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  • Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: An entity object cannot be referenced by multiple instances of IEntityChangeTracker [closed]

    - by Mingebag
    `Story: I have a strange error when I try to save something I got this error message An entity object cannot be referenced by multiple instances of IEntityChangeTracker. I really don’t know what that is and why is it appear, it appears only when I try to save something my insert and update is working, only when I try to save something in db from my Telerik grid if (this.annualVacationList != null) { List<AnnualVacation> vacationToSave = this.annualVacationList; IEnumerable<AnnualVacation> existing = paramUser.AnnualVacations; foreach (AnnualVacation toSave in vacationToSave) { AnnualVacation existingItem = existing.Where(x => x.AnnualVacationId == toSave.AnnualVacationId).SingleOrDefault(); if (existingItem == null) { ctx.AddToAnnualVacations(toSave); } else { existingItem.FromDate = toSave.FromDate; existingItem.ToDate = toSave.ToDate; existingItem.WorkingTime = toSave.WorkingTime; existingItem.VacationDays = toSave.VacationDays; } } } ctx.SaveChanges(); } After debugging I have seen that the code brake down in the Project.Name.Designer.cs ..... O.o public void AddToAnnualVacations(AnnualVacation annualVacation) { base.AddObject("AnnualVacations", annualVacation); }

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  • Dynamic object creation with HashMap

    - by Salor
    I want to use a HashMap to dynamically create objects based on the key. I have a Random Map Generator that stores the maps in 3D Arrays of Type Integer[][][]. Upon creation of the actual map I iterate through this array and based on the Integer I want to create the right block. Example: Integer[][][] map ... map[6][6][6] = 3; 3 is a Earth-Block and now I want to initialize a new Block of this type and give it the right coordinates. Currently I store my Bindings from Integer to Class in a HashMap(Integer, String) and create my objects like that: int id = array[x][y][z]; String block_name = Blocks.map.get(id); Block block = (Block) Class.forName(block_name).newInstance(); block.setPosition(x,y,z); But I want to avoid newInstance() if possible. I've never worked that dynamically with Java before and I couldn't find a solution like changing the HashMap to (Integer, Class) or something. I just need to create a new Object based upon the Integer. Any ideas/solutions? Thanks in advance and have a wonderful day!

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  • Large Object Heap Fragmentation

