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  • Namespace constraint with generic class decleration

    - by SomeGuy
    Good afternoon people, I would like to know if (and if so how) it is possible to define a namespace as a constraint parameter in a generic class declaration. What I have is this: namespace MyProject.Models.Entities <-- Contains my classes to be persisted in db namespace MyProject.Tests.BaseTest <-- Obvious i think Now the decleration of my 'BaseTest' class looks like so; public class BaseTest<T> This BaseTest does little more (at the time of writing) than remove all entities that were added to the database during testing. So typically I will have a test class declared as: public class MyEntityRepositoryTest : BaseTest<MyEntity> What i would LIKE to do is something similar to the following: public class BaseTest<T> where T : <is of the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace> Now i am aware that it would be entirely possible to simply declare a 'BaseEntity' class from which all entities created within the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace will inherit from; public class BaseTest<T> where T : MyBaseEntity but...I dont actually need to, or want to. Plus I am using an ORM and mapping entities with inheritance, although possible, adds a layer of complexity that is not required. So, is it possible to constrain a generic class parameter to a namespace and not a specific type ? Thank you for your time.

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  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

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  • How to get SimpleRpcClient.Call() to be a blocking call to achieve synchronous communication with RabbitMQ?

    - by Nick Josevski
    In the .NET version (2.4.1) of RabbitMQ the RabbitMQ.Client.MessagePatterns.SimpleRpcClient has a Call() method with these signatures: public virtual object[] Call(params object[] args); public virtual byte[] Call(byte[] body); public virtual byte[] Call(IBasicProperties requestProperties, byte[] body, out IBasicProperties replyProperties); The problem: With various attempts, the method still continues to not block where I expect it to, so it's unable ever handle the response. The Question: Am I missing something obvious in the setup of the SimpleRpcClient, or earlier with the IModel, IConnection, or even PublicationAddress? More Info: I've also tried various paramater configurations of the QueueDeclare() method too with no luck. string QueueDeclare(string queue, bool durable, bool exclusive, bool autoDelete, IDictionary arguments); Some more reference code of my setup of these: IConnection conn = new ConnectionFactory{Address = "127.0.0.1"}.CreateConnection()); using (IModel ch = conn.CreateModel()) { var client = new SimpleRpcClient(ch, queueName); var queueName = ch.QueueDeclare("t.qid", true, true, true, null); ch.QueueBind(queueName, "exch", "", null); //HERE: does not block? var replyMessageBytes = client.Call(prop, msgToSend, out replyProp); } Looking elsewhere: Or is it likely there's an issue in my "server side" code? With and without the use of BasicAck() it appears the client has already continued execution.

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  • Changing where a resource is pulled during runtime?

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that goes out to multiple clients. Sometimes a client will insist on minor changes. For reasons beyond my control, I have to comply no matter how minor the request. Usually this isn't a problem, I would just create a client specific version of the user control or page and overwrite the default one during build time or make a configuration setting to handle it. Now that I am localizing the site, I'm curious about the best way to go about making minor wording changes. Lets say I have a resource file called Resources.resx that has 300 resources in it. It has a resource called Continue. English value is "Continue", the French value is "Continuez". Now one client, for whatever reason, wants it to say "Next" and "Après" and the others want to keep it the same. What is the best way to accomodate a request like this? (This is just a simple example). The only two ways I can think of is to Create another Resources.resx specific to the client, and replace the .dll during build time. Since I'd be completely replacing the dll, the new resource file would have to contain all 300 strings. The obvious problem being that I now have 2 resource files, each with 300 strings to maintain. Create a custom user control/page and change it to use a custom resource file. e.g. SignIn.ascx would be replaced during the build and it would pull its resources from ClientName.resx instead of Resources.resx. Are there any other things I could try? Is there any way to change it so that the application will always look in a ClientResources.resx file for the overridden values before actually look at the specified resource file?

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  • MSSQL 2005 FOR XML

    - by Lima
    Hi, I am wanting to export data from a table to a specifically formated XML file. I am fairly new to XML files, so what I am after may be quite obvious but I just cant find what I am looking for on the net. The format of the XML results I need are: <data> <event start="May 28 2006 09:00:00 GMT" end="Jun 15 2006 09:00:00 GMT" isDuration="true" title="Writing Timeline documentation" image="http://simile.mit.edu/images/csail-logo.gif"> A few days to write some documentation </event> </data> My table structure is: name VARCHAR(50), description VARCHAR(255), startDate DATETIME, endDate DATETIME (I am not too interested in the XML fields image or isDuration at this point in time). I have tried: SELECT [name] ,[description] ,[startDate] ,[endTime] FROM [testing].[dbo].[time_timeline] FOR XML RAW('event'), ROOT('data'), type Which gives me: <data> <event name="Test1" description="Test 1 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> <event name="Test2" description="Test 2 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> </data> What I am missing, is the description needs to be outside of the event attributes, and there needs to be a tag. Is anyone able to point me in the correct direction, or point me to a tutorial or similar on how to accomplish this? Thanks, Matt

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  • A C# Refactoring Question...

