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• Yacc and Lex inclusion confusion

  - by thejohnmeister

  I am wondering how to correctly compile a program with a Makefile that has calls to yyparse in it? This is what I do: I have a Makefile that compiles all my regular files and they have no connections to y.tab.c or lex.yy.c (Am I supposed to have them?) I do this on top of my code: #include "y.tab.c" #include "lex.yy.c" #include "y.tab.h" This is what happens when I try to make the program: When I just type in "make", it gives me many warnings. Some of the examples are shown below. In function yywrap': /src/parser.y:12: multiple definition ofyywrap' server.o :/src/parser.y:12: first defined here utils.o: In function yyparse': /src/y.tab.c:1175: multiple definition ofyyparse' server.o:/src/y.tab.c:1175: first defined here utils.o I get many different errors referring to different yy_* files. I have compiled successfully with multiple calls to yyparse in the past, but this time seems to be different. It seems an awful lot like an inclusion problem somewhere but I can't tell what it is. All my header files have ifndef conditions, as well. Thanks for your help!

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• VSTS Team Build Mail notification should include the "associateChangeSets"

  - by Kris

  Team Build Guru's I am looking for "Associated ChangeSets" list included in the build mail notifications say, by default we get a build notification like this, Team Project: Content Server Build Number: MerchantPortal_1.0.0707.69 Build Agent: \Content Server\MerchantPortalBuildBox Build Definition: \Content Server\MerchantPortal QA Build started by: ENETDOM\jrichter Build Start Time: 7/7/2009 8:25:30 AM Build Finish Time: 7/7/2009 8:30:49 AM Notes: - All dates and times are shown in GMT -05:00:00 Central Daylight Time - You are receiving this notification because of a subscription created by ENETDOM\enbuild Provided by Microsoft Visual Studio® Team System 2008 What I really would like is an email containing the changes. So the user does NOT have to click an URL to retrieve the list of changes. So... I would the mail to look something like this instead: Team Project: Content Server Build Number: MerchantPortal_1.0.0707.69 Build Agent: \Content Server\MerchantPortalBuildBox Build Definition: \Content Server\MerchantPortal QA Build started by: ENETDOM\enbuild Build Start Time: 7/7/2009 8:25:30 AM Build Finish Time: 7/7/2009 8:30:49 AM **Associated changesets: 482 DOMAIN\johny Not needed... 486 DOMAIN\adam A final synchronization with SourceSafe files after the 15 december release. 487 DOMAIN\bob Corrected the naught millenium bug.... 488 DOMAIN\sarah Reverted back to csproj file with SC changes.... Associated work items:** .... Notes: - All dates and times are shown in GMT -05:00:00 Central Daylight Time - You are receiving this notification because of a subscription created by ENETDOM\enbuild Provided by Microsoft Visual Studio® Team System 2008

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• Parsing large delimited files with dynamic number of columns

  - by annelie

  Hi, What would be the best approach to parse a delimited file when the columns are unknown before parsing the file? The file format is Rightmove v3 (.blm), the structure looks like this: #HEADER# Version : 3 EOF : '^' EOR : '~' #DEFINITION# AGENT_REF^ADDRESS_1^POSTCODE1^MEDIA_IMAGE_00~ // can be any number of columns #DATA# agent1^the address^the postcode^an image~ agent2^the address^the postcode^^~ // the records have to have the same number of columns as specified in the definition, however they can be empty etc #END# The files can potentially be very large, the example file I have is 40Mb but they could be several hundred megabytes. Below is the code I had started on before I realised the columns were dynamic, I'm opening a filestream as I read that was the best way to handle large files. I'm not sure my idea of putting every record in a list then processing is any good though, don't know if that will work with such large files. List<string> recordList = new List<string>(); try { using (FileStream fs = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read)) { StreamReader file = new StreamReader(fs); string line; while ((line = file.ReadLine()) != null) { string[] records = line.Split('~'); foreach (string item in records) { if (item != String.Empty) { recordList.Add(item); } } } } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } foreach (string r in recordList) { Property property = new Property(); string[] fields = r.Split('^'); // can't do this as I don't know which field is the post code property.PostCode = fields[2]; // etc propertyList.Add(property); } Any ideas of how to do this better? It's C# 3.0 and .Net 3.5 if that helps. Thanks, Annelie

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• Why Finalize method not allowed to override

  - by somaraj

  I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

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• Subversion svn:externals - What's wrong here?