    - by Paul Ruane
    The C#/.NET application I am working on is suffering from a slow memory leak. I have used CDB with SOS to try to determine what is happening but the data does not seem to make any sense so I was hoping one of you may have experienced this before. The application is running on the 64 bit framework. It is continuously calculating and serialising data to a remote host and is hitting the Large Object Heap (LOH) a fair bit. However, most of the LOH objects I expect to be transient: once the calculation is complete and has been sent to the remote host, the memory should be freed. What I am seeing, however, is a large number of (live) object arrays interleaved with free blocks of memory, e.g., taking a random segment from the LOH: 0:000> !DumpHeap 000000005b5b1000 000000006351da10 Address MT Size ... 000000005d4f92e0 0000064280c7c970 16147872 000000005e45f880 00000000001661d0 1901752 Free 000000005e62fd38 00000642788d8ba8 1056 <-- 000000005e630158 00000000001661d0 5988848 Free 000000005ebe6348 00000642788d8ba8 1056 000000005ebe6768 00000000001661d0 6481336 Free 000000005f214d20 00000642788d8ba8 1056 000000005f215140 00000000001661d0 7346016 Free 000000005f9168a0 00000642788d8ba8 1056 000000005f916cc0 00000000001661d0 7611648 Free 00000000600591c0 00000642788d8ba8 1056 00000000600595e0 00000000001661d0 264808 Free ... Obviously I would expect this to be the case if my application were creating long-lived, large objects during each calculation. (It does do this and I accept there will be a degree of LOH fragmentation but that is not the problem here.) The problem is the very small (1056 byte) object arrays you can see in the above dump which I cannot see in code being created and which are remaining rooted somehow. Also note that CDB is not reporting the type when the heap segment is dumped: I am not sure if this is related or not. If I dump the marked (<--) object, CDB/SOS reports it fine: 0:015> !DumpObj 000000005e62fd38 Name: System.Object[] MethodTable: 00000642788d8ba8 EEClass: 00000642789d7660 Size: 1056(0x420) bytes Array: Rank 1, Number of elements 128, Type CLASS Element Type: System.Object Fields: None The elements of the object array are all strings and the strings are recognisable as from our application code. Also, I am unable to find their GC roots as the !GCRoot command hangs and never comes back (I have even tried leaving it overnight). So, I would very much appreciate it if anyone could shed any light as to why these small (<85k) object arrays are ending up on the LOH: what situations will .NET put a small object array in there? Also, does anyone happen to know of an alternative way of ascertaining the roots of these objects? Thanks in advance. Update 1 Another theory I came up with late yesterday is that these object arrays started out large but have been shrunk leaving the blocks of free memory that are evident in the memory dumps. What makes me suspicious is that the object arrays always appear to be 1056 bytes long (128 elements), 128 * 8 for the references and 32 bytes of overhead. The idea is that perhaps some unsafe code in a library or in the CLR is corrupting the number of elements field in the array header. Bit of a long shot I know... Update 2 Thanks to Brian Rasmussen (see accepted answer) the problem has been identified as fragmentation of the LOH caused by the string intern table! I wrote a quick test application to confirm this: static void Main() { const int ITERATIONS = 100000; for (int index = 0; index < ITERATIONS; ++index) { string str = "NonInterned" + index; Console.Out.WriteLine(str); } Console.Out.WriteLine("Continue."); Console.In.ReadLine(); for (int index = 0; index < ITERATIONS; ++index) { string str = string.Intern("Interned" + index); Console.Out.WriteLine(str); } Console.Out.WriteLine("Continue?"); Console.In.ReadLine(); } The application first creates and dereferences unique strings in a loop. This is just to prove that the memory does not leak in this scenario. Obviously it should not and it does not. In the second loop, unique strings are created and interned. This action roots them in the intern table. What I did not realise is how the intern table is represented. It appears it consists of a set of pages -- object arrays of 128 string elements -- that are created in the LOH. This is more evident in CDB/SOS: 0:000> .loadby sos mscorwks 0:000> !EEHeap -gc Number of GC Heaps: 1 generation 0 starts at 0x00f7a9b0 generation 1 starts at 0x00e79c3c generation 2 starts at 0x00b21000 ephemeral segment allocation context: none segment begin allocated size 00b20000 00b21000 010029bc 0x004e19bc(5118396) Large object heap starts at 0x01b21000 segment begin allocated size 01b20000 01b21000 01b8ade0 0x00069de0(433632) Total Size 0x54b79c(5552028) ------------------------------ GC Heap Size 0x54b79c(5552028) Taking a dump of the LOH segment reveals the pattern I saw in the leaking application: 0:000> !DumpHeap 01b21000 01b8ade0 ... 01b8a120 793040bc 528 01b8a330 00175e88 16 Free 01b8a340 793040bc 528 01b8a550 00175e88 16 Free 01b8a560 793040bc 528 01b8a770 00175e88 16 Free 01b8a780 793040bc 528 01b8a990 00175e88 16 Free 01b8a9a0 793040bc 528 01b8abb0 00175e88 16 Free 01b8abc0 793040bc 528 01b8add0 00175e88 16 Free total 1568 objects Statistics: MT Count TotalSize Class Name 00175e88 784 12544 Free 793040bc 784 421088 System.Object[] Total 1568 objects Note that the object array size is 528 (rather than 1056) because my workstation is 32 bit and the application server is 64 bit. The object arrays are still 128 elements long. So the moral to this story is to be very careful interning. If the string you are interning is not known to be a member of a finite set then your application will leak due to fragmentation of the LOH, at least in version 2 of the CLR. In our application's case, there is general code in the deserialisation code path that interns entity identifiers during unmarshalling: I now strongly suspect this is the culprit. However, the developer's intentions were obviously good as they wanted to make sure that if the same entity is deserialised multiple times then only one instance of the identifier string will be maintained in memory.