    - by james lewis
    I came accross the following code today and I didn't like it. It's fairly obvious what it's doing but I'll add a little explanation here anyway: Basically it reads all the settings for an app from the DB and the iterates through all of them looking for the DB Version and the APP Version then sets some variables to the values in the DB (to be used later). I looked at it and thought it was a bit ugly - I don't like switch statements and I hate things that carry on iterating through a list once they're finished. So I decided to refactor it. My question to all of you is how would you refactor it? Or do you think it even needs refactoring at all? Here's the code: using (var sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(Lfepa.Itrs.Framework.Configuration.ConnectionString)) { sqlConnection.Open(); var dataTable = new DataTable("Settings"); var selectCommand = new SqlCommand(Lfepa.Itrs.Data.Database.Commands.dbo.SettingsSelAll, sqlConnection); var reader = selectCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader[SettingKeyColumnName].ToString().ToUpper()) { case DatabaseVersionKey: DatabaseVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; case ApplicationVersionKey: ApplicationVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; default: break; } } if (DatabaseVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Database Version Setting from the database."); if (ApplicationVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Application Version Setting from the database."); }

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • git rebse onto remote updates

    - by Blake Chambers
    I work with a small team that uses git for source cod management. Recently, we have been doing topic branches to keep track of features then merging them into master locally then pushing them to a central git repository on a remote server. This works great when no changes have been made in master: I create my topic branch, commit it, merge it into master, then push. Hooray. However, if someone has pushed to origin before i do, my commits are not fast-forward. Thus a merge commit ensues. This also happens when a topic branch needs to merge with master locally to ensure my changes work with the code as of now. So, we end up with merge commits everywhere and a git log rivaling a friendship bracelet. So, rebasing is the obvious choice. What I would like is to: create topic branches holding several commits checkout master and pull (fast-forward because i haven't committed to master) rebase topic branches onto the new head of master rebase topics against master(so the topics start at masters head), bringing master up to my topic head My way of doing this currently is listed below: git checkout master git rebase master topic_1 git rebase topic_1 topic_2 git checkout master git rebase topic_2 git branch -d topic_1 topic_2 Is there a faster way to do this?

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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  • Why does SQLite take such a long time to fetch the data?

    - by Derk
    I have two possible queries, both giving the result set I want. Query one takes about 30ms, but 150ms to fetch the data from the database. SELECT id FROM featurevalues as featval3 WHERE featval3.feature IN (?,?,?,?) AND EXISTS ( SELECT 1 FROM product_to_value, product_to_value as prod2, features, featurevalues WHERE product_to_value.feature = features.int AND product_to_value.value = featurevalues.id AND features.id = ? AND featurevalues.id IN (?,?) AND product_to_value.product = prod2.product AND prod2.value = featval3.id ) Query two takes about 3ms -this is the one I therefore prefer-, but also takes 170ms to fetch the data. SELECT ( SELECT prod2.value FROM product_to_value, product_to_value as prod2, features, featurevalues WHERE product_to_value.feature = features.int AND product_to_value.value = featurevalues.id AND features.id = ? AND featurevalues.id IN (?,?) AND product_to_value.product = prod2.product AND prod2.value = featval3.id ) as id FROM featurevalues as featval3 WHERE featval3.feature IN (?,?,?,?) The 170ms seems to be related to the number of rows from table featval3. After an index is used on featval3.feature IN (?,?,?,?), 151 items "remain" in featval3. Is there something obvious I am missing regarding the slow fetching? As far as I know everything is properly indexed.. I am confused because the second query only takes a blazing 3ms to run.

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  • How to install previously-archived apps from xcode organizer to my iphone

    - by Ben Clayton
    Hi all. Xcode keeps an archive of all the versions of my apps that I've submitted to the app store in the 'archived applications' section. I assumed using this I could install an old version of an app to my device, in order to reproduce any problems my client may have had with that particular version. However, when I try to do this I get an error: 'this executable was signed with invalid entitlements, the entitlements specified in your applications code signing entitlements do not match those specified in your provisioning profile' The original app was signed using our App Store distribution certificate, and I use the Organizer interface to re-sign it using our Developer profile. select the archived app select the version I want to test click 'share' select 'iphone developer' next to identity save to disk (saves the ipa file) then copy the ipa to the device using the little + button you see next to 'applications' on the screen you get when you select the connected device. Then I get the error, and the app isn't installed. Is there something obvious I'm doing wrong here? Or is there a different process to re-install an archived app to my device? Thanks,

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  • How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

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  • Visual Studio / Blend... how you organize that?

