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  • Collision point of 2 curves in a 3d-room

    - by Frank
    Hello, i am programming a small game for quite some time. We started coding a small FPS-Shooter inside of a project at school to get a bit experience using directX. I dont know why, but i couldnt stop the project and started programming at home aswell. At the moment i am trying to create some small AI. Of cause thats definatlly not easy, but thats my personal goal anyways. The topic could prolly fill multiple books hehe. I've got the walking part of my bots done so far. They walk along a scriped path. I am not working on the "aiming" of the bots. While programming that i hit on some math problem i couldnt solve yet. I hope of your input on this to help me get further. Concepts, ideas and everything else are highly appreciated. Problem: Calculate the position (D3DXVECTOR3) where the curve of the projectile (depends on gravity, speed), hit the curved of the enemys walking path (depends on speed). We assume that the enemy walks in a constant line. Known variables: float projectilSpeed = 2000 m/s //speed of the projectile per second float gravitation = 9.81 m/s^2 //of cause the gravity lol D3DXVECTOR3 targetPosition //position of the target stored in a vector (x,y,z) D3DXVECTOR3 projectilePosition //position of the projectile D3DXVECTOR3 targetSpeed //stores the change of the targets position in the last second Variabledefinition ProjectilePosition at time of collision = ProjectilePos_t TargetPosition at time of collision = TargetPos_t ProjectilePosition at time 0, now = ProjectilePos_0 TargetPosition at time 0, now = TargetPos_0 Time to impact = t Aim-angle = theta My try: Found a formular to calculate "drop" (Drop of the projectile based on the gravity) on Wikipedia: float drop = 0.5f * gravity * t * t The speed of the projectile has a horizontal and a vertical part.. Found a formular for that on wikipedia aswell: ProjectilVelocity.x = projectilSpeed * cos(theta) ProjectilVelocity.y = projectilSpeed * sin(theta) So i would assume this is true for the projectile curve: ProjectilePos_t.x = ProjectilePos_0.x + ProjectileSpeed * t ProjectilePos_t.y = ProjectilePos_0.y + ProjectileSpeed * t + 0.5f * gravity * t * t ProjectilePos_t.z = ProjectilePos_0.z + ProjectileSpeed * t The target walk with a constant speed, so we can determine his curve by this: TargetPos_t = TargetPos_0 + TargetSpeed * D3DXVECTOR3(t, t, t) Now i dont know how to continue. I have to solve it somehow to get a hold on the time to impact somehow. As a basic formular i could use: float time = distanz / projectileSpeed But that wouldnt be truly correct as it would assume a linear "Trajectory". We just find this behaivor when using a rocket. I hope i was able to explain the problem as much as possible. If there are questions left, feel free to ask me! Greets from germany, Frank

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  • Local admin password recovery: Windows Vista

    - by Jim Dennis
    I am faced with an unsettling situation. A friend of my father's has rather suddenly become a widower. Naturally they've taken care of the bank accounts and all the normal mundane things that people have been doing for a century or so. However, she was the computer user of the household. He was aware that they had some online banking stuff and bill paying stuff ... and that she spent lots of time on FaceBook and stuff like that. However, he doesn't know what her local passwords were (actually only vaguely aware that her couple of desktop and couple of laptop system even had passwords). He's never heard of "admin" passwords so that's no good either. In the past I've used KNOPPIX and the old LinuxCare "bootable business card" to recover NT passwords. I've never done this with MS Windows Vista. So, I'm looking for the best advice on how to do this. Naturally I do have physical access to the systems (the two laptops are charging across the room from me; and her old desktop systems are, naturally, still back at his place). Getting it right is much more important than fast or easy (I don't want to mess up those filesystems and possibly lose some photos or other stuff that he or his kids or grandkids will want). (BTW: if anyone things this is some social engineering hack to play upon the sympathies of the community to get the information I'm asking for ... think about it for a minute. I know about IRC and the "warez" boards. I know I can find this stuff out there if I dig enough. I'm just asking here because it'll hopefully be faster and, secondarily to raise awareness. As more of us put more of our lives online ... as we get older and as places like FaceBook continue to widen the appeal of computing to a broader segment of older people ... we are, as computer nerds, going to see a lot more of this. Survivors will needs us to be careful, sensitive and ethically responsible as they try to recover those bits of legacy during their bereavement. I can now tell you, first hand, it sucks!)

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • How do I debug a difficult-to-reproduce crash with no useful call stack?