  - by Brandon Montgomery

  I first want to say I've read the Subversion manual. I've read this question. I've also read this question. Here's my dilemma. Let's say I have 3 repositories laid out like this: DataAccessObject/ branches/ tags/ trunk/ DataAccessObject/ DataAccessObjectTests/ PlanObject/ branches/ tags/ trunk/ PlanObject/ PlanObjectTests/ WinFormsPlanViewer/ branches/ tags/ trunk/ WinFormsPlanViewer/ The PlanObject and DataAccessObject repositories contain shared projects. They are used by the WinFormsPlanViewer, but also by several other projects in several other repositories. Bear with me here. I put an svn:externals definition on the WinFormsPlanViewer/trunk folder like this: https://server/svn/PlanObject/trunk Objects https://server/svn/DataAccessObject/trunk Objects And here's what I see after I do an svn update. WinFormsPlanViewer/ branches/ tags/ trunk/ WinFormsPlanViewer/ Objects/ DataAccessObject/ DataAccessObjectTests/ The PlanObject stuff doesn't even come down in the update! I don't know if this has anything to do with it, but there's an externals definition on the PlanObject/trunk folder also: https://server/svn/DataAccessObject/trunk Objects What's going on here? What am I doing wrong? Are there bad consequences of referencing the PlanObject and the DataAccessObject from the WinFormsPlanViewer using svn:externals when the PlanObject references the DataAccessObject using svn:externals also?

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• NSDate out of scope

  - by therealtkd

  Having problems with out of scope for NSDate in an iphone app. I have an interface defined like this: @interface MyObject : NSoObject { NSMutableArray *array; BOOL checkThis; NSDate *nextDue; } Now in the implementation I have this: -(id) init { if( (self=[super init]) ) { checkThis = NO; array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; nextDue = [[NSDate date] retain]; NSDate *testDate = [NSDate date]; } return self; } Now, if I trace through the init, before I actually assign the variables checkThis shows as boolean. array shows as pointer 0x0 because it hasn't ben assigned. But the nextDue is showing as 'out of scope'. I don't understand why this is out of scope but the other variables aren't. If I trace through the code until after the variables are assigned, array now shows as being correctly assigned but nextDue is still out of scope. Interestingly, the testDate variable is assigned just fine and the debugger shows this as a valid date. Further interesting point is if I move the mouse over the testDate variable while I am debugging, it shows as an 'NSDate *' type which I would expect since that's its definition. Yet the nextDue, which to me is defined the same way is showing as a '_NSCFDate *'. Any googling I did on the subject said that the retain is the problem, but its actually out of scope before I even try to assign the variable. However, in another class, the same definition for NSDate work ok. It shows as nil before a value is assigned to it. Arghhh

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• Translate XSD element names to English

  - by Coov

  I have an XML Schema Definition file .XSD who's elements are in Spanish. I have an XML data file that is also in Spanish that matches the schema definition. I created a dataset from the xsd using xsd.exe and I'm loading the XML into the dataset. I want to translate the element names to English. I can think of two options off the top of my head. Either scrape the XSD & XML files and translate the elements prior to generating the dataset with esd.exe, or iterate the dataset after I have loaded it with the xml, and translate my objects. I do have a written document that provides the English names for every element name in Spanish. The problem is there are hundreds of elements and I was trying to avoid coding that manually. Getting precise translations is not that important, it just needs to be readable by an English speaking person. Here is an example of what an element may look like "Apellidos": <xs:element name="Apellidos" type="xs:string"/> that I will translate to "SirName": <xs:element name="SirName" type="xs:string"/> I'm looking for ideas and or opinions on a quick way to do this. It's a one time deal so I'm not working about it scaling or being functional for things other than this single xml file. I'll be taking this dataset and writing out a flat file for English speaking users to read.

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• ASP.NET MVC - Binding a Child Entity to the Model

  - by Nathan Taylor

  This one seems painfully obvious to me, but for some reason I can't get it working the way I want it to. Perhaps it isn't possible the way I am doing it, but that seems unlikely. This question may be somewhat related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1274855/asp-net-mvc-model-binding-related-entities-on-same-page. I have an EditorTemplate to edit an entity with multiple related entity references. When the editor is rendered the user is given a drop down list to select related entities from, with the drop down list returning an ID as its value. <%=Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.Entity.ID)%> When the request is sent the form value is named as expected: "Entity.ID", however my strongly typed Model defined as an action parameter doesn't have Entity.ID populated with the value passed in the request. public ActionResult AddEntity(EntityWithChildEntities entityWithChildEntities) { } I tried fiddling around with the Bind() attribute and specified Bind(Include = "Entity.ID") on the entityWithChildEntities, but that doesn't seem to work. I also tried Bind(Include = "Entity"), but that resulted in the ModelBinder attempting to bind a full "Entity" definition (not surprisingly). Is there any way to get the default model binder to fill the child entity ID or will I need to add action parameters for each child entity's ID and then manually copy the values into the model definition?