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  • nginx 301 redirect to subfolder on primary domain

    - by 187j3x1
    hello there, sorry for my poor english. i just set up wordpress on my vps, so far its the only item on my site. there for seo reason, i think is better redirect all primary domain to the blog folder. primary domain is example.com wordpress is at example.com/blog what i want is rewrite www.example.com and example.com to example.com/blog. googled got some scripts, and make some change paste into nginx config file. here is: #301 redirect www to non-www server { server_name www.example.com; location = / { rewrite ^/(.*) http://example.com/$1 permanent; } } #301 non-www to subfolder server { server_name example.com; location = / { rewrite ^/(.*) http://example.com/blog$1 permanent; } } it works at some degree, successfully redirect to example.com/blog. the only problem is i get 404 not found error. then i only make nginx redirect www to example.com/blog. ok, this time i can access blog page. i know there is something wrong in the non-www to subfolder script. but do not how to fix it :(

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  • I get a 502 bad gateway ONLY with a specific combination of domain/root folders - NGINX

    - by Patrick De Amorim
    I have a VPS running NGINX and virtual hosts, with a configuration such as this: Domains directing to it: lolpics.no smscloud.no idmag.no Root folders: /home/vds/www/lolpics /home/vds/www/smscloud /home/vds/www/idmag SMSCloud.no is the site that keeps getting 502 errors, but if I make the domain direct to any of the other folders, the site works, or if I make any other domain name direct to the /home/vds/www/smscloud folder, it works. Only smscloud.no with /home/vds/www/smscloud breaks I tried putting this between the http{} in my nginx.conf and no help: proxy_buffer_size 128k; proxy_buffers 4 256k; proxy_busy_buffers_size 256k; EDIT: Well, that was slightly silly, if anyone from Google stumbles on this, here's how I fixed it, I just added this to the http{}: fastcgi_buffer_size 16k; fastcgi_buffers 16 16k; So that the start of my http block is: http { include /etc/nginx/mime.types; proxy_buffer_size 128k; proxy_buffers 4 256k; proxy_busy_buffers_size 256k; fastcgi_buffer_size 16k; fastcgi_buffers 16 16k;

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  • Active Directory Domain Services - Network Name Cannot be Found

    - by Arief
    I have really weird problem that I could not explain. I am trying to redirect all users home folder to the new server. I have copied all the files including the permissions to the new server. All I need to do is to update the user profile for home folder by changing the server name. However, I got this message when I enter the new server name: My server that serving as AD can resolve the name by ping and nslookup of the server name. The only thing that I don't understand why the MMC cannot resolve the name. I did change with the IP Address and I still get the same error message. Thank you so much for your help. UPDATE: I know what seems to be a problem, but I don't know how to fix it. The new server that will serve all Home folder is actually sitting in the cloud with different IP Address as the Domain Controller. The Domain Controller is sitting locally in the office with 10.0.0.0/24 IP Addresses. The new server that is sitting in on Data Centre is on 172.10.10.10/24 IP Addresses. The static route has been set up on both end, and the DNS as well. I believe this is the issue. Does anyone how to overcome this situation? Thank you.

