Search Results

Search found 20659 results on 827 pages for 'var'.

Page 123/827 | < Previous Page | 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130  | Next Page >

  • What's a clean way to have the server return a JavaScript function which would then be invoked?

    - by Khnle
    My application is architected as a host of plug-ins that have not yet been written. There's a long reason for this, but with each new year, the business logic will be different and we don't know what it will be like (Think of TurboTax if that helps). The plug-ins consist of both server and client components. The server components deals with business logic and persisting the data into database tables which will be created at a later time as well. The JavaScript manipulates the DOM for the browsers to render afterward. Each plugin lives in a separate assembly, so that they won't disturb the main application, i.e., we don't want to recompile the main application. Long story short, I am looking for a way to return JavaScript functions to the client from an Ajax get request, and execute these JavaScript functions (which are just returned). Invoking a function in Javascript is easy. The hard part is how to organize or structure so that I won't have to deal with maintenance problem. So concat using StringBuilder to end up with JavaScript code as a result of calling toString() from the string builder object is out of the question. I want to have no difference between writing JavaScript codes normally and writing Javascript codes for this dynamic purpose. An alternative is to manipulate the DOM on the server side, but I doubt that it would be as elegantly as using jQuery on the client side. I am open for a C# library that supports chainable calls like jQuery that also manipulates the DOM too. Do you have any idea or is it too much to ask or are you too confused? Edit1: The point is to avoid recompiling, hence the plug-ins architecture. In some other parts of the program, I already use the concept of dynamically loading Javascript files. That works fine. What I am looking here is somewhere in the middle of the program when an Ajax request is sent to the server. Edit 2: To illustrate my question: Normally, you would see the following code. An Ajax request is sent to the server, a JSON result is returned to the client which then uses jQuery to manipulate the DOM (creating tag and adding to the container in this case). $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: someUrl, data: {'': ''}, success: function(data) { var ul = $('<ul>').appendTo(container); var decoded = $.parseJSON(data); $.each(decoded, function(i, e) { var li = $('<li>').text(e.FIELD1 + ',' + e.FIELD2 + ',' + e.FIELD3); ul.append(li); }); } }); The above is extremely simple. But next year, what the server returns is totally different and how the data to be rendered would also be different. In a way, this is what I want: var container = $('#some-existing-element-on-the-page'); $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: someUrl, data: {'': ''}, success: function(data) { var decoded = $.parseJSON(data); var fx = decoded.fx; var data = decode.data; //fx is the dynamic function that create the DOM from the data and append to the existing container fx(container, data); } }); I don't need to know, at this time what data would be like, but in the future I will, and I can then write fx accordingly.

    Read the article

  • Seeding many to many tables with Entity Framework

    - by Doozer1979
    I have a meeting entity and a users entity which have a many to many relationship. I'm using Autopoco to create seed data for the Users and meetings How do i seed the UserMeetings linking table that is created by EntityFramework with seed data? The linking table has two fields in it; User_Id, and Meeting_ID. I'm looping through the list of users that autopoco creates and attaching a random number of meetings Here's what i've got so far. foreach (var user in userList) { var rand = new Random(); var amountOfMeetingsToAdd = rand.Next(1, 300); for (var i = 0; i <= amountOfMeetingsToAdd; i++) { var randomMeeting = rand.Next(1, MeetingRecords); //Error occurs on This line user.Meetings.Add(_meetings[randomMeeting]); } } I got an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object.' even though the meeting record that i'm trying to attach does exist. For info all this is happening prior to me saving the context to the DB.

    Read the article

  • Switch statement for string matching in JavaScript

    - by yaya3
    How do I write a swtich for the following conditional? If the url contains "foo", then settings.base_url is "bar". The following is achieving the effect required but I've a feeling this would be more manageable in a switch: var doc_location = document.location.href; var url_strip = new RegExp("http:\/\/.*\/"); var base_url = url_strip.exec(doc_location) var base_url_string = base_url[0]; //BASE URL CASES // LOCAL if (base_url_string.indexOf('xxx.local') > -1) { settings = { "base_url" : "http://xxx.local/" }; } // DEV if (base_url_string.indexOf('xxx.dev.yyy.com') > -1) { settings = { "base_url" : "http://xxx.dev.yyy.com/xxx/" }; } Thanks

