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  • Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

    - by David Stone
    How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

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  • C++: Trouble with Pointers, loop variables, and structs

    - by Rosarch
    Consider the following example: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> #include <vector> #include <wchar.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; struct odp { int f; wchar_t* pstr; }; int main() { vector<odp> vec; ostringstream ss; wchar_t base[5]; wcscpy_s(base, L"1234"); for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { odp foo; foo.f = i; wchar_t loopStr[1]; foo.pstr = loopStr; // wchar_t* = wchar_t ? Why does this work? foo.pstr[0] = base[i]; vec.push_back(foo); } for (vector<odp>::iterator iter = vec.begin(); iter != vec.end(); iter++) { cout << "Vec contains: " << iter->f << ", " << *(iter->pstr) << endl; } } This produces: Vec contains: 0, 52 Vec contains: 1, 52 Vec contains: 2, 52 Vec contains: 3, 52 I would hope that each time, iter->f and iter->pstr would yield a different result. Unfortunately, iter->pstr is always the same. My suspicion is that each time through the loop, a new loopStr is created. Instead of copying it into the struct, I'm only copying a pointer. The location that the pointer writes to is getting overwritten. How can I avoid this? Is it possible to solve this problem without allocating memory on the heap?

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  • Undefined template methods trick ?

    - by Matthieu M.
    A colleague of mine told me about a little piece of design he has used with his team that sent my mind boiling. It's a kind of traits class that they can specialize in an extremely decoupled way. I've had a hard time understanding how it could possibly work, and I am still unsure of the idea I have, so I thought I would ask for help here. We are talking g++ here, specifically the versions 3.4.2 and 4.3.2 (it seems to work with both). The idea is quite simple: 1- Define the interface // interface.h template <class T> struct Interface { void foo(); // the method is not implemented, it could not work if it was }; // // I do not think it is necessary // but they prefer free-standing methods with templates // because of the automatic argument deduction // template <class T> void foo(Interface<T>& interface) { interface.foo(); } 2- Define a class, and in the source file specialize the interface for this class (defining its methods) // special.h class Special {}; // special.cpp #include "interface.h" #include "special.h" // // Note that this specialization is not visible outside of this translation unit // template <> struct Interface<Special> { void foo() { std::cout << "Special" << std::endl; } }; 3- To use, it's simple too: // main.cpp #include "interface.h" class Special; // yes, it only costs a forward declaration // which helps much in term of dependencies int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Interface<Special> special; foo(special); return 0; }; It's an undefined symbol if no translation unit defined a specialization of Interface for Special. Now, I would have thought this would require the export keyword, which to my knowledge has never been implemented in g++ (and only implemented once in a C++ compiler, with its authors advising anyone not to, given the time and effort it took them). I suspect it's got something to do with the linker resolving the templates methods... Do you have ever met anything like this before ? Does it conform to the standard or do you think it's a fortunate coincidence it works ? I must admit I am quite puzzled by the construct...

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • Iterating multple lists consecutively (C++)

    - by Graham Rogers
    I have 3 classes, 2 inheriting from the other like so: class A { public: virtual void foo() {cout << "I am A!" << endl;} }; class B : public A { public: void foo() {cout << "B pretending to be A." << endl} void onlyBFoo() {cout << "I am B!" << endl} }; class C : public A { public: void foo() {cout << "C pretending to be A." << endl} void onlyCFoo() {cout << "I am C!" << endl} }; What I want to do is something like this: list<A> list_of_A; list<B> list_of_B; list<C> list_of_C; //put three of each class in their respective list for (list<B>::iterator it = list_of_B.begin(); it != list_of_B.end(); ++it) { (*it).onlyBFoo(); } for (list<C>::iterator it = list_of_C.begin(); it != list_of_C.end(); ++it) { (*it).foo(); } //This part I am not sure about for (list<A>::iterator it = list_of_all.begin(); it != list_of_all.end(); ++it) { (*it).foo(); } To output: I am B! I am B! I am B! I am C! I am C! I am C! I am A! I am A! I am A! B pretending to be A. B pretending to be A. B pretending to be A. C pretending to be A. C pretending to be A. C pretending to be A. Basically, sometimes I want to only loop the Bs and Cs so that I can use their methods, but sometimes I want to loop all of them so that I can use the same method from each i.e. iterate the As, then the Bs, then the Cs all in one loop. I thought of creating a separate list (like the code above) containing everything, but it would create lots of unnecessary maintenance, as I will be adding and removing every object from 2 lists instead of one.

