Search Results

Search found 18786 results on 752 pages for 'edit insanely'.

Page 126/752 | < Previous Page | 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133  | Next Page >

• get property from XML using PHP

  - by Adnan

  Hello, I am using PHP's SimpleXML to get some values out of the following XML; - <entry> <id>http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/email_address%40gmail.com/base/0</id> <updated>2010-01-14T22:06:26.565Z</updated> <category scheme="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#kind" term="http://schemas.google.com/contact/2008#contact" /> <title type="text">Customer Name</title> <link rel="http://schemas.google.com/contacts/2008/rel#edit-photo" type="image/*" href="http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/photos/media/email_address%40gmail.com/0/34h5jh34j5kj3444" /> <link rel="self" type="application/atom+xml" href="http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/email_address%40gmail.com/full/0" /> <link rel="edit" type="application/atom+xml" href="http://www.google.com/m8/feeds/contacts/email_address%40gmail.com/full/0/5555" /> <gd:email rel="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#other" address="[email protected]" primary="true" /> </entry> I can get the title with: $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($response_h1); foreach ($xml->entry as $entry) { echo $entry->title, '<br />'; } But how to get the address="[email protected]" property?

  Read the article

• Evaluation of environment variables in command run by Java's Runtime.exec()

  - by Tom Duckering

  Hi, I have a scenarios where I have a Java "agent" that runs on a couple of platforms (specifically Windows, Solaris & AIX). I'd like to factor out the differences in filesystem structure by using environment variables in the command line I execute. As far as I can tell there is no way to get the Runtime.exec() method to resolve/evaluate any environment variables referenced in the command String (or array of Strings). I know that if push comes to shove I can write some code to pre-process the command String(s) and resolve enviroment variables by hand (using getEnv() etc). However I'm wondering if there is a smarter way to do this since I'm sure I'm not the only person wanting to do this and I'm sure there are pitfalls in "knocking up" my own implementation. Your guidance and suggestions are most welcome. edit: I would like to refer to environment variables in the command string using some consistent notation such as $VAR and/or %VAR%. Not fussed which. edit: To be clear I'd like to be able to execute a command such as: perl $SCRIPT_ROOT/somePerlScript.pl args on Windows and Unix hosts using Runtime.exec(). I specify the command in config file that describes a list of jobs to run and it has to be able to work cross platform, hence my thought that an environment variable would be useful to factor out the filesystem differences (/home/username/scripts vs C:\foo\scripts). Hope that helps clarify it. Thanks. Tom

  Read the article

• authlogic in Rails

  - by Adnan

  Hello, I am using the authlogic gem for authentication. I have followed the steps at: http://railscasts.com/episodes/160-authlogic I have the following code: # config/environment.rb config.gem "authlogic" # models/user.rb acts_as_authentic # users_controller.rb def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Registration successful." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end def edit @user = current_user end def update @user = current_user if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) flash[:notice] = "Successfully updated profile." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'edit' end end # user_sessions_controller.rb def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully logged in." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end def destroy @user_session = UserSession.find @user_session.destroy flash[:notice] = "Successfully logged out." redirect_to root_url end # application_controller.rb filter_parameter_logging :password helper_method :current_user private def current_user_session return @current_user_session if defined?(@current_user_session) @current_user_session = UserSession.find end def current_user return @current_user if defined?(@current_user) @current_user = current_user_session && current_user_session.record end # config/routes.rb map.login "login", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "new" map.logout "logout", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "destroy" I got it all working, except I would like to have a user_id in session so I can track which user posted which post, where should I set it?