    Read the article

  • Handling Corrupted JPEGs in C#

    - by ddango
    We have a process that pulls images from a remote server. Most of the time, we're good to go, the images are valid, we don't timeout, etc. However, every once and awhile we see this error similar to this: Unhandled Exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+. at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderPa rameters encoderParams) at ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\images\ConsoleApplic ation1\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs:line 24 After not being able to reproduce it locally, we looked closer at the image, and realized that there were artifacts, making us suspect corruption. Created an ugly little unit test with only the image in question, and was unable to reproduce the error on Windows 7 as was expected. But after running our unit test on Windows Server 2008, we see this error every time. Is there a way to specify non-strictness for jpegs when writing them? Some sort of check/fix we can use? Unit test snippet: var r = ReadFile("C:\\images\\ConsoleApplication1\\test.jpg"); using (var imgStream = new MemoryStream(r)) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { var guid = Guid.NewGuid(); var fileName = "C:\\images\\ConsoleApplication1\\t" + guid + ".jpg"; Image.FromStream(imgStream).Save(ms, ImageFormat.Jpeg); using (FileStream fs = File.Create(fileName)) { fs.Write(ms.GetBuffer(), 0, ms.GetBuffer().Length); } } }

    Read the article

  • Reflecting actionscript objects

    - by Chin
    Is it possible to reflect an object in actionscript and get the property names back in the order they are positioned in the class? I have tried the following var reflectionObject : Object = ObjectUtil.getClassInfo(obj); var propsArray : Array = reflectionObject.properties; (orders alphabetically) var typeInfo:XML = describeType(obj) (Not sure what order this is)

    Read the article

  • Read Cookies using Javascript

    - by Ajith
    I want to create a cookie using php,an also i need to read it using javascript.ie, by using setcookie('mycookie','hello',time()+34000) in php i am creating a cookie in my system.Now,i need to read it using javascript.Is it possible?If anybody knows please give me some idea.Please....help me.I am using javscript as follows ` function Get_Cookie( check_name ) { // first we'll split this cookie up into name/value pairs // note: document.cookie only returns name=value, not the other components var a_all_cookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); var a_temp_cookie = ''; var cookie_name = ''; var cookie_value = ''; var b_cookie_found = false; // set boolean t/f default f for ( i = 0; i < a_all_cookies.length; i++ ) { // now we'll split apart each name=value pair a_temp_cookie = a_all_cookies[i].split( '=' ); // and trim left/right whitespace while we're at it cookie_name = a_temp_cookie[0].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, ''); // if the extracted name matches passed check_name if ( cookie_name == check_name ) { b_cookie_found = true; // we need to handle case where cookie has no value but exists (no = sign, that is): if ( a_temp_cookie.length > 1 ) { cookie_value = unescape( a_temp_cookie[1].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, '') ); } // note that in cases where cookie is initialized but no value, null is returned return cookie_value; break; } a_temp_cookie = null; cookie_name = ''; } if ( !b_cookie_found ) { return null; } } if (Get_Cookie('__gsb')) { alert('Found'); } `

    Read the article

  • Upgrading Entity Framework 1.0 to 4.0 to include foreign keys

    - by duthiega
    Currently I've been working with Entity Framework 1.0 which is located under a service façade. Below is one of the save methods I've created to either update or insert the device in question. This currently works but, I can't help feel that its a bit of a hack having to set the referenced properties to null then re-attach them just to get an insert to work. The changedDevice already holds these values, so why do I need to assign them again. So, I thought I'll update the model to EF4. That way I can just directly access the foreign keys. However, on doing this I've found that there doesn't seem to be an easy way to add the foreign keys except by removing the entity from the diagram and re-adding it. I don't want to do this as I've already been through all the entity properties renaming them from the DB column names. Can anyone help? /// <summary> /// Saves the non network device. /// </summary> /// <param name="nonNetworkDeviceDto">The non network device dto.</param> public void SaveNonNetworkDevice(NonNetworkDeviceDto nonNetworkDeviceDto) { using (var context = new AssetNetworkEntities2()) { var changedDevice = TransformationHelper.ConvertNonNetworkDeviceDtoToEntity(nonNetworkDeviceDto); if (!nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId.Equals(-1)) { var originalDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.Include("Status").Include("NonNetworkType").FirstOrDefault( d => d.DeviceId.Equals(nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId)); context.ApplyAllReferencedPropertyChanges(originalDevice, changedDevice); context.ApplyCurrentValues(originalDevice.EntityKey.EntitySetName, changedDevice); } else { var maxNetworkDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.OrderBy("it.DeviceId DESC").First(); changedDevice.DeviceId = maxNetworkDevice.DeviceId + 1; var status = changedDevice.Status; var nonNetworkType = changedDevice.NonNetworkType; changedDevice.Status = null; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = null; context.AttachTo("DeviceStatuses", status); if (nonNetworkType != null) { context.AttachTo("NonNetworkTypes", nonNetworkType); } changedDevice.Status = status; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = nonNetworkType; context.AddToNonNetworkDevices(changedDevice); } context.SaveChanges(); } }