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  • Domain Environment + Certificate Authority + Server 2008 R2

    - by user1110302
    I have recently been delegated the task to setup a CA in our domain environment and have a question on why Microsoft does somethings the way they do lol. I have been trying to read up on what the best practices are for going about this task, and have decided that in an ideal CA environment you should have one “offline” Root CA, and then two subordinate CAs for redundancy/issuing the certs. That is all good, I understand how this works and why, but in messing with a sandbox I have setup, the way you go about adding certificate authorities to a domain environment seems extremely trivial and against all of their best practices… Dooes anyone know what the purpose is of an Enterprise Root CA that is integrated into Active Directory? From what I have read, once you setup an Enterprise Root CA that is integrated into Active Directory, it stays with Active Directory for the long haul and must not be turned off/renamed/touched under any circumstances. If this is true, that seems to go against the practice of setting up a standalone root CA, adding the subordinates, and then taking the root offline. Thanks for any feedback you may have to offer!

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  • trying to allow domain admins access in apache

    - by sharif
    I am trying to authenticate domain admins through apache and it is not working. Error i get is as follows [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(1432): [client 172.16.0.85] kerb_authenticate_user entered with user (NULL) and auth_type Kerberos [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(915): [client 172.16.0.85] Using HTTP/[email protected] as server principal for password verification [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(655): [client 172.16.0.85] Trying to get TGT for user [email protected] [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(569): [client 172.16.0.85] Trying to verify authenticity of KDC using principal HTTP/[email protected] [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(994): [client 172.16.0.85] kerb_authenticate_user_krb5pwd ret=0 [email protected] authtype=Basic [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] mod_authnz_ldap.c(561): [client 172.16.0.85] ldap authorize: Creating LDAP req structure [Mon Sep 24 14:54:45 2012] [debug] mod_authnz_ldap.c(573): [client 172.16.0.85] auth_ldap authorise: User DN not found, LDAP: ldap_simple_bind_s() failed Below is what I have in my httpd file Alias /compass "/data/intranet/html/compass" <Directory "/data/intranet/html/compass"> AuthType Kerberos AuthName KerberosLogin KrbServiceName HTTP/intranet.xxx.com KrbMethodNegotiate On KrbMethodK5Passwd On KrbAuthRealms xxx.COM Krb5KeyTab /etc/httpd/conf/intranet.keytab # require valid-user # Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks # AllowOverride All # Order allow,deny # Allow from all # SetOutputFilter DEFLATE # taken from http://blogs.freebsdish.org/tmclaugh/2010/07/15/mod_auth_kerb-ad-and-ldap-authorization/ # download extra module and install # Strip the kerberos realm from the principle. # MapUsernameRule (.*)@(.*) "$1" AuthLDAPURL "ldap://echo.uk.xxx.com akhutan.usa.xxx.com/dc=xxx,dc=com?sAMAccountName" AuthLDAPBindDN cn=Administrator,ou=Users,dc=xxx,dc=com AuthLDAPBindPassword *** Require ldap-group cn=Domain Admins,ou=Users,dc=xxx,dc=com </Directory> I have followed this guide. I have download and install the tarball. when I try to uncomment MapUsernameRule i get failed error when restarting apache Reloading httpd: not reloading due to configuration syntax error I am using centos 5 64bit. I have added the following line but i still get syntax error LoadModule mod_map_user modules/mod_map_user.so

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  • Locking on an object...

    - by Mystere Man
    I often see code like that which is shown here, ie where an object is allocated and then used as a "lock object". It seems to me that you could use any object for this, including the event itself as the lock object. Why allocate a new object that does nothing? My understanding is that calling lock() on an object doesn't actually alter the object itself, nor does it actually lock it from being used, it's simply used as a placeholder for multiple lock statements to anchor on. So my question is, is this really a good thing to do?