    - by David M
    I am encountering an odd crash in our software and I'm having a lot of trouble debugging it, and so I am seeking SO's advice on how to tackle it. The crash is an access violation reading a NULL pointer: First chance exception at $00CF0041. Exception class $C0000005 with message 'access violation at 0x00cf0041: read of address 0x00000000'. It only happens 'sometimes' - I haven't managed to figure out any rhyme or reason, yet, for when - and only in the main thread. When it occurs, the call stack contains one incorrect entry: For the main thread, which this is, it should show a large stack full of other items. At this point, all other threads are inactive (mostly sitting in WaitForSingleObject or a similar function.) I have only seen this crash occur in the main thread. It always has the same call stack of one entry, in the same method at the same address. This method may or may not be related - we do use the VCL in our application. My bet, though, is that something (possibly quite a while ago) is corrupting the stack, and the address where it's crashing is effectively random. Note it has been the same address across several builds, though - it's probably not truly random. Here is what I've tried: Trying to reproduce it reliably at a certain point. I have found nothing that reproduces it every time, and a couple of things that occasionally do, or do not, for no apparent reason. These are not 'narrow' enough actions to narrow it down to a particular section of code. It may be timing related, but at the point the IDE breaks in, other threads are usually doing nothing. I can't rule out a threading problem, but think it's unlikely. Building with extra debugging statements (extra debug info, extra asserts, etc.) After doing so, the crash never occurs. Building with Codeguard enabled. After doing so, the crash never occurs and Codeguard shows no errors. My questions: 1. How do I find what code caused the crash? How do I do the equivalent of walking back up the stack? 2. What general advice do you have for how to trace the cause of this crash? I am using Embarcadero RAD Studio 2010 (the project mostly contains C++ Builder code and small amounts of Delphi.)

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  • How can I change how OS X's 'say' command pronounces a word?

    - by jwhitlock
    OS X's say command is useful for some tasks (such as Skype's 'notify me when a contact comes online), but it is pronouncing some names incorrectly. Is there a way to teach say to pronounce a word differently? For example, try: say "Hi, Joel Spolsky" The 'ol' sounds like 'ball' rather than 'old'. I'd like to add an exception that say "Pronounce Spolsky like this", rather than try to teach new linguistic rules. I bet there is a way since it can pronounce "iphone" as Apple wants. Update - After some research, here's what I've learned: Text-to-speech is split between turning the text to phonemes, and then the phonemes are turned into audio using a voice. Changing the voice doesn't effect the phonemes. The Speech Synthesis Manager has some functions for turning text to phonemes, and a method for registering a speech dictionary that will add new text-phoneme maps. However, Apple's speech dictionary must be in a binary form - I didn't find any plist XML. Using dtrace while running say, I found some interesting files opened in /System/Library/PrivateFrameworks/SpeechDictionary.framework/Resources. This is probably the speech dictionary, but they are all binary, except for Homophones, which is XML. Adding entries to Homophones does nothing - it is probably used in speech-to-text. They are also code signed by Apple - changing them may prevent some programs from working. PrefixDictionary CartNames CartLite SymbolDictionary Homophones There are ways to add text versions of application interface elements so VoiceOver works, a lot of which a developer gets for free, but there are tricky bits. The standard here appears to be to use a phonetic spelling as needed. My guesses are: say is a light layer of code on top of the Speech Synthesis Manager. It would be easy for the Apple devs to add a command line option to take the path to a speech dictionary plist for alternate phoneme mapping, but they didn't. It may be a useful open-source project to write a better say. Skype probably uses Speech Synthesis Manager directly, leaving no hooks to change the way my friend's names are pronounced, other than spelling them phonetically, which is silly. The easiest way to make a command line version of say is how JRobert suggested. Here's my quick implementation, using Doug Harris's spelling suggestion: #!/bin/sh echo $@ | tr '[A-Z]' '[a-z]' | sed "s/spolsky/spowlsky/g" | /usr/bin/say Finally, some fun command line stuff: # Apple is weird sqlite3 /System/Library/PrivateFrameworks/SpeechDictionary.framework/Resources/Tuples .dump # Get too much information about what files are being opened sudo dtrace -n 'syscall::open*:entry { printf("%s %s",execname,copyinstr(arg0)); }' # Just fun say -v bad "Joel Spolsky Spolsky Spolsky Spolsky Spolsky, Joel Spolsky Spolsky Spolsky Spolsky Spolsky" echo "scale=1000; 4*a(1)" | bc -l | say

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  • Dynamic Multiple Choice (Like a Wizard) - How would you design it? (e.g. Schema, AI model, etc.)

    - by henry74
    This question can probably be broken up into multiple questions, but here goes... In essence, I'd like to allow users to type in what they would like to do and provide a wizard-like interface to ask for information which is missing to complete a requested query. For example, let's say a user types: "What is the weather like in Springfield?" We recognize the user is interested in weather, but it could be Springfield, Il or Springfield in another state. A follow-up question would be: What Springfield did you want weather for? 1 - Springfield, Il 2 - Springfield, Wi You can probably think of a million examples where a request is missing key data or its ambiguous. Make the assumption the gist of what the user wants can be understood, but there are missing pieces of data required to complete the request. Perhaps you can take it as far back as asking what the user wants to do and "leading" them to a query. This is not AI in the sense of taking any input and truly understanding it. I'm not referring to having some way to hold a conversation with a user. It's about inferring what a user wants, checking to see if there is an applicable service to be provided, identifying the inputs needed and overlaying that on top of what's missing from the request, then asking the user for the remaining information. That's it! :-) How would you want to store the information about services? How would you go about determining what was missing from the input data? My thoughts: Use regex expressions to identify clear pieces of information. These will be matched to the parameters of a service. Figure out which parameters do not have matching data and look up the associated question for those parameters. Ask those questions and capture answers. Re-run the service passing in the newly captured data. These would be more free-form questions. For multiple choice, identify the ambiguity and search for potential matches ranked in order of likelihood (add in user history/preferences to help decide). Provide the top 3 as choices. Thoughts appreciated. Cheers, Henry