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• explicit template instantiations

  - by user323422

  see following code and please clear doubts1. as ABC is template why it not showing error when we put defination of ABC class member function in test.cpp 2.if i put test.cpp code in test.h and remve 2 , then it working fine. // test.h template <typename T> class ABC { public: void foo( T& ); void bar( T& ); }; // test.cpp template <typename T> void ABC<T>::foo( T& ) {} // definition template <typename T> void ABC<T>::bar( T& ) {} // definition template void ABC<char>::foo( char & ); // 1 template class ABC<char>; // 2 // main.cpp #include "test.h" int main() { ABC<char> a; a.foo(); // valid with 1 or 2 a.bar(); // link error if only 1, valid with 2 }

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• Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

  - by Zarion

  Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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• debugging scaffolding contingent upon degbugging boolean (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• TFS 2010 Build gives WorkItemStore error when Create Work Item on Failure is enabled

  - by Derek Morrison

  I'm using TFS 2010 Build. I have a build definition that uses the DefaultTemplate.xaml template that's stock in TFS 2010, and the Create Work Item on Failure property is set to True in the build definition. I deliberately made a change in my project that breaks the build. When the build runs, I see the compilation error reflected in the TFS Build log within Visual Studio, but I get the error "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: WorkItemStore" when TFS Build next tries to generate a Work Item for the broken build. I tracked down the activity in DefaultTemplate.xaml (see the rather lengthy path to it below) where the Work Item is created for a broken build, and I see it uses the Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.Workflow.Activities.OpenWorkItem class to create the Work Item. The appropriate values seemed to be filled out in the Properties window for the Create Work Item activity, so I don't see where I can pass WorkItemStore to it and I don't even know appropriate values for this setting. Path to the Create Work Item activity: Process Sequence Run On Agent Try Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Sequence Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Try Compile and Test Compile and Test For Each Configuration in BuildSettings.PlatformConfigurations Compile and Test for Configuration If BuildSettings.HasProjectsToBuild For Each Project in BuildSettings.ProjectsToBuild Try to Compile the Project Handle Exception If CreateWorkItem Create Work Item for non-Shelveset Builds Create Work Item

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• Using generics in Unity ... InvalidCastException

  - by Sunny D

  Hi, My interface definition is: public interface IInterface where T:UserControl My class definition is: public partial class App1Control : UserControl, IInterface The unity section of my app.config looks as below: <unity> <typeAliases> <typeAlias alias="singleton" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ContainerControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="myInterface" type="MyApplication.IInterface`1, MyApplication" /> <typeAlias alias="App1" type="MyApplication.App1Control, MyApplication" /> </typeAliases> <containers> <container> <types> <type type="myInterface" mapTo="App1" name="Application 1"> <lifetime type="singleton"/> </type> </types> </container> </containers> </unity> The app runs fine but, the following code gives a InvalidCastException container.Resolve<IInterface<UserControl>>("Application 1"); The error message is : Unable to cast object of type 'MyApplication.App1Control' to type 'MyApplication.IInterface`1[System.Windows.Forms.UserControl]' I believe there is a minor mistake in my code ... but am not able to figure out what. Any thoughts?

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• oracle query with inconsistent results