    Read the article

  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Filter across 2 lists using LINQ

    - by Ajit Goel
    I have two lists: a. requestedAmenities b. units with amenities. I want to filter those units that have any one of the "requested amenities". I have tried to achieve the same result using foreach loops but I believe it should be much easier using LINQ. Can someone please help\advice? UnitAmenities unitSearchRequestAmenities = unitSearchRequest.Amenities; var exactMatchApartmentsFilteredByAmenities= new Units(); IEnumerable<string> requestAmenitiesIds = unitSearchRequestAmenities.Select(element => element.ID); foreach (var unitCounter in ExactMatchApartments) { IEnumerable<string> unitAmenities = unitCounter.Amenities.Select(element => element.ID); foreach (var requestAmenityId in requestAmenitiesIds) { foreach (var unitAmenity in unitAmenities) { if (requestAmenityId == unitAmenity) { exactMatchApartmentsFilteredByAmenities.Add(unitCounter); //break to the outmost foreach loop } } } }

    Read the article

  • Generic class for performing mass-parallel queries. Feedback?

    - by Aaron
    I don't understand why, but there appears to be no mechanism in the client library for performing many queries in parallel for Windows Azure Table Storage. I've created a template class that can be used to save considerable time, and you're welcome to use it however you wish. I would appreciate however, if you could pick it apart, and provide feedback on how to improve this class. public class AsyncDataQuery<T> where T: new() { public AsyncDataQuery(bool preserve_order) { m_preserve_order = preserve_order; this.Queries = new List<CloudTableQuery<T>>(1000); } public void AddQuery(IQueryable<T> query) { var data_query = (DataServiceQuery<T>)query; var uri = data_query.RequestUri; // required this.Queries.Add(new CloudTableQuery<T>(data_query)); } /// <summary> /// Blocking but still optimized. /// </summary> public List<T> Execute() { this.BeginAsync(); return this.EndAsync(); } public void BeginAsync() { if (m_preserve_order == true) { this.Items = new List<T>(Queries.Count); for (var i = 0; i < Queries.Count; i++) { this.Items.Add(new T()); } } else { this.Items = new List<T>(Queries.Count * 2); } m_wait = new ManualResetEvent(false); for (var i = 0; i < Queries.Count; i++) { var query = Queries[i]; query.BeginExecuteSegmented(callback, i); } } public List<T> EndAsync() { m_wait.WaitOne(); return this.Items; } private List<T> Items { get; set; } private List<CloudTableQuery<T>> Queries { get; set; } private bool m_preserve_order; private ManualResetEvent m_wait; private int m_completed = 0; private void callback(IAsyncResult ar) { int i = (int)ar.AsyncState; CloudTableQuery<T> query = Queries[i]; var response = query.EndExecuteSegmented(ar); if (m_preserve_order == true) { // preserve ordering only supports one result per query this.Items[i] = response.Results.First(); } else { // add any number of items this.Items.AddRange(response.Results); } if (response.HasMoreResults == true) { // more data to pull query.BeginExecuteSegmented(response.ContinuationToken, callback, i); return; } m_completed = Interlocked.Increment(ref m_completed); if (m_completed == Queries.Count) { m_wait.Set(); } } }

    Read the article

  • disable dates using jquery inside gridview control

    - by bladerunner
    Hi there, I have a gridview which contains a textbox control. I need to show the calendar for the user to pick the date and certain dates are to be disabled using jquery. I found a post on stackoverflow that talked about how to disable certain dates. I am done with that part, except not sure how to pass the textbox control to this jquery function. Here is the code. <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function pageLoad(sender, args) { var enabledDays = ['09/21/2011', '10/05/2011', '10/19/2011', '11/02/2011', '11/16/2011']; /* utility functions */ function editDays(date) { for (var i = 0; i < enabledDays.length; i++) { if (new Date(enabledDays[i]).toString() == date.toString()) { return [true]; } } return [false]; } /* create datepicker */ $(document).ready(function() { $('#<%= txtInHomeDate.ClientID %>').datepicker({ beforeShow: springDate, beforeShowDay: editDays, dateFormat: 'mm/dd/yy', buttonImage: 'images/cal.gif', buttonText: 'Choose date', firstDay: 1, buttonImageOnly: true, showOn: 'both', showAnim: 'fadeIn', onSelect: function() { $(this).trigger("onchange", null); } }); function springDate() { var defaultMin = new Date(); var defaultMax = new Date(); var Min = defaultMin; var Max = defaultMax; // make valid date from hiddenfied value format is MM/dd/yyyy dateMin = $('#<%= hfStDate.ClientID %>').val(); dateMin = new Date(dateMin); dateMax = $('#<%= hfEndDate.ClientID %>').val(); dateMax = new Date(dateMax); if (dateMin && dateMax) { Min = new Date(dateMin.getFullYear(), dateMin.getMonth(), dateMin.getDate()); Max = new Date(dateMax.getFullYear(), dateMax.getMonth(), dateMax.getDate()); } return { minDate: Min, maxDate: Max }; } }); } <.... <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="In-Home Date"> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfStDate" runat="server" Value="09/01/2011" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfEndDate" runat="server" Value="11/30/2011" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtInHomeDate" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> Currently, it errors out since the jquery function won't find the txtInHomeDate. Could I get some help as I am pretty close to get this done? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