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  • Bandwidth Limit Php Not working

    - by Saxtor
    Hey How are you doing guys, i am trying to limit bandwidth per users not by ipaddress for some reason my code doesnt work i need some help, what i am trying to do is to limit the download of the user that they would only have 10Gb per day to download however it seems to me that my buffer is not working when i use multiple connections it doesnt work, but when i use one connect it works 80% here is my code can you debug the error for me thanks. /** * @author saxtor if you can improve this code email me [email protected] * @copyright 2010 */ /** * CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `max_traffic` ( `id` int(255) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `limit` int(255) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=0 ; */ //SQL Connection [this is hackable for testing] date_default_timezone_set("America/Guyana"); mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("Quota") or die(mysql_error()); function quota($id) { $result = mysql_query("SELECT `limit` FROM max_traffic WHERE id='$id' ") or die(error_log(mysql_error()));; $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); return $row[0]; } function update_quota($id,$value) { $result = mysql_query("UPDATE `max_traffic` SET `limit`='$value' WHERE id='$id'") or die(mysql_error()); return $value; } if ( quota(1) != 0) $limit = quota(1); else $limit = 0; $multipart = false; //was a part of the file requested? (partial download) $range = $_SERVER["HTTP_RANGE"]; if ($range) { $cookie .= "\r\nRange: $range"; $multipart = true; header("X-UR-RANGE-Range: $range"); } $url = 'http://127.0.0.1/puppy.iso'; $filename = basename($url); //octet-stream + attachment => client always stores file header('Content-type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.$filename.'"'); //always included so clients know this script supports resuming header("Accept-Ranges: bytes"); $user_agent = ini_get("user_agent"); ini_set("user_agent", $user_agent . "\r\nCookie: enc=$cookie"); $httphandle = fopen($url, "r"); $headers = stream_get_meta_data($httphandle); $size = $headers["wrapper_data"][6]; $sizer = explode(' ',$size); $size = $sizer[1]; //let's check the return header of rapidshare for range / length indicators //we'll just pass these to the client foreach ($headers["wrapper_data"] as $header) { $header = trim($header); if (substr(strtolower($header), 0, strlen("content-range")) == "content-range") { // _insert($range); header($header); header("X-RS-RANGE-" . $header); $multipart = true; //content-range indicates partial download } elseif (substr(strtolower($header), 0, strlen("Content-Length")) == "content-length") { // _insert($range); header($header); header("X-RS-CL-" . $header); } } if ($multipart) header('HTTP/1.1 206 Partial Content'); flush(); $speed = 4128; $packet = 1; //this is private dont touch. $bufsize = 128; //this is private dont touch/ $bandwidth = 0; //this is private dont touch. while (!(connection_aborted() || connection_status() == 1) && $size > 0) { while (!feof($httphandle) && $size > 0) { if ($limit <= 0 ) $size = 0; if ( $size < $bufsize && $size != 0 && $limit != 0) { echo fread($httphandle,$size); $bandwidth += $size; } else { if( $limit != 0) echo fread($httphandle,$bufsize); $bandwidth += $bufsize; } $size -= $bufsize; $limit -= $bufsize; flush(); if ($speed > 0 && ($bandwidth > $speed*$packet*103)) { usleep(100000); $packet++; //update_quota(1,$limit); } error_log(update_quota(1,$limit)); $limit = quota(1); //if( $size <= 0 ) // exit; } fclose($httphandle); } exit;

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  • Seeking past end of file causes Apache hang, and it never restarts.

    - by talkingnews
    I've actually solved my problem with a better script, but I'm still left wondering why Apache2 hung completely - this is an out-of-the-box ISPCONFIG 3.03 install, everything bang up to date, running perfectly. Until... The troublesome but innocent-looking script: $fp = fopen("/var/log/ispconfig/cron.log", "r"); fseek($fp, -5000, SEEK_END); $line_buffer = array(); while (!feof($fp)) { $line = fgets($fp, 1024); $line_buffer[] = $line; $line_buffer = array_slice($line_buffer, -10, 10); } foreach ($line_buffer as $line) { echo $line; } You get the idea, just a script I found on a forum somwehere. I did this for various logs, since it's a nice easy window on what's occurring (in a protect dir, of course!). One day, the logs having grown large an me having sorted all my cron, scripting and mail queue errors, I thought I was time to start afresh. updated, rebooted, archived and deleted the logs. When I ran my script a couple of hours later, it hung. And hung. 8 minutes I waited. Chrome timed the page out, of course, but the server never came back to life. htop showed /usr/sbin/apache2 -k restart using 100% CPU. Never came back until I did a service apache2 restart. Ran fine, as soon as I hit that logfile again...dead. So, I worked out it was the logfile script, and I worked out that seeking beyond the end of the file wasn't good, and I found a better script http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.fseek.php#90450 But what I'm left wondering is... why didn't something restart or kill the process? How was one hanging page able to bring down the whole server? It's running suphp. I say "out of the box", I've tweaked mysql and apache to fork and reserve sensible amounts of processes for the 512Mb RAM the VPS has, and it'll handle multiple refreshes of large pages, and hadn't hung before. Any ideas how I'd avoid this? Google isn't my friend in this instance beyond the reccs. above about number of processes vs RAM available.