  - by Spencer Stejskal

  Im having a very strange problem, i have a complicated view that returns incorrect data when i query on a particular column. heres an example: select empname, has_garnishment from timecard_v2 where empname = 'Testerson, Testy'; this returns the single result 'Testerson, Testy', 'N' however, if i use the query: select empname, has_garnishment from timecard_v2 where empname = 'Testerson, Testy' and has_garnishment = 'Y'; this returns the single result 'Testerson, Testy', 'Y' The second query should return a subset of the first query, but it returns a different answer. I have dissected the view and determined that this section of the view definition is where the problem arises(Note, I removed all of the select clause except the parts of interests for clarity, in the full query all joined tables are required): SELECT e.fullname empname , NVL2(ded.has_garn, 'Y', 'N') has_garnishment FROM timecard tc , orderdetail od , orderassign oa , employee e , employee3 e3 , customer10 c10 , order_misc om, (SELECT COUNT(*) has_garn, v_ssn FROM deductions WHERE yymmdd_stop = 0 OR (LENGTH(yymmdd_stop) = 7 AND to_date(SUBSTR(yymmdd_stop, 2), 'YYMMDD') sysdate) GROUP BY v_ssn ) ded WHERE oa.lrn(+) = tc.lrn_order AND om.lrn(+) = od.lrn AND od.orderno = oa.orderno AND e.ssn = tc.ssn AND c10.custno = tc.custno AND e.lrn = e3.lrn AND e.ssn = ded.v_ssn(+) One thing of note about the definition of the 'ded' subquery. The v_ssn field is a virtual field on the deductions table. I am not a DBA im a software developer but we recently lost our DBA and the new one is still getting up to speed so im trying to debug this issue. That being said, please explain things a little more thoroughly then you would for a fellow oracle expert. thanks

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• Template operator linker error

  - by Dani

  I have a linker error I've reduced to a simple example. The build output is: debug/main.o: In function main': C:\Users\Dani\Documents\Projects\Test1/main.cpp:5: undefined reference tolog& log::operator<< (char const (&) [6])' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status It looks like the linker ignores the definition in log.cpp. I also cant put the definition in log.h because I include the file alot of times and it complains about redefinitions. main.cpp: #include "log.h" int main() { log() << "hello"; return 0; } log.h: #ifndef LOG_H #define LOG_H class log { public: log(); template<typename T> log &operator <<(T &t); }; #endif // LOG_H log.cpp: #include "log.h" #include <iostream> log::log() { } template<typename T> log &log::operator <<(T &t) { std::cout << t << std::endl; return *this; }

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• dynamically created controls and responding to control events

  - by Dirk

  I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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• drupal form textfield #default_value not working

  - by alvin.ng

  I am working on a custom module with multi-page form on drupal 6. I found that #default_value is not working when my '#type' = 'textfield'. However, when '#type'='textarea', it displays correctly with the '#default_value' specified. Basically, I wrote a FormFactory to return different form definition ($form) based on the post parameter received. Initially, it returns the display of directories list, user then selects from radio buttos until a specific directory contains a xml file, it will become edit form. The edit form will have text fields display the data (#default_value) inside the xml file, however the type 'textarea' works here rather than 'textfield'. How can I make my '#default_value' work in this case? Below is the non-working field definition: $form['pageset']['newsTitle'] = array( '#type' => 'textfield', '#title' => 'News Title', '#default_value' => "{$element->newsTitle}", '#rows' => 1, '#required' => TRUE, ); Then I changed it to textarea as shown below to make it work: $form['pageset']['newsTitle'] = array( '#type' => 'textarea', '#title' => 'News Title', '#default_value' => "{$element->newsTitle}", '#rows' => 1, '#required' => TRUE, );

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• how useful is Turing completeness? are neural nets turing complete?

  - by Albert

  While reading some papers about the Turing completeness of recurrent neural nets (for example: Turing computability with neural nets, Hava T. Siegelmann and Eduardo D. Sontag, 1991), I got the feeling that the proof which was given there was not really that practical. For example the referenced paper needs a neural network which neuron activity must be of infinity exactness (to reliable represent any rational number). Other proofs need a neural network of infinite size. Clearly, that is not really that practical. But I started to wonder now if it does make sense at all to ask for Turing completeness. By the strict definition, no computer system nowadays is Turing complete because none of them will be able to simulate the infinite tape. Interestingly, programming language specification leaves it most often open if they are turing complete or not. It all boils down to the question if they will always be able to allocate more memory and if the function call stack size is infinite. Most specification don't really specify this. Of course all available implementations are limited here, so all practical implementations of programming languages are not Turing complete. So, what you can say is that all computer systems are just equally powerful as finite state machines and not more. And that brings me to the question: How useful is the term Turing complete at all? And back to neural nets: For any practical implementation of a neural net (including our own brain), they will not be able to represent an infinite number of states, i.e. by the strict definition of Turing completeness, they are not Turing complete. So does the question if neural nets are Turing complete make sense at all? The question if they are as powerful as finite state machines was answered already much earlier (1954 by Minsky, the answer of course: yes) and also seems easier to answer. I.e., at least in theory, that was already the proof that they are as powerful as any computer.