    - by TomTom
    Virst time more complex stuff in WPF. I am a little lost on the split betwen VS and Blend. It seems I am VERY limited with editors in Visual Studio for editing controls - when customizing, for example, it seems I Can enter astyle in XML... but in blend I Can tell it to make a copy of the CURRENT style and use that as a starter, definitely more convenient. I understand the "difference in focus", but it seems to me that i Really need both tools to work, especially if the controls I Do are: More complex Not user controls "on purpose" (to allow more customization by programmes using the application). THis means when I do a control, my approach would be: Work on the backend as good as it gets without front end (i.e. implement all methods needed etc., but can be dummies) Switch over to Blend (closing visual studio - as the projcet must be closed) Put in the initial templating Switch over to VIsual Studio (closing blend) Put logic in and debug. This seems pretty counterintuitively. Am I missing something obvious here?

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  • Database design - table relationship question

    - by iama
    I am designing schema for a simple quiz application. It has 2 tables - "Question" and "Answer Choices". Question table has 'question ID', 'question text' and 'answer id' columns. "Answer Choices" table has 'question ID', 'answer ID' and 'answer text' columns. With this simple schema it is obvious that a question can have multiple answer choices & hence the need for the answer choices table. However, a question can have only one correct answer and hence the need for the 'answer ID' in the question table. However, this 'answer ID' column in the question table provides a illusion as though there can be multiple questions for a single answer which is not correct. The other alternative to eliminate this illusion is to have another table just for correct answer that will have just 2 columns namely the question ID and the answer ID with a 1-1 relationship between the two tables. However, I think this is redundant. Any recommendation on how best to design this thereby enforcing the rules that a question can have multiple answer choices but only one correct answer? Many Thanks.

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  • Creating a RESTful service in CakePHP

    - by NathanGaskin
    I'm attempting to create a RESTful service in CakePHP but I've hit a bit of a brick wall. I've enabled the default RESTful routing using Router::mapResources('users') and Router::parseExtensions(). This works well if I make a GET request, and returns some nicely formatted XML. So far so good. The problem is if I want to make a POST or PUT request. CakePHP doesn't seem to be able to read the data from the request. At the moment my add(), edit() and delete() actions don't contain any logic, they're simply setting $this-data to the view. I'm testing with the following cURL command: curl -v -d "<user><username>blahblah</username><password>blahblah</password>" http://localhost/users.xml --header 'content-type: text/xml' Which only returns a 404 header. If I remove the --header parameter then it returns the view but no data is set. It feels like I'm missing something obvious here. Any ideas?

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • Insert code into a method - Java

    - by DutrowLLC
    Is there a way to automatically insert code into a method? I have the following and I would like to insert the indicated code: public class Person { Set<String> updatedFields = new LinkedHashSet<String>(); String firstName; public String getFirstName(){ return firstName; } boolean isFirstNameChanged = false; // Insert public void setFirstName(String firstName){ if( !isFirstNameChanged ){ // Insert isFirstNameChanged = true; // Insert updatedFields.add("firstName"); // Insert } // Insert this.firstName = firstName; } } I'm also not sure if I can the subset of the method name as a string from inside the method itself as indicated on the line where I add the fieldName as a string into the set of updated fields: updatedFields.add("firstName");. And I'm not sure how to insert fields into a class where I add the boolean field that tracks if the field has been modified or not before (for efficiency to prevent having to manipulate the Set): boolean isFirstNameChanged = false; It seems to most obvious answer to this would be to use code templates inside eclipse, but I'm concerned about having to go back and change the code later.

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  • How to map (large) integer on (small in size( alphanumeric string with PHP? (Cantor?)