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  • A NSMutableArray is destroying my life!

    - by camilo
    EDITED to show the relevant part of the code Hi. There's a strange problem with an NSMutableArray which I'm just not understanding... Explaining: I have a NSMutableArray, defined as a property (nonatomic, retain), synthesized, and initialized with 29 elements. realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; After the initialization, I can insert elements as I wish and everything seems to be working fine. While I'm running the application, however, if I insert a new element in the array, I can print the array in the function where I inserted the element, and everything seems ok. However, when I select a row in the table, and I need to read that array, my application crashes. In fact, it cannot even print the array anymore. Is there any "magical and logical trick" everybody should know when using a NSMutableArray that a beginner like myself can be missing? Thanks a lot. I declare my array as realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; I insert objects in my array with [realSectionNames addObject:[category categoryFirstLetter]]; although I know i can also insert it with [realSectionNames insertObject:[category categoryFirstLetter] atIndex:i]; where the "i" is the first non-occupied position. After the insertion, I reload the data of my tableView. Printing the array before or after reloading the data shows it has the desired information. After that, selecting a row at the table makes the application crash. This realSectionNames is used in several UITableViewDelegate functions, but for the case it doesn't matter. What truly matters is that printing the array in the beginning of the didSelectRowAtIndexPath function crashes everything (and of course, doesn't print anything). I'm pretty sure it's in that line, for printing anything he line before works (example): NSLog(@"Anything"); NSLog(@"%@", realSectionNames); gives the output: 2010-03-24 15:16:04.146 myApplicationExperience[3527:207] Anything [Session started at 2010-03-24 15:16:04 +0000.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 3527. Still not understanding what kind of stupidity I've done this time... maybe it's not too late to follow the career of brain surgeon?

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  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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  • SEO Help with Pages Indexed by Google

    - by Joe Majewski
    I'm working on optimizing my site for Google's search engine, and lately I've noticed that when doing a "site:www.joemajewski.com" query, I get results for pages that shouldn't be indexed at all. Let's take a look at this page, for example: http://www.joemajewski.com/wow/profile.php?id=3 I created my own CMS, and this is simply a breakdown of user id #3's statistics, which I noticed is indexed by Google, although it shouldn't be. I understand that it takes some time before Google's results reflect accurately on my site's content, but this has been improperly indexed for nearly six months now. Here are the precautions that I have taken: My robots.txt file has a line like this: Disallow: /wow/profile.php* When running the url through Google Webmaster Tools, it indicates that I did, indeed, correctly create the disallow command. It did state, however, that a page that doesn't get crawled may still get displayed in the search results if it's being linked to. Thus, I took one more precaution. In the source code I included the following meta data: <meta name="robots" content="noindex,follow" /> I am assuming that follow means to use the page when calculating PageRank, etc, and the noindex tells Google to not display the page in the search results. This page, profile.php, is used to take the $_GET['id'] and find the corresponding registered user. It displays a bit of information about that user, but is in no way relevant enough to warrant a display in the search results, so that is why I am trying to stop Google from indexing it. This is not the only page Google is indexing that I would like removed. I also have a WordPress blog, and there are many category pages, tag pages, and archive pages that I would like removed, and am doing the same procedures to attempt to remove them. Can someone explain how to get pages removed from Google's search results, and possibly some criteria that should help determine what types of pages that I don't want indexed. In terms of my WordPress blog, the only pages that I truly want indexed are my articles. Everything else I have tried to block, with little luck from Google. Can someone also explain why it's bad to have pages indexed that don't provide any new or relevant content, such as pages for WordPress tags or categories, which are clearly never going to receive traffic from Google. Thanks!

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  • Calling a function that resides in the main page from a plugin?