    - by Jordan
    When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

    Read the article

  • How to pass variable from jsf managed bean to jsp page

    - by cyberziko
    How can I pass a variable from JSF managed bean to JSP page. PS: I'm in portal context (liferay). I tried this: in Managed Bean: HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest) FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); request.setAttribute("var", "someTxt"); in JSP: <% String var = (String)request.getAttribute("var"); %> I don't get any result.

    Read the article

  • How to rewrite this jQuery code by using Mootools?

    - by Nikita Sumeiko
    I have a jQuery code, but need it working by using Mootools: if ( $("span.mailme").length ) { var at = / AT /; var dot = / DOT /g; $('span.mailme').each(function () { var addr = $(this).text().replace(at, '@').replace(dot, '.'); $(this).after('<a href="mailto:' + addr + '">' + addr + '</a>'); $(this).remove(); }); } Is there anyone, who know as good Mootools as jQuery?

    Read the article

  • IE ignores added onclick attribute

    - by user357034
    The Jquery code below works ok with firefox, Safari, Opera but not with IE. I kinda know why this isn't working in IE after reading a lot about it but I do not know how to fix it. My understanding (I think) is that this method will assign a attribute of "onclick" in IE rather than an event method. Therefore it will not fire in IE and the href fires instead which in this case is "#" which is exactly what is happening. What is the correct way of adding the onclick event. <a id="product_photo_zoom_url" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"><img id="product_photo" src="/v/vspfiles/photos/9857-116-003-2T.jpg" border="0" alt="9857-116-003 Ignition box" /></a> <br /><a id="product_photo_zoom_url2" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"> <img src="/v/vspfiles/templates/100/images/buttons/btn_largerphoto.gif" border="0"></a> var global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode; var global_Config_ProductPhotosFolder; var global_Current_ProductCode; var titleattr = $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr("title"); var picurl='tb_show(titleattr, \'/PhotoDetails.asp?ShowDESC=N&ProductCode=\' + global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode + \'&TB_iframe=true&height=600&width=520\');return false;' $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('href', '#'); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('href', '#');

    Read the article

  • remote class alias in air

    - by viv
    Hi in Flex one can easily define the remote class alias like the following: package samples.portfolio { [RemoteClass(alias="flex.samples.marketdata.Stock")] [Bindable] public class Stock { public var symbol:String; public var name:String; public var low:Number; } } But my question is how do you do it in AIR since the client app does not know about the server file structure. Regards,

    Read the article

  • different markers on google maps v3

    - by user1447313
    i need help again :( How i can add different markers to google map v3. here is example for may marker var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(lat,lng); var image = "../img/hotel_icon.png"; var locationDescription = this.locationDescription; var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: latlng, title:'pk:'+name, icon: image }); bounds.extend(latlng); setMarkes(map, marker, name, locationDescription); });//close each map.fitBounds(bounds); });//close getjson }//close initialize function setMarkes(map, marker, name, locationDescription){ google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'mouseover', function() { infowindow.close(); infowindow.setContent('<h3>'+name+'</h3><em>'+locationDescription+'</em>'); infowindow.open(map, marker); }); } is any help

