colorbox({href:$("a.money").attr("href")+" div#content"}); Which opens an overlay but only of the content within the #content selector. If I add iframe:true, this will no longer work. Is there a way to get it to work with an iframe? Edit: The closest I could get it to work was by doing this: $("a.money").colorbox({iframe:true, width:700, height:425, onComplete: function() { alert('test'); $test = $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#content").html(); $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#container").html($test); } }); Although without the alert it doesn't appear to work, I looked into that and I think I need to use .live(), which led me to trying this: $('a.money').live('click', function() { url = this.href; // this is the url of the element event is triggered from $.fn.colorbox({href: url, iframe:true,width:700, height:425, onComplete: function() { $test = $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#content").html(); $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#container").html($test); } }); return false; }); Didn't work, I still needed to add an alert to make it work. In case you might be wondering what I'm trying to do. The webpage is loaded in the iframe, with all the elements in the #container, so that includes #header, #sidebars, but I only want to show the #content inside the iframe. However, this led me to another problem I realized. Assuming I got this to work without the alert, it will only work for that initial page. For example, if I loaded up a form in the iframe, after submitting the form, I would once again see the whole layout instead of just the #content portion. Is it possible to continue only showing the #content portion of the page upon further navigation?

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  • C sharp code cleanup : resharper

    - by Ankit Rathod
    Hello, I just used Resharper in one application and it made me feel as if i don't know how to code at all in C# :(. On every line it gave me it's suggestions :- Few of Resharper's favorite suggestions are :- 1) SomObject o = new SomeObject(); Resharper will convert to : var o = new SomeObject() 2) this.Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); to this.Loaded += MainPage_Loaded; 3) convert my variables and putting _ in front of all instance variables. 4) Removing class parent's name. I tested this on Silverlight. public partial class MainPage : UserControl to public partial class MainPage EDIT :- 5) replace instance variable this.variable = somevalue to variable = somevalue Are all of these really necessary? Is it really going to affect the efficiency of my program? I mean what good is it going to do by replacing my class names with var keyword. After all var is also replaced with class name at compile time. Is it doing because it has been programmed to do or do these things really affect in some or another way? Thanks in advance :)

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  • Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

    - by Chris
    I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

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  • getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

    - by Nir
    I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

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  • Can I output/flush data to screen while processing ajax page?

    - by Bee
    I need to display on my page a list of records pulled from a table. Ajax works fine (I query the database and put all the data inside a on the main page) but if I have lots of records (say 500+) it will hang until data is fully loaded, THEN it will be sent back to the page and correctly displayed. I would like to be able to display the records on the page while getting them, instead of being forced to wait until completion. I am trying with flush(); inside the remote (ajax) page but it still waits until full data is loaded. This is what I currently have inside the ajax page: At the very beginning: @apache_setenv('no-gzip', 1); @ini_set('zlib.output_compression', 0); @ini_set('implicit_flush', 1); for ($i = 0; $i < ob_get_level(); $i++) { ob_end_flush(); } ob_implicit_flush(1); Then whenever I have a echo call: ob_flush(); Now if I load the ajax page alone... it will list the records while reading them from the database. But if I call the same page via Ajax, it will hang and send all the data at once. Any idea? This is the function I use to get the ajax content ('id' is the target , 'url' refers to the ajax page that runs the database query to list the records): function ajax(id,url) { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,false); xmlhttp.send(null); document.getElementById(id).innerHTML = parseScript(xmlhttp.responseText); }

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  • Binding DataTemplates (or another aproach)

    - by Bataglião
    Hi all, I'm having some troubles trying to dynamically generate content in WPF and after it bind data. I have the following scenario: TabControl - Dynamically generated TabItems through DataTemplate - inside TabItems, I have dynamic content generated by DataTemplate that I wish to bind (ListBox). The code follows: ::TabControl <TabControl Height="252" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="tabControl1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="458" Margin="12,12,12,12" ContentTemplate="{StaticResource tabItemContent}"></TabControl> ::The Template for TabControl to generate TabItems <DataTemplate x:Key="tabItemContent"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <ListBox ItemTemplate="{StaticResource listBoxContent}" ItemsSource="{Binding}"> </ListBox> </Grid> </DataTemplate> ::The template for ListBox Inside each TabItem <DataTemplate x:Key="listBoxContent"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="22"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Grid.Column="0" Source="{Binding Path=PluginIcon}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding Path=Text}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> So, when I try to do this on code inside a loop to create the tabitems: TabItem tabitem = tabControl1.Items[catIndex] as TabItem; tabitem.DataContext = plugins.ToList(); where 'plugins' is an Enumerable The ListBox is not bounded. I tried also to find the ListBox inside the TabItem to set the ItemSource property but no success at all. Someone have an idea on how to do that? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to fix this java.lang.LinkageError?