    - by Justin Lee
    I want to call a function from within plugin, but the function is on the main page and not the plugin's .js file. EDIT I have jQuery parsing a very large XML file and building, subsequently, a large list (1.1 MB HTML file when dynamic content is copied, pasted, then saved) that has expand/collapse functionality through a plugin. The overall performance on IE is super slow and doggy, assuming since the page/DOM is so big. I am currently trying to save the collapsed content in the event.data when it is collapsed and remove it from the DOM, then bring it back when it is told to expand... the issue that I am having is that when I bring the content back, obviously the "click" and "hover" events are gone. I'm trying to re-assign them, currently doing so inside the plugin after the plugin expands the content. The issue then though is that is says the function that I declare within the .click() is not defined. Also the hover event doesn't seem to be re-assigning either.... if ($(event.data.trigger).attr('class').indexOf('collapsed') != -1 ) { // if expanding // console.log(event.data.targetContent); $(event.data.trigger).after(event.data.targetContent); $(event.data.target).hide(); /* This Line --->*/ $(event.data.target + 'a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); $(event.data.target + 'li.resource') .hover( function() { if (!($(this).attr("disabled"))) { $(this).addClass("over"); $(this).find("a").css({'display':'block'}); } }, function () { if (!($(this).attr("disabled"))) { $(this).removeClass("over"); $(this).children("a").css({'display':'none'}); } } ); $(event.data.target).css({ "height": "0px", "padding-top": "0px", "padding-bottom": "0px", "margin-top": "0px", "margin-bottom": "0px"}); $(event.data.target).show(); $(event.data.target).animate({ height: event.data.heightVal + "px", paddingTop: event.data.topPaddingVal + "px", paddingBottom: event.data.bottomPaddingVal + "px", marginTop: event.data.topMarginVal + "px", marginBottom: event.data.bottomMarginVal + "px"}, "normal");//, function(){$(this).hide();}); $(event.data.trigger).removeClass("collapsed"); $.cookies.set('jcollapserSub_' + event.data.target, 'expanded', {hoursToLive: 24 * 365}); } else if ($(event.data.trigger).attr('class').indexOf('collapsed') == -1 ) { // if collapsing $(event.data.target).animate({ height: "0px", paddingTop: "0px", paddingBottom: "0px", marginTop: "0px", marginBottom: "0px"}, "normal", function(){$(this).hide();$(this).remove();}); $(event.data.trigger).addClass("collapsed"); $.cookies.set('jcollapserSub_' + event.data.target, 'collapsed', {hoursToLive: 24 * 365}); } EDIT So, having new eyes truly makes a difference. As I was reviewing the code in this post this morning after being away over the weekend, I found where I had err'd. This: $(event.data.target + 'a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); Should be this (notice the space before a.addbutton): $(event.data.target + ' a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); Same issue with the "li.resource". So it was never pointing to the right elements... Thank you, Rene, for your help!!

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  • Mercurial local repository backup

    - by Ricket
    I'm a big fan of backing things up. I keep my important school essays and such in a folder of my Dropbox. I make sure that all of my photos are duplicated to an external drive. I have a home server where I keep important files mirrored across two drives inside the server (like a software RAID 1). So for my code, I have always used Subversion to back it up. I keep the trunk folder with a stable copy of my application, but then I create a branch named with my username, and inside there is my working copy. I make very few changes between commits to that branch, with the understanding that the code in there is my backup. Now I'm looking into Mercurial, and I must admit I haven't truly used it yet so I may have this all wrong. But it seems to me that you have a server-side repository, and then you clone it to a working directory in the form of a local repository. Then as you work on something, you make commits to that local repository, and when things are in a state to be shared with others, you hg push to the parent repository on the server. Between pushes of stable, tested, bug-free code, where is the backup? After doing some thinking, I've come to the conclusion that it is not meant for backup purposes and it assumes you've handled that on your own. I guess I need to keep my Mercurial local repositories in my dropbox or some other backed-up location, since my in-progress code is not pushed to the server. Is this pretty much it, or have I missed something? If you use Mercurial, how do you backup your local repositories? If you had turned on your computer this morning and your hard drive went up in flames (or, more likely, the read head went bad, or the OS corrupted itself, ...), what would be lost? If you spent the past week developing a module, writing test cases for it, documenting and commenting it, and then a virus wipes your local repository away, isn't that the only copy? So then on the flip side, do you create a remote repository for every local repository and push to it all the time? How do you find a balance? How do you ensure your code is backed up? Where is the line between using Mercurial as backup, and using a local filesystem backup utility to keep your local repositories safe?

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • PHP combobox can't save the selected value on Edit Page

    - by bEtTy Barnes
    hello I've got problem with my combobox. It's not saving the selected value in Edit page. Here what I'm working with: private function inputCAR(){ $html = ""; $selectedId = $this->CAR; //$html .= '<option value="Roadmap Accelerator - Core">Roadmap Accelerator - Core</option>'; //$html .= '<option value="Roadmap Accelerator - Optional Core">Roadmap Accelerator - Optional Core</option>'; //$html .= '<option value="Regulatory">Regulatory</option>'; //$html .= '<option value="Mission Critical">Mission Critical</option>'; //$html .= '<option value="Various CARs/Types">Various CARs/types</option>'; $selection = array( "Roadmap Accelerator - Core", "Roadmap Accelerator - Optional Core", "Regulatory", "Mission Critical", "Various CARs/types" ); $html .= '<label for="car">CAR Type</label>'; $html .= HTML::selectStart("car"); foreach($selection as $value){ $text = $value; $html .= HTML::option($value, $text, $selectedId == $value ? true : false); } $html .= HTML::selectEnd(); return $html; } My option function: public static function option($value, $text, $isSelected=false) { $html = '<option value="' . $value . '"'; if($isSelected) { $html .= ' selected="selected"'; } $html .= '>'; $html .= $text; $html .= '</option>'; return $html; } When I first created a record. The selected value from my combobox got saved into the DB then the page refreshed to display. When I went to edit page, to select another value, and clicked save button. On the display page, it's not saving. For example. on Create page I selected Regulatory. then I changed my mind and changed it to Mission Critical on Edit page. On display page it is not changed. I don't know what's wrong or what I'm missing here. Any help is welcome and truly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • System won't boot: Gigabyte HD 7790 1GB OC GPU issue or Corsair VS550 PSU issue?