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• Why doesn't 'Q' unify in this PROLOG program

  - by inspectorG4dget

  Hello SO, I am writing a PROLOG program in which the variable of interest (Q) refuses to unify. I have gotten around this with a hacky solution (include a write statement). But there has to be a way to make this unify, but for the love of me, I am not able to figure it out. I'd really appreciate any help. Thanks in advance. Here is my code (I have annotated wherever I have excluded code for brevity) :- use_module(library(bounds)). :- use_module(library(lists)). solve([17],Q,_,_,_):- write(Q). %this is the hacky workaround solve(L,Q,1,3,2) :- jump(L,Q,N,1,3,2,R), solve(N,R,S,D,M), member([S|[D|[M|[]]]],[[1, 3, 2], [1, 9, 4], [2, 10, 5] this list contains 76 items - all of which are lists of length 3. I have omitted them here for the sake of brevity]). % there are about 75 other definitions for solve, all of which are structured exactly the same. The only difference is that the numbers in the input parameters will be different in each definition jump(L,Q,N,S,D,M,R):- member(S,L), not(member(D,L)), member(M,L), delete(L,S,X), delete(X,M,Y), append(Y,[D],N), append(Q,[[S,D]],R). cross_sol(Q) :- solve([5,9,10,11,17,24],[],S,D,M), member([S,D,M], [ I have edited out this list here for the sake of brevity. It is the same list found in the definition of solve ]). For some reason, Q does not unify. Please help!

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• special debugging lines (java)

  - by David

  Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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• Problem using Lazy<T> from within a generic abstract class

  - by James Black

  I have a generic class that all my DAO classes derive from, which is defined below. I also have a base class for all my entities, but that is not generic. The method GetIdOrSave is going to be a different type than how I defined SabaAbstractDAO, as I am trying to get the primary key to fulfill the foreign key relationships, so this function goes out to either get the primary key or save the entity and then get the primary key. The last code snippet has a solution on how it will work if I get rid of the generic part, so I think this can be solved by using variance, but I can't figure out how to write an interface that will compile. public abstract class SabaAbstractDAO<T> { ... public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaAbstractDAO<BaseModel>> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { if (item != null && item.Id.IsNull()) { var itemdao = lazyitemdao.Value; item.Id = itemdao.retrieveID(item); if (item.Id.IsNull()) { return itemdao.SaveData(item); } } return item; } } I am getting this error, when I try to compile: Argument 2: cannot convert from 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaCourseDAO>' to 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaAbstractDAO<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Models.BaseModel>>' I am trying to call it this way: GetIdOrSave(input.OfferingTemplate, new Lazy<SabaCourseDAO>( () => { return new SabaCourseDAO() { Dao = Dao }; }) ); If I change the definition to this, it works. public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaCourseDAO> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { So, how can I get this to compile using variance (if needed) and generics, so I can have a very general method that will only work with BaseModel and AbstractDAO<BaseModel>? I expect I should only need to make the change in the method and perhaps abstract class definition, the usage should be fine.

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• Why does one of these statements compile in Scala but not the other?

  - by Jeff

  (Note: I'm using Scala 2.7.7 here, not 2.8). I'm doing something pretty simple -- creating a map based on the values in a simple, 2-column CSV file -- and I've completed it easily enough, but I'm perplexed at why my first attempt didn't compile. Here's the code: // Returns Iterator[String] private def getLines = Source.fromFile(csvFilePath).getLines // This doesn't compile: def mapping: Map[String,String] = { Map(getLines map { line: String => val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() }.toList:_*) } // This DOES compile def mapping: Map[String,String] = { def strPair(line: String): (String,String) = { val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() } Map(getLines.map( strPair(_) ).toList:_*) } The compiler error is CsvReader.scala:16: error: value toList is not a member of (St ring) = (java.lang.String, java.lang.String) [scalac] possible cause: maybe a semicolon is missing before `value toList'? [scalac] }.toList:_*) [scalac] ^ [scalac] one error found So what gives? They seem like they should be equivalent to me, apart from the explicit function definition (vs. anonymous in the nonworking example) and () vs. {}. If I replace the curly braces with parentheses in the nonworking example, the error is "';' expected, but 'val' found." But if I remove the local variable definition and split the string twice AND use parens instead of curly braces, it compiles. Can someone explain this difference to me, preferably with a link to Scala docs explaining the difference between parens and curly braces when used to surround method arguments?

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• Does this language feature already exists?

  - by Pindatjuh

  I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

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• Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

  - by thecoop

  Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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• Dynamically created controls and the ASP.NET page lifecycle

  - by Dirk

  I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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