    - by Péter Török
    I am trying to configure a custom layout class to Log4J as described in my previous post. The class uses java.util.regex.Matcher to identify potential credit card numbers in log messages. It works perfectly in unit tests (I can also programmatically configure a logger to use it and produce the expected output). However when I try to deploy it with our app in JBoss, I get the following error: --- MBEANS THAT ARE THE ROOT CAUSE OF THE PROBLEM --- ObjectName: jboss.web.deployment:war=MyWebApp-2010_02-SNAPSHOT.war,id=476602902 State: FAILED Reason: java.lang.LinkageError: java/util/regex/Matcher I couldn't even find any info on this form of the error - typically LinkageError seems to show up with a "loader constrain violation" message, like in here. Technical details: we use JBoss 4.2, Java 5, Log4J 1.2.12. We deploy our app in an .ear, which contains (among others) the above mentioned .war file, and the custom layout class in a separate jar file. We override the default settings in jboss-log4J.xml with our own log4j.properties located in a different folder, which is added to the classpath at startup, and is provided via Carbon. I can only guess: are two different Matcher class versions loaded from somewhere, or is Matcher loaded by two different classloaders when it is used from the jar and the war? What does this error message mean, and how can I fix it?

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • Problems using Maven to initialize a local thoughtsite (App Engine sample) project in Eclipse

    - by ovr
    This sample app ("thoughtsite") for App Engine contains a pom.xml in its trunk: http://code.google.com/p/thoughtsite/source/browse/#svn/trunk I ran mvn eclipse:eclipse and also tried using m2eclipse to import this source code into an Eclipse project. But I end up with this error despite the fact that I have the Google App Engine plugin and the Google App Engine SDK installed: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkImplInfo.<clinit>(SdkImplInfo.java:19) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.Logging.initializeLogging(Logging.java:36) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerMain.main(DevAppServerMain.java:82) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to discover the Google App Engine SDK root. This code should be loaded from the SDK directory, but was instead loaded from file:~/.m2/repository/com/google/appengine/appengine-tools-sdk/1.3.0/appengine-tools-sdk-1.3.0.jar. Specify -Dappengine.sdk.root to override the SDK location. at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.findSdkRoot(SdkInfo.java:106) at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.<clinit>(SdkInfo.java:24) ... 3 more When I go into the project settings under "Google" and try to set it to use the default App Engine SDK it always reverts to trying to use Maven's App Engine SDK instead. No idea how to get this project working.

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  • Java 2D Resize

    - by jon077
    I have some old Java 2D code I want to reuse, but was wondering, is this the best way to get the highest quality images? public static BufferedImage getScaled(BufferedImage imgSrc, Dimension dim) { // This code ensures that all the pixels in the image are loaded. Image scaled = imgSrc.getScaledInstance( dim.width, dim.height, Image.SCALE_SMOOTH); // This code ensures that all the pixels in the image are loaded. Image temp = new ImageIcon(scaled).getImage(); // Create the buffered image. BufferedImage bufferedImage = new BufferedImage(temp.getWidth(null), temp.getHeight(null), BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); // Copy image to buffered image. Graphics g = bufferedImage.createGraphics(); // Clear background and paint the image. g.setColor(Color.white); g.fillRect(0, 0, temp.getWidth(null),temp.getHeight(null)); g.drawImage(temp, 0, 0, null); g.dispose(); // j2d's image scaling quality is rather poor, especially when // scaling down an image to a much smaller size. We'll post filter // our images using a trick found at // http://blogs.cocoondev.org/mpo/archives/003584.html // to increase the perceived quality.... float origArea = imgSrc.getWidth() * imgSrc.getHeight(); float newArea = dim.width * dim.height; if (newArea <= (origArea / 2.)) { bufferedImage = blurImg(bufferedImage); } return bufferedImage; } public static BufferedImage blurImg(BufferedImage src) { // soften factor - increase to increase blur strength float softenFactor = 0.010f; // convolution kernel (blur) float[] softenArray = { 0, softenFactor, 0, softenFactor, 1-(softenFactor*4), softenFactor, 0, softenFactor, 0}; Kernel kernel = new Kernel(3, 3, softenArray); ConvolveOp cOp = new ConvolveOp(kernel, ConvolveOp.EDGE_NO_OP, null); return cOp.filter(src, null); }

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