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  • Better way to write an object generator for an RAII template class?

    - by Dan
    I would like to write an object generator for a templated RAII class -- basically a function template to construct an object using type deduction of parameters so the types don't have to be specified explicitly. The problem I foresee is that the helper function that takes care of type deduction for me is going to return the object by value, which will result in a premature call to the RAII destructor when the copy is made. Perhaps C++0x move semantics could help but that's not an option for me. Anyone seen this problem before and have a good solution? This is what I have: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> class FooAdder { private: typedef OtherThing<T, U, V> Thing; Thing &thing_; int a_; // many other members public: FooAdder(Thing &thing, int a); ~FooAdder(); void foo(T t, U u); void bar(V v); }; The gist is that OtherThing has a horrible interface, and FooAdder is supposed to make it easier to use. The intended use is roughly like this: FooAdder(myThing, 2) .foo(3, 4) .foo(5, 6) .bar(7) .foo(8, 9); The FooAdder constructor initializes some internal data structures. The foo and bar methods populate those data structures. The ~FooAdder dtor wraps things up and calls a method on thing_, taking care of all the nastiness. That would work fine if FooAdder wasn't a template. But since it is, I would need to put the types in, more like this: FooAdder<Abc, Def, Ghi>(myThing, 2) ... That's annoying, because the types can be inferred based on myThing. So I would prefer to create a templated object generator, similar to std::make_pair, that will do the type deduction for me. Something like this: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> FooAdder<T, U, V> AddFoo(Thing &thing, int a) { return FooAdder<T, U, V>(thing, a); } That seems problematic: because it returns by value, the stack temporary object will be destructed, which will cause the RAII dtor to run prematurely. One thought I had was to give FooAdder a copy ctor with move semantics, kinda like std::auto_ptr. But I would like to do this without dynamic memory allocation, so I thought the copy ctor could set a flag within FooAdder indicating the dtor shouldn't do the wrap-up. Like this: FooAdder(FooAdder &rhs) // Note: rhs is not const : thing_(rhs.thing_) , a_(rhs.a_) , // etc... lots of other members, annoying. , moved(false) { rhs.moved = true; } ~FooAdder() { if (!moved) { // do whatever it would have done } } Seems clunky. Anyone got a better way?

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  • Mixing C and C++, raw pointers and (boost) shared pointers

    - by oompahloompah
    I am working in C++ with some legacy C code. I have a data structure that (during initialisation), makes a copy of the structure pointed to a ptr passed to its initialisation pointer. Here is a simplification of what I am trying to do - hopefully, no important detail has been lost in the "simplification": /* C code */ typedef struct MyData { double * elems; unsigned int len; }; int NEW_mydata(MyData* data, unsigned int len) { // no error checking data->elems = (double *)calloc(len, sizeof(double)); return 0; } typedef struct Foo { MyData data data_; }; void InitFoo(Foo * foo, const MyData * the_data) { //alloc mem etc ... then assign the STRUCTURE foo.data_ = *thedata ; } C++ code ------------- typedef boost::shared_ptr<MyData> MyDataPtr; typedef std::map<std::string, MyDataPtr> Datamap; class FooWrapper { public: FooWrapper(const std::string& key) { MyDataPtr mdp = dmap[key]; InitFoo(&m_foo, const_cast<MyData*>((*mdp.get()))); } ~FooWrapper(); double get_element(unsigned int index ) const { return m_foo.elems[index]; } private: // non copyable, non-assignable FooWrapper(const FooWrapper&); FooWrapper& operator= (const FooWrapper&); Foo m_foo; }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyData data1, data2; Datamap dmap; NEW_mydata(&data1, 10); data1->elems[0] = static_cast<double>(22/7); NEW_mydata(&data2, 42); data2->elems[0] = static_cast<double>(13/21); boost::shared_ptr d1(&data1), d2(&data2); dmap["data1"] = d1; dmap["data2"] = d2; FooWrapper fw("data1"); //expect 22/7, get something else (random number?) double ret fw.get_element(0); } Essentially, what I want to know is this: Is there any reason why the data retrieved from the map is different from the one stored in the map?