  Read the article

• nested attributes with polymorphic has_one model

  - by Millisami

  I am using accepts_nested_attributes_for with the has_one polymorphic model in rails 2.3.5 Following are the models and its associations: class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :city, :address1, :address2 belongs_to :addressable, :polymorphic => true validates_presence_of :address1, :address2, :city end class Vendor < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :address_attributes has_one :address, :as => :addressable, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end This is the view: - form_for @vendor do |f| = f.error_messages %p = f.label :name %br = f.text_field :name - f.fields_for :address_attributes do |address| = render "shared/address_fields", :f => address %p = f.submit "Create" This is the partial shared/address_fields.html.haml %p = f.label :city %br= f.text_field :city %span City/Town name like Dharan, Butwal, Kathmandu, .. %p = f.label :address1 %br= f.text_field :address1 %span City Street name like Lazimpat, New Road, .. %p = f.label :address2 %br= f.text_field :address2 %span Tole, Marg, Chowk name like Pokhrel Tole, Shanti Marg, Pako, .. And this is the controller: class VendorsController < ApplicationController def new @vendor = Vendor.new end def create @vendor = Vendor.new(params[:vendor]) if @vendor.save flash[:notice] = "Vendor created successfully!" redirect_to @vendor else render :action => 'new' end end end The problem is when I fill in all the fileds, the record gets save on both tables as expected. But when I just the name and city or address1 filed, the validation works, error message shown, but the value I put in the city or address1, is not persisted or not displayed inside the address form fields? This is the same case with edit action too. Though the record is saved, the address doesn't show up on the edit form. Only the name of the Client model is shown. Actually, when I look at the log, the address model SQL is not queried even at all.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio Macros on 64 bit fail with COM error

  - by bruce.kinchin

  I'm doing some javascript development and found a cool macro to region my code ("Using #region Directive With JavaScript Files in Visual Studio"). I used this on my 32 bit box, and it worked first time. (Visual Studio 2008 SP1, Win7) For easy of reference the macro is: Option Strict Off Option Explicit Off Imports System Imports EnvDTE Imports EnvDTE80 Imports System.Diagnostics Imports System.Collections Public Module JsMacros Sub OutlineRegions() Dim selection As EnvDTE.TextSelection = DTE.ActiveDocument.Selection Const REGION_START As String = "//#region" Const REGION_END As String = "//#endregion" DTE.ExecuteCommand("Edit.StopOutlining") selection.SelectAll() Dim text As String = selection.Text selection.StartOfDocument(True) Dim startIndex As Integer Dim endIndex As Integer Dim lastIndex As Integer = 0 Dim startRegions As Stack = New Stack() Do startIndex = text.IndexOf(REGION_START, lastIndex) endIndex = text.IndexOf(REGION_END, lastIndex) If startIndex = -1 AndAlso endIndex = -1 Then Exit Do End If If startIndex <> -1 AndAlso startIndex < endIndex Then startRegions.Push(startIndex) lastIndex = startIndex + 1 Else ' Outline region ... selection.MoveToLineAndOffset(CalcLineNumber(text, CInt(startRegions.Pop())), text.Length) selection.MoveToLineAndOffset(CalcLineNumber(text, endIndex) + 1, 1, True) selection.OutlineSection() lastIndex = endIndex + 1 End If Loop selection.StartOfDocument() End Sub Private Function CalcLineNumber(ByVal text As String, ByVal index As Integer) Dim lineNumber As Integer = 1 Dim i As Integer = 0 While i < index If text.Chars(i) = vbCr Then lineNumber += 1 i += 1 End If i += 1 End While Return lineNumber End Function End Module I then tried to use the same macro on two separate 64 bit machines (Win7 x64), identical other than the 64 bit OS version and it fails to work. Stepping through it with the Visual Studio Macros IDE, it fails the first time on the DTE.ExecuteCommand("Edit.StopOutlining") line with a COM error (Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component). If I attempt to run it a second time, I can run it from the Macro Editor with no issue, but not from within Visual Studio with the macro explorer 'run macro' command. I have reviewed the following articles without finding anything helpful: Stackoverflow: Visual Studio 2008 macro only works from the Macro IDE, not the Macro Explorer Recorded macro does not run; Failing on DTE.ExecuteCommand Am I missing something dumb?

  Read the article

• How can/could/might you bind WPF DataGrid to a List of objects each with some values in a Dictionary

  - by panamack

  major edit of a tumbleweed, may remain a tumbleweed... If I have a list of Customers and the data for each Customer is contained in a Dictionary how can I bind the list to the DataGrid so that each string key is a column? Edit: N.B. I know it's not a nice way to design a Customer class. e.g. public class Customer{ public int Id{get;set;} private Dictionary<string,string> values; public Dictionary<string,string> Values{get {return values;}} public Customer(int id){ this.Id = id; values["Name"] = "Peter"; values["Age"] = 129.ToString(); values["HairColour"] = "See through!"; } } ... later that day... var Customers = new List<Customer>(){ new Customer(1), new Customer(2), new Customer(3) }; ... and then... <DataGrid ItemsSource={Binding Path=Customers}/> ... desired result. Id | Name | Age | HairColour ________________________ 1 | Peter| 129 | See through! ________________________ 2 | Peter| 129 | See through! ________________________ 3 | Peter| 129 | See through! ________________________

  Read the article

• Why is this code invalid in C#?