    - by MGOwen
    Installed a new GPU, and PC won't boot. Turn it on and: No monitor signal at all (tried HDMI and VGA via DVI, on 2 working monitors). CPU and GPU fans DO spin, but No system beeps, no sounds from drives (they might make a small noise in the first 1 second or so, but there's definitely no OS loading or anything like that) If hit "power off" button it turns off immediately (no holding down for 3 seconds like usual) If I put my old HD 5670 GPU back in, everything works fine. But (plot twist!) card is not totally dead. My friend put it in his PC, and it works fine (he even played a game for 15 minutes, no issues). He has a Corsair TX850 850W and a Gigabyte MB. So my main theory is: the GPU isn't getting enough power from the PSU. But is it: Bad PSU? Seems unlikely, since it works fine with the other GPU. Also, the PSU Is brand new and 550W (single 42A/504W 12V rail). Overkill for this GPU. Corsair is a decent brand, but maybe just mine is faulty? Bad GPU? Could it be drawing more power than it should be, somehow, or something? Supposedly HD 7790 needs only 21A/75W on the 12v rail, though this one is factory overclocked a bit... but should that triple the power requirement? Something else? Could there be a motherboard incompatibility somehow? Both MB and GPU are less than a year old and PCI Express 3.0 x16. Things I've tried: Re-seating the video card Testing PC with old GPU (works fine, same PCIe slot). Checked AMD's stated amp/watt requirements of a 7790 and my PSU (see above). My PSU can output twice the amps (single rail) and 5x the Wattage a 7790 needs. Here are the full specs: Gigabyte HD 7790 1GB OC GPU Corsair VS550 550W PSU 4GB RAM AsRock H61M U3S3 motherboard i3-2100 500GB SATA HDD (2007-ish) blu-ray drive (new) PCI 802.11g card Edit: Motherboard BIOS Update seems to have fixed it. (If anyone has same problem and it doesn't work, comment here).

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  • Android onActivityResult is always 0

    - by Dean
    This has been killing me for two days now. I have a main Activity A which calls a second Activity B. Activity B simply presents the user with a listview. When I press an item on the list view I want a couple of strings to be passed back to the main Activity A and Activiy B will finish. The problem is I always get a resultcode of 0 and the data bundle is null. I really don't understand why this is happening. Here is my code. Start Activity B for result; Test.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(recipeActivity.this, BrowseLoadRecipes.class); startActivityForResult(i, RECIPE_CHOOSER); } }); This starts the second Activity fine. Activity B populates a listview and when I click an item I'm trying to send some data back to the calling Activity A. Any text at the moment, so I used the following in Activity B; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int position, long id) { Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("TEXT", "Please work... pleeeeaasee"); Intent mIntent = new Intent(); mIntent.putExtras(bundle); setResult(RESULT_OK, mIntent); finish(); } }); In the calling activity I have the following listening for the return as follows; protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch(requestCode) { //TODO case RECIPE_CHOOSER: Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "In recipe return", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "resultCode is " + String.valueOf(resultCode), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { Bundle b = getIntent().getExtras(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Returned " + b.getString("TEXT"), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } if (resultCode == RESULT_CANCELED) { } break; } } } I can see that the request code is correctly returned, but the resultcode is always a 0 and the data is always a null. I've ran through the debug and the setResult is doing its job and the bundle does indeed have the data I'm passing, but it's lost at some point along the way. Is there something in the manifest I'm missing or something. It's killed my progress on this project so far. Any help would truly be appreciated. Thanks, Dean

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  • Windows 7 losing one of my displays after restart

    - by j_kubik
    I have an Intel DZ68BC motherboard with Intel HD graphics card using two monitors (on DVI and on HDMI » VGA). My friend asked me to test if his NVIDIA graphics card works well on my computer (at his it was doing some trouble), so I inserted it in my computer, installed the NVIDIA driver and it worked quite well. Then I removed it, uninstalled everything NVIDIA-related I could find and switched monitors back to my Intel card. Since then after every system start/restart, the system sees only monitor on HDMI » VGA connector, completely ignoring the DVI monitor. I noticed that installing the Intel video drivers causes the system to recognize the second monitor if I don't immediately reboot. After a reboot, the system recognizes only the HDMI » VGA monitor. I also tried starting in safe-mode and using DriveSweeper to remove the remains of NVIDIA drivers. While it seems that some drivers were removed, the situation didn't change. Now I am out of ideas and I really wouldn't like to reinstall the system (again...). I also tried restoring the system to the state before this whole story, but it also didn't change anything. EDIT: I am still trying to troubleshoot this problem. The only point that I could start was driver re-instalation. I traced down the part that restores right settings to a call: C:\Users\Jarek\Desktop\GFX_Win7_64_8.15.10.2696\x64\Drv64.exe -driverinf "C:\Users\Jarek\Desktop\GFX_Win7_64_8.15.10.2696\Graphics\igdlh64.inf" -flags 20 -keypath "Software\Intel\Difx64" This call fixes my displays, and as workaround, I will add it for now to my autorun. I am still looking for better solution anyway... EDIT2: Using DriverView i made a list of currently used drivers both before and after fixing my display using above command. Then i compared logs: No drivers were removed by fixing command. Drivers added by fixing command: MS Remote Access serial network driver (asyncmac.sys) security processor (spsys.sys) Drivers that changed base address (indicates driver-reload?) Canonical Display Driver (cdd.dll) Intel Graphics Kernel Mode Driver (igdkmd64.sys) Monitor Driver (monitor.sys) Added drivers seem rather unrelated to the problem to me, reloaded drivers are just a cnsequence of installing new driver file so there is not much to go here... I really cannot make heads or tails out of it...