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  • What are the Rails best practices for javascript templates in restful/resourceful controllers?

    - by numbers1311407
    First, 2 common (basic) approaches: # returning from some FoosController method respond_to do |format| # 1. render the javascript directly format.js { render :json => @foo.to_json } # 2. render the default template, say update.js.erb format.js { render } end # in update.js.erb $('#foo').html("<%= escape_javascript(render(@foo)) %>") These are obviously simple cases but I wanted to illustrate what I'm talking about. I believe that these are also the cases expected by the default responder in rails 3 (either the action-named default template or calling to_#{format} on the resource.) The Issues With 1, you have total flexibility on the view side with no worries about the template, but you have to manipulate the DOM directly via javascript. You lose access to helpers, partials, etc. With 2, you have partials and helpers at your disposal, but you're tied to the one template (by default at least). All your views that make JS calls to FoosController use the same template, which isn't exactly flexible. Three Other Approaches (none really satisfactory) 1.) Escape partials/helpers I need into javascript beforehand, then inserting them into the page after, using string replacement to tailor them to the results returned (subbing in name, id, etc). 2.) Put view logic in the templates. For example, looking for a particular DOM element and doing one thing if it exists, another if it does not. 3.) Put logic in the controller to render different templates. For example, in a polymorphic belongs to where update might be called for either comments/foo or posts/foo, rendering commnts/foos/update.js.erb versus posts/foos/update.js.erb. I've used all of these (and probably others I'm not thinking of). Often in the same app, which leads to confusing code. Are there best practices for this sort of thing? It seems like a common enough use-case that you'd want to call controllers via Ajax actions from different views and expect different things to happen (without having to do tedious things like escaping and string-replacing partials and helpers client side). Any thoughts?

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  • Django Custom Field: Only run to_python() on values from DB?

    - by Adam Levy
    How can I ensure that my custom field's *to_python()* method is only called when the data in the field has been loaded from the DB? I'm trying to use a Custom Field to handle the Base64 Encoding/Decoding of a single model property. Everything appeared to be working correctly until I instantiated a new instance of the model and set this property with its plaintext value...at that point, Django tried to decode the field but failed because it was plaintext. The allure of the Custom Field implementation was that I thought I could handle 100% of the encoding/decoding logic there, so that no other part of my code ever needed to know about it. What am I doing wrong? (NOTE: This is just an example to illustrate my problem, I don't need advice on how I should or should not be using Base64 Encoding) def encode(value): return base64.b64encode(value) def decode(value): return base64.b64decode(value) class EncodedField(models.CharField): __metaclass__ = models.SubfieldBase def __init__(self, max_length, *args, **kwargs): super(EncodedField, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) def get_prep_value(self, value): return encode(value) def to_python(self, value): return decode(value) class Person(models.Model): internal_id = EncodedField(max_length=32) ...and it breaks when I do this in the interactive shell. Why is it calling to_python() here? >>> from myapp.models import * >>> Person(internal_id="foo") Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/base.py", line 330, in __init__ setattr(self, field.attname, val) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/fields/subclassing.py", line 98, in __set__ obj.__dict__[self.field.name] = self.field.to_python(value) File "../myapp/models.py", line 87, in to_python return decode(value) File "../myapp/models.py", line 74, in decode return base64.b64decode(value) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/base64.py", line 76, in b64decode raise TypeError(msg) TypeError: Incorrect padding I had expected I would be able to do something like this... >>> from myapp.models import * >>> obj = Person(internal_id="foo") >>> obj.internal_id 'foo' >>> obj.save() >>> newObj = Person.objects.get(internal_id="foo") >>> newObj.internal_id 'foo' >>> newObj.internal_id = "bar" >>> newObj.internal_id 'bar' >>> newObj.save() ...what am I doing wrong?