    Read the article

  • function returns after an XMLHttpRequest

    - by ashays
    Alright, I know questions like this have probably been asked dozens of times, but I can't seem to find a working solution for my project. Recently, while using jQuery for a lot of AJAX calls, I've found myself in a form of callback hell. Whether or not jQuery is too powerful for this project is beyond the scope of this question. So basically here's some code that shows what's going on: function check_form(table) { var file = "/models/"+table+".json"; var errs = {}; var xhr = $.getJSON(file, function(json) { for (key in json) { var k = key; var r = json[k]; $.extend(errs, check_item("#"+k,r)); } }); return errs; } And... as you can probably guess, I get an empty object returned. My original idea was to use some sort of onReadyStateChange idea that would return whenever the readyState had finally hit 4. This causes my application to hang indefinitely, though. I need these errors to decide whether or not the form is allowed to submit or not (as well as to tell the user where the errors are in the application. Any ideas? Edit. It's not the prettiest solution, but I've managed to get it to work. Basically, check_form has the json passed to it from another function, instead of loading it. I was already loading it there, too, so it's probably best that I don't continue to load the same file over and over again anyways. I was just worried about overloading memory. These files aren't absolutely huge, though, so I guess it's probably okay.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Generic List .First not working LINQ

    - by Hurricanepkt
    var stuff = ctx.spReport(); var StuffAssembled = new List<ReportCLS>(); var val = new List<ReportCLS>(); foreach (var item in stuff) { StuffAssembled.Add(new ReportCLS(item)); } val.Add(StuffAssembled.First()); Keeps throwing System.Collections.Generic.List' does not contain a definition for 'First' and no extension method 'First' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Collections.Generic.List' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) what is going wrong ? moreover how do i fix it? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why bubling not working

    - by slier
    I just want to understand how capturing and bubbling work. Unfortunately this code just work in IE, and not working in firefox. When i click on div3, it just stop there.it not bubling up toward body element. Can somebody enlighten me. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta content="text/html; charset=utf-8" http-equiv="Content-Type" /> <title>Untitled 1</title> <script type="text/javascript"> var addEvent = function(elem, event, func, capture){ if(typeof(window.event) != 'undefined'){ elem.attachEvent('on' + event, func); } else{ elem.addEventListener(event, func, capture); } } var bodyFunc = function(){ alert('In element body') } var div1Func = function(){ alert('In element div1') } var div2Func = function(){ alert('In element div2') } var div3Func = function(){ alert('In element div3') } var init = function(){ addEvent(document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0], 'click', bodyFunc, true); addEvent(document.getElementById('div1'), 'click', div1Func, true); addEvent(document.getElementById('div2'), 'click', div2Func, true); addEvent(document.getElementById('div3'), 'click', div3Func, true); } addEvent(window, 'load', init, false) </script> </head> <body> <h1>Using the Modern Event Model</h1> <div id="div1" style="border:1px solid #000000;padding:10pt;background:cornsilk"> <p>This is div 1</p> <div id="div2" style="border:1px solid #000000;padding:10pt;background:gray"> <p>This is div 2</p> <div id="div3" style="border:1px solid #000000;padding:10pt; background:lightBlue"> <p>This is div 3</p> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • jQuery MVC architecture

    - by Tomas Barbak
    Hi, what is the best way to create MVC architecture in jQuery? Should I use jQuery.extend()? jQuery.extend({ View: function(){} }); ...or jQuery Plugin? (function($) { $.fn.model = function() { return this; }; })(jQuery); ...or just objects in JavaScript? var model = {} var view = {} var controller = {} Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Assign different colors to individual array elements

    - by rk.
    Say I have the array, arr1. I want to print this array (i.e. just display the numbers) but, I want to color the numbers based on their values. If arr1[i]<15, green, if arr1[i]20, red, else orange. Something to this effect. var arr1 = [ 5,10,13,19,21,25,22,18,15,13,11,12,15,20,18,17,16,18,23,25,25,22,18,15,13,11,12,15,20,18]; Here is what I tried doing: for(var i=0; i<arr1.length;i++){ if(arr1[i]<15){ var temp = $(this).css("color","green"); $this.text(temp); } else if(arr1[i]>20){ var temp = $(this).css("color","red"); $this.text(temp); } else { var temp = $(this).css("color","orange"); $this.text(temp); } } I tried changing the css property of individual elements and them adding them to the div, but it did not work for me. Can someone suggest how should I go about doing this?

    Read the article

  • google apps script DateItem get dropdown box

    - by user2117613
    So using Google Apps Scripts with a Form, I'm able to get all the items and iterate through them using the following: var form = FormApp.getActiveForm(); var items = form.getItems(); var item; for(var i = 0; i < items.length; i++) { item = items[i]; if(item.getType() == FormApp.ItemType.DATE) { item = item.asDateItem(); item.dropdown.month; // I need a method like this } Logger.log("ItemTitle: %s ItemType: %s",items[i].getTitle(), items[i].getType()) ; } I can even get the DateItem that I want. My issue is that I cannot get the dropdown boxes from the DateItem. Does anyone know how to get the dropdown boxes from the DateItem? (Like: item.dropdown.month or item.dropdown.day, etc).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130  | Next Page >