  - by mmattax

  The following code will not compile: string foo = "bar"; Object o = foo == null ? DBNull.Value : foo; I get: Error 1 Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between 'System.DBNull' and 'string' To fix this, I must do something like this: string foo = "bar"; Object o = foo == null ? DBNull.Value : (Object)foo; This cast seems pointless as this is certainly legal: string foo = "bar"; Object o = foo == null ? "gork" : foo; It seems to me that when the ternary branches are of different types, the compiler will not autobox the values to the type object...but when they are of the same type then the autoboxing is automatic. In my mind the first statement should be legal... Can anyone describe why the compiler does not allow this and why the designers of C# chose to do this? I believe this is legal in Java...Though I have not verified this. Thanks. EDIT: I am asking for an understanding of why Java and C# handle this differently, what is going on underneath the scenes in C# that make this invalid. I know how to use ternary, and am not looking for a "better way" to code the examples. I understand the rules of ternary in C#, but I want to know WHY... EDIT (Jon Skeet): Removed "autoboxing" tag as no boxing is involved in this question.

  Read the article

• Track "commands" send to WPF window by touchpad (Bamboo)

  - by Christian

  Hi, I just bought a touchpad wich allows drawing and using multitouch. The api is not supported fully by windows 7, so I have to rely on the build in config dialog. The basic features are working, so if I draw something in my WPF tool, and use both fingers to do a right click, I can e.g. change the color. What I want to do now is assign other functions to special features in WPF. Does anybody know how to find out in what way the pad communicates with the app? It works e.g. in Firefox to scroll, like it should (shown on this photo). But I do not know how to hookup the scroll event, I tried a Scrollviewer (which ignores my scroll attempts) and I also hooked up an event with the keypressed, but it does not fire (I assume the pad does not "press a key" but somehow sends the "scroll" command direclty. How can I catch that command in WPF? Thanks a lot, Chris [EDIT] I got the scroll to work, but only up and down, not left and right. It was just a stupid "listbox in scrollviewer" mistake. But still not sure about commands like ZOOM in (which is working even in paint).. Which API contains such things? [EDIT2] Funny, the zoom works in Firefox, the horizontal scrolling does not. But, in paint, the horizontal scrolling works... [EDIT 3] Just asked in the wacom forum, lets see about vendor support reaction time... http://forum.wacom.eu/viewtopic.php?f=4&t=1939 Here is a picture of the config surface to get the idea what I am talking about: (Bamboo settings, I try to catch these commands in WPF)

  Read the article

• WinForms Application Form "Shakes" When Audio Playing

  - by ikurtz

  I have a C# game program that i'm developing. it uses sound samples and winsock. when i test run the game most of the audio works fine but from time to time if it is multiple samples being played sequentially the application form shakes a little bit and then goes back to its old position. how do i go about debugging this or present it to you folks in a manageable manner? i'm sure no one is going to want the whole app code in fear of virus attacks. please guide me.. EDIT: i have not been able to pin down any code section that produces this result. it just does and i cannot explain it. EDIT: no the x/y position are not changing. the window like shakes around a few pixels and then goes back to the position were it was before the shake. if (audio) { Stream stream; SoundPlayer player; stream = Properties.Resources.ResourceManager.GetStream("_home"); player = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(stream); player.PlaySync(); player.Dispose(); string ShipID = fireResult.DestroyedShipType.ToString(); stream = Properties.Resources.ResourceManager.GetStream("_" + ShipID); player = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(stream); player.PlaySync(); player.Dispose(); stream = Properties.Resources.ResourceManager.GetStream("_destroyed"); player = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(stream); player.PlaySync(); player.Dispose(); } can you see anything in the above code that would produce this shake?