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • ZFS Recover from Faulted Pool State

    - by nickv2002
    I have a six disk ZFS raidz1 pool and had a recent failure requiring a disk replacement. No problem normally, but this time my server hardware died before I could do the replacement (but after and unrelated to the drive failure as far as I can tell). I was able to get another machine from a friend to rebuild the system, but in the process of moving my drives over I had to swap their cables around a bunch until I got the right configuration where the remaining 5 good disks were seen as online. This process seems to have generated some checksum errors for the pool/raidz. I have the 5 remaining drives set up now and a good drive installed and ready to take the place of the drive that died. However, since my pool state is FAULTED I'm unable to do the replacement. root@zfs:~# zpool replace tank 1298243857915644462 /dev/sdb cannot open 'tank': pool is unavailable Is there any way to recover from this error? I would think that having 5 of the 6 drives online would be enough to rebuild the right data, but that doesn't seem to be enough now. Here's the status log of my pool: root@zfs:~# zpool status tank pool: tank state: FAULTED status: One or more devices could not be used because the label is missing or invalid. There are insufficient replicas for the pool to continue functioning. action: Destroy and re-create the pool from a backup source. see: http://zfsonlinux.org/msg/ZFS-8000-5E scan: none requested config: NAME STATE READ WRITE CKSUM tank FAULTED 0 0 1 corrupted data raidz1-0 ONLINE 0 0 8 sdd ONLINE 0 0 0 sdf ONLINE 0 0 0 sdh ONLINE 0 0 0 1298243857915644462 UNAVAIL 0 0 0 was /dev/sdb1 sde ONLINE 0 0 0 sdg ONLINE 0 0 0 Update (10/31): I tried to export and re-import the array a few times over the past week and wasn't successful. First I tried: zpool import -f -R /tank -N -o readonly=on -F tank That produced this error immediately: cannot import 'tank': I/O error Destroy and re-create the pool from a backup source. I added the '-X' option to the above command to try to make it check the transaction log. I let that run for about 48 hours before giving up because it had completely locked up my machine (I was unable to log in locally or via the network). Now I'm trying a simple zpool import tank command and that seems to run for a while with no output. I'll leave it running overnight to see if it outputs anything.

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • Resetting root password on Fedora Core 3 - serial cable access only

    - by Sensible Eddie
    A little background: We have an old rackmount server running a customised version of Fedora, manufactured by a company called Navaho. The server is a TeamCAT, running some proprietary rubbish called Freedom2. We have to keep it going - the alternative is extraordinarily expensive, and the business is not likely to be running much longer to justify changing things. Through one means or another, it has fallen upon me to try and resolve our lack of root access. The previous admin has fallen under the proverbial bus, and nobody has any clue. We have no access to the root account for this server. ssh is running on the server, and there is one account admin that we can login with, however it has no permission to do anything (ironic...) The only other way into the server is with a null-modem serial cable. This works... up to a point. I can see the BIOS, I can see the post BIOS screen, and then I see "Starting grub", followed by another screen with about four lines of Linux information, but then it stops at that point. The server continues booting, and all services come online after around two minutes, but the serial terminal displays no more information. I understand it is possible to put Linux into "single user mode" to reset a root password, but I have no idea how to do this beyond trying to interrupt it at the grub stage listed above. When I have tried it just froze. It was almost like grub had appeared (since the server did not continue booting) but I couldn't see it on the serial terminal. Which made me think maybe the grub screen has some different serial settings? I don't know... it's the first time I've ever used serial for access! A friend of mine suggested trying to use a Fedora boot CD. We could boot from USB, so something along this approach is possible but again we still can only see what's going on with the serial terminal, so it might not be achievable. Does anyone have any suggestions for things I can try? I appreciate this is a bit of a long shot, but any assistance would be invaluable. *UPDATE 1 - 28/8/12 * - we will be making some attempts on this today and will post further details later!

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  • Issue using a "used" SSD as a Windows 8.1 Boot Drive