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  • Sharepoint 2010 - One or more services have started or stopped unexpectedly

    - by Mr Shoubs
    Does anyone know why I keep getting the following message in Sharepoint 2010 review problems and solutions list: The following services are managed by SharePoint, but their running state does not match what SharePoint expects: SPAdminV4. This can happen if a service crashes or if an administrator starts or stops a service using a non-SharePoint interface. If SharePoint-managed services do not match their expected running state, SharePoint will be unable to correctly distribute work to the service. Failing Services: SPTimerService (SPTimerV4) I assume this is referring to Sharepoint 2010 Timer Service but I can only see this in the services msc (and it is running), not in the Application Management > Manage services on server. Does anyone know why this keeps occurring and how I can stop it? Note - I looked in the event log and all I can see is that same error.

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  • What does pidgin mean by "Host unknown"?

    - by Mr. Jefferson
    Pidgin is telling me my XMPP account was disconnected; the error message is "Host Unknown". What specifically does this indicate? Can it not find the server it's supposed to connect to (one in my office)? I can ping the server in the "Domain" account setting (under Basic) without a problem, and I even tried specifying an IP address in the "Connect server" account setting (under Advanced) without success.

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  • How can I disable Lumension Sanctuary

    - by Mr. Flibble
    I'm an administrator on my computer but I can't work out how to uninstall/disable Lumension Sanctuary. There is no Uninstall button in the uninstall programs list. I've disabled the service (Sanctuary command and control) but it's had no effect. Any ideas? I'm on Windows XP BTW.

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  • How to change cpufreq settings in Kubuntu