  Read the article

• HTTP Basic Authentication with HTTPService Objects in Adobe Flex/AIR

  - by Bob Somers

  I'm trying to request a HTTP resource that requires basic authorization headers from within an Adobe AIR application. I've tried manually adding the headers to the request, as well as using the setRemoteCredentials() method to set them, to no avail. Here's the code: <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.rpc.events.FaultEvent; private function authAndSend(service:HTTPService):void { service.setRemoteCredentials('someusername', 'somepassword'); service.send(); } private function resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { apiResult.text = event.result.toString(); } private function resultFailed(event:FaultEvent):void { apiResult.text = event.fault.toString(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="apiService" url="https://mywebservice.com/someFileThatRequiresBasicAuth.xml" resultFormat="text" result="resultHandler(event)" fault="resultFailed(event)" /> <mx:Button id="apiButton" label="Test API Command" click="authAndSend(apiService)" /> <mx:TextArea id="apiResult" /> However, a standard basic auth dialog box still pops up prompting the user for their username and password. I have a feeling I'm not doing this the right way, but all the info I could find (Flex docs, blogs, Google, etc.) either hasn't worked or was too vague to help. Any black magic, oh Flex gurus? Thanks. EDIT: Changing setRemoteCredentials() to setCredentials() yields the following ActionScript error: [MessagingError message='Authentication not supported on DirectHTTPChannel (no proxy).'] EDIT: Problem solved, after some attention from Adobe. See the posts below for a full explanation. This code will work for HTTP Authentication headers of arbitrary length. import mx.utils.Base64Encoder; private function authAndSend(service:HTTPService):void { var encoder:Base64Encoder = new Base64Encoder(); encoder.insertNewLines = false; // see below for why you need to do this encoder.encode("someusername:somepassword"); service.headers = {Authorization:"Basic " + encoder.toString()}; service.send(); }

  Read the article

• Looking for Antlr Grammar syntaxt highlight in VS2010

  - by David Mårtensson

  I am looking for some way to edit antlr grammar files directly within VS2010 with syntax highlight. I have used antlrworks a lot but it has the drawback that I have to start antlrworks separately and then browse to the file I want to edit, do the changed and save. For minor fixes I do not need all the tools in Antlrworks but I still would like the syntax highlight. But I have not been able to get VS2010 to open antlrworks with the right file and I have found no other way to get syntax highlight directly within VS2010 editor, it just opens as plain text. I can get visual studio to open antlrworks but it will open with only the last set of files it had open, not the one I clicked on. So my question(s) are: Is there a way to get antlrworks to open with the right file when I double click in it in visual studio project explorer? Is there any other way to get correct syntax highlight for antlr grammar files within visual studio (or with another editor, preferably not one that costs money, but if there are no free ones a commercial one might be an option).

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2008 - Editing Tables: Bit columns require 'True' or 'False'

  - by CJM

  Not so much a question as an observation... I'm just upgrading to SQL Server 2008 on my development machine in anticipation of upgrading my live applications. I didn't anticipate any problems since [I think] I generally use standard T-SQL, and probably not too far from ANSI standard SQL. So far so good, but I was really thrown by a very simple change: I was creating a simple, small look-up table to store a list of codes and including a bit column to indicate the current default code. But when I used the new/modified 'Edit Top 200 Rows' option, and entered my 0s and 1s in the the bit column I got an error: 'Invalid value for cell - String was not recognised as a valid boolean' After a bit of head-scratching, I tried True and False - and they worked. So it seems this new Edit feature requires 4 or 5 characters to be typed, rather than the previous 1. Checking further, we can still use '...where bitval = 1' but can now also use '...where bitval = 'true''. But any results returned render these bit columns as 0 or 1 still. It all sounds like half a step backwards. Not the end of the world, but and unnecessary annoyance. Does anybody have any insight on this issue? Or there any other new Gotchas with SQL Server 2008?

  Read the article

• Why does Cut/Paste of form components sometimes stop working in Delphi 2007 IDE?