    - by Glooh
    Dear all, I can't figure out how to optimally do the following in PHP: In a database, I have messages with a unique ID, like 19041985. Now, I want to refer to these messages in a short-url service but not using generated hashes but by simply 'calculate' the original ID. In other words, for example: http://short.url/sYsn7 should let me calculate the message ID the visitor would like to request. To make it more obvious, I wrote the following in PHP to generate these 'alphanumeric ID versions' and of course, the other way around will let me calculate the original message ID. The question is: Is this the optimal way of doing this? I hardly think so, but can't think of anything else. $alphanumString = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ-_'; for($i=0;$i < strlen($alphanumString);$i++) { $alphanumArray[$i] = substr($alphanumString,$i,1); } $id = 19041985; $out = ''; for($i=0;$i < strlen($id);$i++) { if(isset($alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]) && strlen($alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]) 0) { $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]; } else { $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,1).""]; $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,($i+1),1).""]; } $i++; } print $out;

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  • Accept templated parameter of stl_container_type<string>::iterator

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have a function where I have a container which holds strings (eg vector<string>, set<string>, list<string>) and, given a start iterator and an end iterator, go through the iterator range processing the strings. Currently the function is declared like this: template< typename ContainerIter> void ProcessStrings(ContainerIter begin, ContainerIter end); Now this will accept any type which conforms to the implicit interface of implementing operator*, prefix operator++ and whatever other calls are in the function body. What I really want to do is have a definition like the one below which explicitly restricts the amount of input (pseudocode warning): template< typename Container<string>::iterator> void ProcessStrings(Container<string>::iterator begin, Container<string>::iterator end); so that I can use it as such: vector<string> str_vec; list<string> str_list; set<SomeOtherClass> so_set; ProcessStrings(str_vec.begin(), str_vec.end()); // OK ProcessStrings(str_list.begin(), str_list.end()); //OK ProcessStrings(so_set.begin(), so_set.end()); // Error Essentially, what I am trying to do is restrict the function specification to make it obvious to a user of the function what it accepts and if the code fails to compile they get a message that they are using the wrong parameter types rather than something in the function body that XXX function could not be found for XXX class.

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  • GPL/LGPL-licensed images + iPhone development

    - by cubic1271
    Since the majority of legal links / READMEs I've found when browsing icon sets refer me to the general GPL / LGPL (as opposed to a specialized version of some kind) when I'm looking at license restrictions, I'm having a terrible time trying to figure out what would constitute source code, linking, etc. when it comes to images and / or icons. One specific example: under section 5 of the GPL, modifications must carry notices in the source code. . . how do I do that with an image? I guess I could try to find a few unused bits and encode my modifications in there (steganography, anyone?), but somehow that doesn't seem like what the license is shooting for. There are also other sections in there where I have no idea how to begin to comply with. Thus, I'm really confused. What exactly are the implications of using GPL and / or LGPL licensed images in something that isn't itself GPL'd? Specifically, I'd like to know what using GPL icons in an iPhone application might mean from a legal point of view. It feels like I'm missing something obvious here; any enlightenment / references would be appreciated!

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  • jQuery or CSS - How do you make a link in a table row appear underlined even when the cursor is in a

    - by adam
    I have a table of 3-4 columns, the central one being task names that are also links(yet another todo app..groan). Im trying to make it so that whenever the mouse hovers over any part of the table row - not just the link itself - the link will appear underlined. Its a small detail but its been annoying me like hell and i refuse to let it get the better of me now. At first i tried jQuery with a (forgive the obvious syntax errors but this is the jist) $('#row_in_question').hover( function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") }, function(){ $(this).find(...the link..).toggleClass("highlighted") } ); with this as a styling for the a element in general .highlighted { text-decoration: underlined; } and it did indeed toggle the highlighted class on that link - however css inheritance got in the way and no visual changes made. Since i previously styled that link to have no underline when not hovered it wouldnt change the style. So how do i go about this? I dont want the whole row to become clickable, I just want the text to become underlined.

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • WebView and HTML5 <video>

    - by brian moore
    I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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  • Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

    - by gary7
    Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

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  • Is www.example.com/post/21/edit a RESTful URI? I think I know the answer, but have another question.

    - by tmadsen
    I'm almost afraid to post this question, there has to be an obvious answer I've overlooked, but here I go: Context: I am creating a blog for educational purposes (want to learn python and web.py). I've decided that my blog have posts, so I've created a Post class. I've also decided that posts can be created, read, updated, or deleted (so CRUD). So in my Post class, I've created methods that respond to POST, GET, PUT, and DELETE HTTP methods). So far so good. The current problem I'm having is a conceptual one, I know that sending a PUT HTTP message (with an edited Post) to, e.g., /post/52 should update post with id 52 with the body contents of the HTTP message. What I do not know is how to conceptually correctly serve the (HTML) edit page. Will doing it like this: /post/52/edit violate the idea of URI, as 'edit' is not a resource, but an action? On the other side though, could it be considered a resource since all that URI will respond to is a GET method, that will only return an HTML page? So my ultimate question is this: How do I serve an HTML page intended for user editing in a RESTful manner?

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