    - by Mr Woody
    I have been using Kubuntu, and I would like to change the cpufreq settings. My understanding is that there is no applet for that, and I would have to do it with a script. So I run a command like this: sudo cpufreq-set -g userspace -c 0 -d 800Mhz -u 1200Mhz and when I type cpufreq-info, I get cpufrequtils 007: cpufreq-info (C) Dominik Brodowski 2004-2009 Report errors and bugs to [email protected], please. analyzing CPU 0: driver: acpi-cpufreq CPUs which run at the same hardware frequency: 0 1 CPUs which need to have their frequency coordinated by software: 0 maximum transition latency: 10.0 us. hardware limits: 800 MHz - 2.50 GHz available frequency steps: 2.50 GHz, 2.50 GHz, 2.00 GHz, 1.60 GHz, 1.20 GHz, 800 MHz available cpufreq governors: conservative, ondemand, userspace, powersave, performance current policy: frequency should be within 800 MHz and 1.20 GHz. The governor "userspace" may decide which speed to use within this range. current CPU frequency is 1.20 GHz. cpufreq stats: 2.50 GHz:70.06%, 2.50 GHz:0.97%, 2.00 GHz:4.85%, 1.60 GHz:0.35%, 1.20 GHz:2.89%, 800 MHz:20.88% (193873) analyzing CPU 1: driver: acpi-cpufreq CPUs which run at the same hardware frequency: 0 1 CPUs which need to have their frequency coordinated by software: 1 maximum transition latency: 10.0 us. hardware limits: 800 MHz - 2.50 GHz available frequency steps: 2.50 GHz, 2.50 GHz, 2.00 GHz, 1.60 GHz, 1.20 GHz, 800 MHz available cpufreq governors: conservative, ondemand, userspace, powersave, performance current policy: frequency should be within 2.00 GHz and 2.00 GHz. The governor "performance" may decide which speed to use within this range. current CPU frequency is 2.00 GHz. cpufreq stats: 2.50 GHz:83.43%, 2.50 GHz:1.03%, 2.00 GHz:4.28%, 1.60 GHz:0.01%, 1.20 GHz:1.74%, 800 MHz:9.50% (3208) which shows that everything worked well (on cpu 0). The problem is that if I run cpufreq-info again after few minutes I get cpufrequtils 007: cpufreq-info (C) Dominik Brodowski 2004-2009 Report errors and bugs to [email protected], please. analyzing CPU 0: driver: acpi-cpufreq CPUs which run at the same hardware frequency: 0 1 CPUs which need to have their frequency coordinated by software: 0 maximum transition latency: 10.0 us. hardware limits: 800 MHz - 2.50 GHz available frequency steps: 2.50 GHz, 2.50 GHz, 2.00 GHz, 1.60 GHz, 1.20 GHz, 800 MHz available cpufreq governors: conservative, ondemand, userspace, powersave, performance current policy: frequency should be within 800 MHz and 800 MHz. The governor "performance" may decide which speed to use within this range. current CPU frequency is 800 MHz. cpufreq stats: 2.50 GHz:69.73%, 2.50 GHz:0.97%, 2.00 GHz:4.83%, 1.60 GHz:0.35%, 1.20 GHz:2.92%, 800 MHz:21.20% (193880) analyzing CPU 1: driver: acpi-cpufreq CPUs which run at the same hardware frequency: 0 1 CPUs which need to have their frequency coordinated by software: 1 maximum transition latency: 10.0 us. hardware limits: 800 MHz - 2.50 GHz available frequency steps: 2.50 GHz, 2.50 GHz, 2.00 GHz, 1.60 GHz, 1.20 GHz, 800 MHz available cpufreq governors: conservative, ondemand, userspace, powersave, performance current policy: frequency should be within 800 MHz and 800 MHz. The governor "performance" may decide which speed to use within this range. current CPU frequency is 800 MHz. cpufreq stats: 2.50 GHz:82.94%, 2.50 GHz:1.03%, 2.00 GHz:4.33%, 1.60 GHz:0.01%, 1.20 GHz:1.73%, 800 MHz:9.96% (3215) so it looks like some other process changed the settings. Does anyone know how to fix this? I also tried many different settings, but I get similar behavior.

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  • Automating an SSRS 2008 R2 Report Snapshots and run report with most recent data

    - by Mr Shoubs
    I would like to automate a report snapshot, but there is only an option to take a snapshot in the Report History Tab. All the resources I've found suggest I need to go to processing options and select "Render this report from a snapshot". But I don't want to do that - when I go to a report, I want to get the most recent data. However daily at midnight I'd like to take a snapshot and store it in the history in case I want to compare the reports as of midnight for the last few weeks. Or am I doing this wrong and have to create a subscription instead? Note: this is for an auditing database and has way to much data in to query a range with more than 1 day in it - reports are restricted as such. (1 day has over 1 million rows on it's own).

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  • How do I prevent Pidgin from loading XMPP chat room history on join?