  - by robsoft

  This is driving me crazy. I'm not going to take it anymore. I'm going to ask, even at the risk of eternal public humiliation! (If it's something really obvious or that I've done to the system myself). For reasons I've never quite had the patience to work out, every so often the form I'm working on in Delphi 2007's visual form editor goes 'pseudo-read-only'; I can add new components to the form, I can move/resize existing ones (and change any properties in the Object Inspector), and I can select a component and 'copy' it to the clipboard. But I'm completely unable to cut a component from the form, or paste a new copy down. I don't believe it's to do with the 'Lock Controls' Edit menu option as I can toggle this on or off and it has the effect it's supposed to - this disappearance of Cut & Paste happens on the right-click context menu, from the keyboard and from the main Edit menu - it's as if the form has become read only to thing to do with the clipboard. If I close the form in the IDE and then reopen it, everything starts working fine again (just as D1, D3, D5 and D7 always did for me, previously). I'm not going mad, as I'm sure I read something about why this happens on a newsgroup once and it's caught me out from time to time many many times in the last few months, but I've failed to find the newsgroup reference this evening and I've decided that, as more and more Delphi users seem to be making use of StackOverflow, it was worth asking here. Help - when I'm doing lots of form-work it drives me absolutely mad!

  Read the article

• Print raw data to a thermal-printer using .NET

  - by blauesocke

  I'm trying to print out raw ascii data to a thermal printer. I do this by using this code example: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/322091 but my printer prints always only one character and this not until I press the form feed button. If I print something with notepad the printer will do a form feed automatically but without printing any text. The printer is connected via usb over a lpt2usb adapter and Windows 7 uses the "Generic - Generic / Text Only" driver. Anyone knows what is going wrong? How is it possible to print some words and do some form feeds? Are there some control characters I have to send? And if yes: How do I send them? Edit 14.04.2010 21:51 My code (C#) looks like this: PrinterSettings s = new PrinterSettings(); s.PrinterName = "Generic / Text Only"; RawPrinterHelper.SendStringToPrinter(s.PrinterName, "Test"); This code will return a "T" after I pressed the form feed button (This litte black button here: swissmania.ch/images/935-151.jpg - sorry, not enough reputation for two hyperlinks) Edit 15.04.2010 16:56 I'm using now the code form here: c-sharpcorner.com/UploadFile/johnodonell/PrintingDirectlytothePrinter11222005001207AM/PrintingDirectlytothePrinter.aspx I modified it a bit that I can use the following code: byte[] toSend; // 10 = line feed // 13 carriage return/form feed toSend = new byte[1] { 13 }; PrintDirect.WritePrinter(lhPrinter, toSend, toSend.Length, ref pcWritten); Running this code has the same effekt like pressing the form feed button, it works fine! But code like this still does not work: byte[] toSend; // 10 = line feed // 13 carriage return/form feed toSend = new byte[2] { 66, 67 }; PrintDirect.WritePrinter(lhPrinter, toSend, toSend.Length, ref pcWritten); This will print out just a "B" but I expect "BC" and after running any code I have to reconnect the USB cable to make it work agian. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• php: fopen() of an URL breaks for domain names, not for numerical addresses

  - by b0fh

  After hours of trying to debug a third-party application having trouble with fopen(), i finally discovered that php -r 'echo(file_get_contents("http://www.google.com/robots.txt"));' fails, but php -r 'echo(file_get_contents("http://173.194.32.81/robots.txt"));' Succeeds. Note that as the webserver user, I can ping www.google.com and it resolves just fine. I straced both executions of PHP, and they diverge like this: For the numerical v4 URL: socket(PF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_IP) = 3 fcntl(3, F_GETFL) = 0x2 (flags O_RDWR) fcntl(3, F_SETFL, O_RDWR|O_NONBLOCK) = 0 connect(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(80), sin_addr=inet_addr("173.194 poll([{fd=3, events=POLLOUT}], 1, 0) = 0 (Timeout) ...[bunch of poll/select/recvfrom]... close(3) = 0 For the domain name: socket(PF_INET6, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_IP) = 3 close(3) = 0 PHP didn't even try to do anything with that socket, it seems. Or even resolve the domain, for that matter. WTF ? Recompiling PHP with or without ipv6 support did not seem to matter. Disabling ipv6 on this system is not desirable. Gentoo Linux, PHP 5.3.14, currently giving a try to PHP 5.4 and see if it helps. Anyone has an idea ? EDIT: php -r 'echo gethostbyname("www.google.com");' Works and yield an ipv4, while php -r 'echo(file_get_contents("http://[2a00:1450:4007:803::1011]/"));' Seems to return a blank result. EDIT 2: I didn't even notice the first time, that the v6 socket opened when the name is used is a SOCK_DGRAM.