    - by EpiGrad
    So, I'm something of a Mac person, but decided to take a stab at this whole "build yourself a PC" thing - right now, the thing is assembled, posts just fine, and can get to the BIOS. The problem is the drive I want to use - I intended to use a 80 GB Corsair SSD I've had sitting around as the boot drive, and a new Samsung SSD for games and the like. So I boot using a Windows 8.1 install USB stick, and if the Samsung drive is plugged in, it happily offers to install Windows on it. The Corsair drive though, it's flipped out - I reformatted it as a blank NTFS drive (it was HFS for Mac purposes) and the BIOS can't see it, nor can the Windows installer. What's wrong, and how do I fix it? The tools at my disposal are: The current ASUS BIOS that came with my motherboard (a Z87I-Deluxe), a Mac running the latest OS X which can also boot to Windows 7 if needed via either Parallels or Bootcamp. Update 1: Update: Based on a friend's suggestion to switch SATA ports, Windows 8.1's installer can now see the drive as Drive 0, Partition 1, a 83.8 GB "Primary" partition. But when I click it and hit "Next", I get the following error: "We couldn't create a new partition or locate an existing one. For more information, see the Setup log files" - not that it gives any clue how to access those. Update 2: Following a trail of Google suggestions, I ended up going into advanced tools and just reformatting the drive as follows: Start DISKPART. Type LIST DISK and identify your SSD disk number (from 0 to n disks). Type SELECT DISK <n> where <n> is your SSD disk number. Type CLEAN Type CREATE PARTITION PRIMARY Type ACTIVE Type FORMAT FS=NTFS QUICK Type ASSIGN Type EXIT twice (one to get out of DiskPart, the other to exit the command line tool) Per these instructions. This goes well enough, but now I can select the disk for installation, and I get a new error: "Windows 8 cannot be installed to this disk. The selected disk has an MBR partition table. On EFI systems, Windows can only be installed to GP disks." So, Googling that, I do the following: select disk 0 clean convert gpt exit ...and we might have fixed it. Windows is at least trying to install now.

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  • Computer randomly reboots during "intensive activity".

    - by Reznor
    My friend has been playing games on his new build for some time now. However, lately, his computer will randomly reboot out of nowhere, so far only happening in game, and presumably only to happen in game as it happens nowhere else. This can happen in game during play or even in the options. Note, it isn't a crash or blue screen. It's just a normal reboot. This started today, I believe, and has only occured in two games: Dead Space and Stalker: Shadow of Chernobyl. He has played a handful of games before these, for about a week or so, without this problem. We theorized on two possibilities: Maybe something is overheating? Maybe the power supply is inadequate? These two were quickly dismissed, as all his components were operating at normal temperatures when he got back to his desktop from the reboot, and we all know these parts don't exactly cool down quickly, especially if they get hot enough to trigger a reboot. Besides, I know at-least my motherboard reports processor overheating at start-up, and requests I press f1 to continue into boot. The PSU one was dismissed too. He has an 850w power supply on a rig that was estimated to take only 720 some watts, that's with some overcompensating to be safe. He opened up his case to make sure nothing was seated wrong or in the way. All was fine, but he did notice a sticker on his video card. It had a giant barcode on it and some numbers. Now, I'm used to seeing these stickers, they're the warranty stickers, right, and removal voids the warranty? Yeah, well, we find it odd because this sticker is slapped right over the circuits of the video card, not on a block or anything. Is this normal? Should he remove it? Right now, I am concerned with the memory. Could that be at fault? Here are his specs: Windows 7 Home Premium, 64-Bit Intel i7 950 EVGA GeForce 570 GTX 4 GB DDR3 PC10666 dual-channel Corsair RAM Corsair 850w PSU Gigabyte GA-X58A-UD3R Western Digital 1 TB WD1001FALS

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  • dismissing uiwebview

    - by chimgrrl
    Ok, I really spend 2 days on this and it has gotten me stumped. From my main UIViewController I called a WebViewController which is a UIViewController with a UIWebView inside: UOLCategoriesWebViewController *ucwvcontroller = [[UOLCategoriesWebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UOLCategoriesWebViewController" bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:ucwvcontroller animated:YES]; [ucwvcontroller release]; Inside the UOLCategoriesWebViewController I've call the delegate method shouldStartLoadWithRequest where when the user clicks on a particular type of link it parses out the params and return back to the main UIViewController (or at least that's what I want it to do): - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView*)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest*)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { BOOL continueOrExit = YES; NSURL *url = request.URL; NSString *urlString = [url relativeString]; NSString *urlParams = [url query]; NSArray *urlParamArr = [urlParams componentsSeparatedByString:@"&"]; NSLog(@"the url is: %@",urlString); //NSLog(@"the params are: %@,%@",[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:0],[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1]); //BOOL endTrain1 = [[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1] hasPrefix:@"subCatValue"]; //BOOL endTrain2 = ([urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1 //NSLog(@"Number of elements: %@",[urlParamArr count]); if (navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked) { //NSLog(@"Enter into His glory"); if ([urlString hasSuffix:@"categories_list.php"]) { //NSLog(@"2nd Heaven"); continueOrExit = YES; }else if ([[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1] hasPrefix:@"subCatValue"]) { continueOrExit = NO; NSLog(@"end of the train"); NSArray *firstParamStringArr = [[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:0] componentsSeparatedByString:@"="]; NSArray *secondParamStringArr = [[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1] componentsSeparatedByString:@"="]; NSString *catSelected = [firstParamStringArr objectAtIndex:1]; NSString *subCatSelected = [secondParamStringArr objectAtIndex:1]; //go back to native app [self goBackToMain:catSelected andSubCat:subCatSelected]; } } return continueOrExit; } Actually in the above function where I am calling the goBackToMain method I want it to call the delegate method and return to the mainviewcontroller. Unfortunately after executing that goBackToMain method it goes back to this method and continue to return continueOrExit. Is there anyway to make it truly exit without returning anything? I've tried putting in multiple returns to no avail. Or can I in the html page pass some javascript to directly call this method so that I don't have to go through this delegate method? Thanks for the help in advance!

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