    - by Mr. Jefferson
    In Pidgin, when I join a chat room, it loads the chat room history. iChat on the Mac has a preference in the Accounts section to set a variable amount of history to load, or disable loading history entirely. How do I do the same thing in Pidgin? Is there a preference somewhere that I've missed? The object is to have the chat room start fresh each day, so I'd also be fine with disabling chat room history entirely on the server if that's possible. But I didn't see that option either when I looked in Server Admin on the server. I found this list of XMPP room types, and it looks like creating a Temporary Room might be the best way to do this, but I don't want to have to create the room manually every morning. Right now I've got Pidgin set to auto-join the room when I log in; I want it to do that without loading history. EDIT: The XMPP multi-user chat spec referenced above also contains a section on managing history. And I got this to work by pulling up the XMPP Console plugin in Pidgin, copying the <presence /> stanza it sent when I joined the room, closing the room, pasting the stanza into the console, adding the <history /> element and sending it. When I opened the room again, I had no history. But it all came back the next time! So: how do I get Pidgin to send the <history /> stanza by default?

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  • Airport Extreme and Windows PC via regular LAN (not WIFI)

    - by Mr AJL
    So I got an airpoort extreme, and everything works beautifully on the mac, but my windows 7 PC which is connected via a regular ethernet cable can't see any network. The Win7 PC says there's no cable connected. Any ideas? Is there some kind of setting you have to enable with the Airport utility? I looked everywhere but can't find anything. Thanks!

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  • Use synergy with Physical KVM

    - by Mr. Man
    I am using synergy on a Linux Mint computer as the server with a Mac as the client. I also have a physical KVM switch. The problem I have is that when ever I switch the physical KVM to my Mac, synergy stops working as in the keyboard and mouse don't work with the Mac. Thanks in advance! EDIT: here are some logs: From the Mint machine: INFO: synergys.cpp,1042: Synergy server 1.3.1 on Linux 2.6.31-14-generic #48-Ubuntu SMP Fri Oct 16 14:04:26 UTC 2009 i686 DEBUG: synergys.cpp,1051: opening configuration synergy.conf DEBUG: synergys.cpp,1062: configuration read successfully DEBUG: CXWindowsScreen.cpp,847: XOpenDisplay(:0.0) DEBUG: CXWindowsScreenSaver.cpp,339: xscreensaver window: 0x00000000 DEBUG: CXWindowsScreen.cpp,117: screen shape: 0,0 1024x768 DEBUG: CXWindowsScreen.cpp,118: window is 0x03800004 DEBUG: CScreen.cpp,38: opened display DEBUG: CXWindowsScreen.cpp,679: registered hotkey F12 (id=efc9 mask=0000) as id=1 NOTE: synergys.cpp,500: started server INFO: CServer.cpp,1141: screen ubuntu shape changed NOTE: CClientListener.cpp,127: accepted client connection DEBUG: CClientProxy1_0.cpp,404: received client marks-mac.local info shape=-1024,0 2304x800 NOTE: CServer.cpp,278: client mac has connected INFO: CServer.cpp,447: switch from ubuntu to mac at -1024,393 INFO: CScreen.cpp,116: leaving screen DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWinavDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG302)DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDE47DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cDEBUG: CXWindowsrset=utf-8 (633), text/plain (462) DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added f DEBUG: CXWindCXWDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG:SerDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: ed DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555owsClDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: 1DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: getDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added f DEBUG: CXW8_STDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fD textDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBU DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindowsClipinDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555:oardDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindCXWDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG:SerDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: ed DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: added fDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555owsClDEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp,555: 1DEBUG: CXWindowsClipboard.cpp, s From the Mac: connecting to '192.168.3.5': 192.168.3.5:24800 connected to server entering screen leaving screen entering screen leaving screen stopped client

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  • Make my git user and apache user have read/write/delete access

    - by Mr A
    I am having permission problems on my server. I use user developer to pull my git repository on the server. Then apache uses its own apache user to do write and execute code. I always have the problems when the app wants to write something in the directory (i.e: log files, and cache ...) if I execute a cron job and it uses my developer rights and wants to add something to the folders that is written by apache. My question is how to have my developer have the same write/delete access as my apache and avoid permission conflicts with each other? I am not fluent on linux command so, it would help if you could provide links or simply examples of doing so. thanks.