  Read the article

• slicing a 2d numpy array

  - by MedicalMath

  The following code: import numpy as p myarr=[[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6],[0,1],[0,6]] copy=p.array(myarr) p.mean(copy)[:,1] Is generating the following error message: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#3>", line 1, in <module> p.mean(copy)[:,1] IndexError: 0-d arrays can only use a single () or a list of newaxes (and a single ...) as an index I looked up the syntax at this link and I seem to be using the correct syntax to slice. However, when I type copy[:,1] into the Python shell, it gives me the following output, which is clearly wrong, and is probably what is throwing the error: array([1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6, 1, 6]) Can anyone show me how to fix my code so that I can extract the second column and then take the mean of the second column as intended in the original code above? EDIT: Thank you for your solutions. However, my posting was an oversimplification of my real problem. I used your solutions in my real code, and got a new error. Here is my real code with one of your solutions that I tried: filteredSignalArray=p.array(filteredSignalArray) logical=p.logical_and(EndTime-10.0<=matchingTimeArray,matchingTimeArray<=EndTime) finalStageTime=matchingTimeArray.compress(logical) finalStageFiltered=filteredSignalArray.compress(logical) for j in range(len(finalStageTime)): if j == 0: outputArray=[[finalStageTime[j],finalStageFiltered[j]]] else: outputArray+=[[finalStageTime[j],finalStageFiltered[j]]] print 'outputArray[:,1].mean() is: ',outputArray[:,1].mean() And here is the error message that is now being generated by the new code: File "mypath\myscript.py", line 1545, in WriteToOutput10SecondsBeforeTimeMarker print 'outputArray[:,1].mean() is: ',outputArray[:,1].mean() TypeError: list indices must be integers, not tuple Second EDIT: This is solved now that I added: outputArray=p.array(outputArray) above my code. I have been at this too many hours and need to take a break for a while if I am making these kinds of mistakes.

  Read the article

• .NET EventHandlers - Generic or no?

  - by Chris Marasti-Georg

  Every time I start in deep in a C# project, I end up with lots of events that really just need to pass a single item. I stick with the EventHandler/EventArgs practice, but what I like to do is have something like: public delegate void EventHandler<T>(object src, EventArgs<T> args); public class EventArgs<T>: EventArgs { private T item; public EventArgs(T item) { this.item = item; } public T Item { get { return item; } } } Later, I can have my public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; public event EventHandler<Bar> BarChanged; However, it seems that the standard for .NET is to create a new delegate and EventArgs subclass for each type of event. Is there something wrong with my generic approach? EDIT: The reason for this post is that I just re-created this in a new project, and wanted to make sure it was ok. Actually, I was re-creating it as I posted. I found that there is a generic EventHandler<TEventArgs, so you don't need to create the generic delegate, but you still need the generic EventArgs<T class, because TEventArgs: EventArgs. Another EDIT: One downside (to me) of the built-in solution is the extra verbosity: public event EventHandler<EventArgs<Foo>> FooChanged; vs. public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; It can be a pain for clients to register for your events though, because the System namespace is imported by default, so they have to manually seek out your namespace, even with a fancy tool like Resharper... Anyone have any ideas pertaining to that?

  Read the article

• Anybody seen this behavior with Sql Server Reporting Services, a 64bit OS and an Oracle datasource?