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  • VSFTPD does not allow upload with virtual users

    - by Mr. Squig
    I am attempting to setup VSFTPD with virtual users on a server running Ubuntu 12.04. I have configured the server to allow for virtual users to login, but I am having trouble getting it to allow uploads. My vsftpd.conf is as follows: listen=YES anonymous_enable=NO local_enable=YES write_enable=YES local_umask=022 anon_upload_enable=YES dirmessage_enable=YES use_localtime=YES xferlog_enable=YES connect_from_port_20=YES chroot_local_user=YES virtual_use_local_privs=YES guest_enable=YES guest_username=virtual user_sub_token=$USER local_root=/var/www/$USER hide_ids=YES secure_chroot_dir=/var/run/vsftpd/empty pam_service_name=vsftpd rsa_cert_file=/etc/ssl/private/vsftpd.pem /etc/pam.d/vsftpd contains: auth required pam_pwdfile.so pwdfile /etc/vsftpd.passwd crypt=hash account required pam_permit.so crypt=hash I have two virtual users set up, one of which has the same name as a local user. They each have a directory in /var/www/ owned by 'virtual'. As I understand it, when a virtual user logs in this way they will appear to the system as the user virtual. Using this configuration user can log on, but cannot upload files. The error given in /var/log/vsftpd.log is: Tue Nov 20 19:49:00 2012 [pid 2] CONNECT: Client "96.233.116.53" Tue Nov 20 19:49:07 2012 [pid 1] [zac] OK LOGIN: Client "96.233.116.53" Tue Nov 20 19:49:11 2012 [pid 2] CONNECT: Client "96.233.116.53" Tue Nov 20 19:49:11 2012 [pid 1] [zac] OK LOGIN: Client "96.233.116.53" Tue Nov 20 19:49:11 2012 [pid 3] [zac] FAIL CHMOD: Client "96.233.116.53", "/test.ppm 644" I have tried changing the permissions of these directories in all sorts of ways, but nothing seem to work. I have a feeling that it is something simple related to permissions. Any ideas?

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  • DNS and DHCP not agreeing on an IP address

    - by Mr. Jefferson
    I'm having a problem where our Windows Server 2003 domain controller assigns my Windows 7 computer one IP address (x.x.x.75) via DHCP, but reports another (x.x.x.84) via DNS. This causes some interesting behavior on the network. If I change my adapter settings to get IP and DNS addresses from DHCP, I can access the internet, but no one on our network can access my computer. If I change my IP manually to what DNS says it is, I lose my internet access, but everyone can get to my computer again. I know that we have some old, invalid reverse DNS pointers hanging around (a reverse lookup on an IP address often gives more than one result, usually not including the one that is correct), so that could be contributing, but my problem is recent, and the invalid reverse pointers have been around a long time. What's going on, and how do I fix it?

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  • IIS rewrite rule to check for querystring and add it if its not there

    - by M.R.
    I'm trying to make a IIS URL rewrite rule that appends an URL parameter to the URL. The url parameter is hssc. So, any url that is processed through the server, needs that parameter. Keeping in mind that some urls will have their own params already, and other urls won't, and root urls, etc, sometimes it will need to add ?hssc=1 or &hssc= - so, if I have a URL that is as such: http://www.blah.com should become http://www.blah.com/?hssc=1 http://www.blah.com/index.html should become http://www.blah.com/index.html?hssc=1 http://www.blah.com/?q=5 should become http://www.blah.com/q=5&hssc=1 http://www.blah.com/index.html?q=5 should become http://www.blah.com/index.html?q=5&hssc=1 http://www.blah.com/index.html?q=5&hssc=1 should be left alone I also want it that the URL should not be hidden (as in a backend rewrite behind the scenes). I need the URL to appear in the URL, so when users copy the URL, or bookmark it, the parameter is there. I've set the condition to match it \&hssc|\?hssc - now I just need a way to write the URL, so it appears and keeps the part of the original URL that is already there.

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