  - by dkackman

  I'm working on a Sql Server Reporting Services solution that queries across both a Sql Server data source and an Oracle 10g data source. My dev box is Windows 7 64bit with Sql Server 2008R2 and I'm hosting IIS7 and SSRS on that system for development; using VS.NET for designing the reports. I have been having errors when running the report where SSRS complains about loading the 32 bit Oracle client in a 64bit process. There a number of threads out there about how to solve that. The thing is, they all come down to making sure you have the 64bit Oracle, client which I do. The weird chain of events I have goes like this: Create initial Oracle datasource and wire up report (it works) Edit Oracle datasource connection (it stops working with BadImageFormatException 32bit/64bit error message) uninstall and reinstall Oracle client (it works) Edit Oracle connection again (it stops working with BadImageFormatException 32bit/64bit error message) So short of reinstalling the client every time I change the connection string I am at a complete loss. Has anybody seen this sort of behavior? And if so what the heck am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Using PHP cURL with an HTTP Debugging Proxy

  - by Kane

  I'm using the app "Fiddler" to debug a GET attempt to a website via PHP cURL. In order to see the cURL traffic I had to specify that the cURL connection use the Fiddler proxy (see code below). $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPPROXYTUNNEL, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY, '127.0.0.1:8888'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 5); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, 'read_header'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://domain.com"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "my_cookies.txt"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "my_cookies.txt"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://domain.com"); $response = curl_exec($ch); But the problem is that in Fiddler I can only see this: Request (domain.com is just an alias): CONNECT domain.com:80 HTTP/1.1 Response: HTTP/1.1 200 Blind-Connection Established If I manually load the website in a browser Fiddler gives me WAY more information. I can see the cookies, the header information, and what I'm receiving via the GET. Any ideas why Fiddler can't see more useful information from PHP cURL? Edit: I tried turning on the "Enable HTTPS Decryption" option inside Tools / Fiddler Options / HTTPS (which I'm not sure why I'd need to use as I didn't tell cURL to use HTTPS). Unfortunately, by changing this setting I now get a Response of: HTTP/1.1 502 Connection failed Edit: If it helps, the app "Charles" shows me WAY more information than Fiddler, but I really want to figure out Fiddler since I like it better.

  Read the article

• Archive log transfer from Oracle 9i to Oracle 10g

  - by Jamie Love

  Hi all, I have a situation where I need to transfer Oracle 9i archive logs to an Oracle 10g database, from where they are to be mined by a log-miner and then used by an Oracle streams capture/apply processes. (Oracle 9 archive logs can be read by the Oracle 10 logminer - I can manually copy the archive logs across, manually register them and have them mined, captured then applied). The difficulty is that the way Oracle does archive log transfer changed quite a bit between 9i and 10g and setting up the 9i database to transfer to the remote machine like so: log_archive_dest_state_2 = enable log_archive_dest_2 = "service=OTHERMACHINE arch optional" no longer works. I get this in the 9i logs: *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.149 RFS network connection lost at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching RFS server to standby instance at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching to destination LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2 standby host 'OTHERMACHINE' Heartbeat failed to connect to standby 'OTHERMACHINE'. Error is 3113. *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.150 kcrrfail: dest:2 err:3113 force:0 ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel And in the 10g log I get: Fri May 22 04:07:42 2009 WARNING: inbound connection timed out (ORA-3136) My question is: Does anyone know how I could configure my 9i or 10g server such that the 10g server will accept the 9i connection in such a way that I can transfer the 9i archive logs to the 10g server. It would be a bonus if the archive logs would be automatically registered in the 10g server. Note I have not set up a full DataGuard configuration here and the 10g database is not a secondary server. Thanks for any suggestions. Edit Note that I can log on to the 10g server from the 9i server via sqlplus, so connectivity is not the problem Edit 2 After a large amount of time searching for a solution, I've finally decided that such a mechanism doesn't work, and that a non-Oracle method of transferring archive logs from 9i to 10g will need to be used (e.g. rsync).

  Read the article

• drupal_add_css not working

  - by hfidgen

  Hiya, I need to use drupal_add_css to call stylesheets onto single D6 pages. I don't want to edit the main theme stylesheet as there will be a set of individual pages which all need completely new styles - the main sheet would be massive if i put it all in there. My solution was to edit the page in PHP editor mode and do this: <?php drupal_add_css("/styles/file1.css", "theme"); ?> <div id="newPageContent">stuff here in html</div> But when i view source, there is nothing there! Not even a broken css link or anything, it's just refusing to add the css sheet to the css package put into the page head. Variations don't seem to work either: drupal_add_css($path = '/styles/file1.css', $type = 'module', $media = 'all', $preprocess = TRUE) My template header looks like this, i've not changed anything from the default other than adding a custom JS. <head> <?php print $head ?> <title><?php print $head_title ?></title> <?php print $styles ?> <?php print $scripts ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php print base_path() ?>misc/askme.js"></script> <!--[if lt IE 7]> <?php print phptemplate_get_ie_styles(); ?> <![endif]--> </head> Can anyone think of a reason why this function is not working? Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

  Read the article

• Android SMS API

  - by Schildmeijer

  I know that the SMS content provider is not part of the public API (at least not documented), but if I understand correctly it's still possible to use many of the SMS features as long as you know how to use the API(?). E.g it's pretty straightforward to insert an SMS into your inbox: ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put("address", "+457014921911"); contentResolver.insert(Uri.parse("content://sms"), values); Unfortunately this does not trigger the standard "new-SMS-in-your-inbox" notification. Is it possible to trigger this manually? Edit: AFAIK the "standard mail application (Messaging)" in Android is listening for incoming SMSes using the android.permission.RECEIVE_SMS permission. And then, when a new SMS has arrived, a status bar notification is inserted with a "special" notification id. So one solution to my problem (stated above) could be to find, and send the correct broadcast intent; something like "NEW SMS HAS ARRIVED"-intent. Edit: Downloaded a third party messaging application (chompsms) from Android market. This application satisfies my needs better. When i execute the code above the chompsms notice the new sms and shows the "standard status bar notification". So I would say that the standard Android Messaging application is not detecting sms properly? Or am I wrong?

  Read the article

• Objective-C memory model

  - by TofuBeer

  I am attempting to wrap my head around one part of the Objective-C memory model (specifically on the iPhone, so no GC). My background is C/C++/Java, and I am having an issue with the following bit of code (also wondering if I am doing this in an "Objective-C way" or not): - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [NSMutableSet new]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return ([set autorelease]); } - (void) test { NSSet *setA; NSSet *setB; setA = [self retrieve]; setB = [[self retrieve] retain]; [setA release]; [setB release]; } start EDIT Based on comments below, the updated retrieve method: - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [[[NSMutableSet alloc] initWithCapacity:100] autorelease]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return (set); } end EDIT The above code gives a warning for [setA release] "Incorrect decrement of the reference count of an object is not owned at this point by the caller". I though that the "new" set the reference count to 1. Then the "retain" call would add 1, and the "release" call would drop it by 1. Given that wouldn't setA have a reference count of 0 at the end and setB have a reference count of 1 at the end? From what I have figured out by trial and error, setB is correct, and there is no memory leak, but I'd like to understand why that is the case (what is wrong with my understanding of "new", "autorelease", "retain", and "release").

  Read the article

• Analyzing data from same tables in diferent db instances.

  - by Oscar Reyes

  Short version: How can I map two columns from table A and B if they both have a common identifier which in turn may have two values in column C Lets say: A --- 1 , 2 B --- ? , 3 C ----- 45, 2 45, 3 Using table C I know that id 2 and 3 belong to the same item ( 45 ) and thus "?" in table B should be 1. What query could do something like that? EDIT Long version ommited. It was really boring/confusing EDIT I'm posting some output here. From this query: select distinct( rolein) , activityin from taskperformance@dm_prod where activityin in ( select activityin from activities@dm_prod where activityid in ( select activityid from activities@dm_prod where activityin in ( select distinct( activityin ) from taskperformance where rolein = 0 ) ) ) I have the following parts: select distinct( activityin ) from taskperformance where rolein = 0 Output: http://question1337216.pastebin.com/f5039557 select activityin from activities@dm_prod where activityid in ( select activityid from activities@dm_prod where activityin in ( select distinct( activityin ) from taskperformance where rolein = 0 ) ) Output: http://question1337216.pastebin.com/f6cef9393 And finally: select distinct( rolein) , activityin from taskperformance@dm_prod where activityin in ( select activityin from activities@dm_prod where activityid in ( select activityid from activities@dm_prod where activityin in ( select distinct( activityin ) from taskperformance where rolein = 0 ) ) ) Output: http://question1337216.pastebin.com/f346057bd Take for instace activityin 335 from first query ( from taskperformance B) . It is present in actvities from A. But is not in taskperformace in A ( but a the related activities: 92, 208, 335, 595 ) Are present in the result. The corresponding role in is: 1

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133  | Next Page >