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  • Syntax Error when setting up Domain Alias

    - by Poundtrader
    I'm attempting to set up a domain alias via Pre VirtualHost Include and I'm recieving the following error: Error: An error occurred while running: /usr/local/apache/bin/httpd -DSSL -t -f /usr/local/apache/conf/httpd.conf Exit signal was: 0 Exit value was: 1 Output was: --- Syntax error on line 15 of /usr/local/apache/conf/includes/pre_virtualhost_global.conf: CustomLog takes two or three arguments, a file name, a custom log format string or format name, and an optional "env=" clause (see docs) --- Basically I have two domains, the main domain has an opencart installation within a directory (/buy) and I'm attempting to use the multi-store function which allows you to administer multiple stores on multiple domains via the one opencart dashboard. My issue is that I have the opencart installations within the /buy directory so I have been given the following code which should allow me to use this functionality over the multiple cPanel accounts within the same VPS. <VirtualHost 87.117.239.29:80> ServerName newdomain.co.uk ServerAlias www.newdomain.co.uk Alias /buy /home/originaldomain/public_html/buy/ DocumentRoot /home/newdom/public_html ServerAdmin [email protected] ## User newdom # Needed for Cpanel::ApacheConf <IfModule mod_suphp.c> suPHP_UserGroup newdom newdom </IfModule> <IfModule mod_ruid2.c> RUidGid newdom newdom </IfModule> CustomLog /usr/local/apache/domlogs/newdomain.co.uk-bytes_log “%{%s}t %I .\n%{%s}t %O .” CustomLog /usr/local/apache/domlogs/newdomain.co.uk combined ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /home/newdom/public_html/cgi-bin/ </VirtualHost> Does anyone know how to get this code to work? Thanks,

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  • Migrate Domain from Server 2008 R2 to Small Business Server 2011

    - by josecortesp
    I'm looking for some advice here, rather than the big how to do it I'm looking for what do to I have this home server, quad core and 4 GB of ram (I really can't afford more right now). With a Windows Serve 2008 R2 With ActiveDirectory and a Hyper-V-Virtual machine with SharePoint, TFS and a couple of more thigs. I have a least 10 remote users, all of them joined a Hamachi VPN (working great by the way). But I want to migrate that to a Small Business Server 2011 Standard. I tried to make a VM to join the domain and then promote that VM, back up it and then format the physical server, boot up the VM, Promote the Phisical and then erase the VM, but I can't do that because of SBS requiring a least 4 GB of ram to install (so I can't give all the 4 GB of physical ram to a VM). I was thinking in using a laptop (All the clients are laptop) as a temporal server, join the domain, promote it, then format the server and install SBS on the server and do all again. I really need some advice. Thanks in advance. BTW, I know that the software I'm using is kindda expensive, and I can't afford more hardware. I have access to MS downloads by a University partnership so I have all this software for free.

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  • What are the disadvantages of domain email forwarding?

    - by naivedeveloper
    I have a domain, example.com. My domain registrar gives me two options concerning email. Set up forwarding email addresses (e.g., [email protected] forwarded to [email protected]. Set up Google Apps for email management Thus far, I have gone with option 1. I have a generic GMail email, [email protected], and I subsequently set up various email addresses on my registrar to forward to this gmail address: [email protected] -> [email protected] [email protected] -> [email protected] [email protected] -> [email protected] Through the GMail account, I have the option to alias these addresses when sending email. For example, from [email protected], I can "send email as" [email protected]. That way from the vantage point of the receiver of the email, the email came from [email protected] as opposed to [email protected]. My question is: Are there any disadvantages of this approach? Are these emails more susceptible to being picked up by spam filters vs using the Google Apps approach? Is there any hidden indication that the email is being aliased? When viewing the email headers, it shows the email was sent from [email protected] and not [email protected] or "forwarded from [email protected]" or anything like that. Am I naive in assuming that my cheap approach to email is masked by aliasing my outgoing emails? I have chosen approach number 1 simply because of the ease of setup. With that said, are there any advantages of going with approach 2 (the Google Apps approach)? Thanks for suggestions and advice.

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  • Sorting list of URLs by length in Jython

    - by Eef
    Hi, I am writing a Jython script to sort a list of URLs. I have a list that looks like this: http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/folder3/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/folder3/|,1 The pipe and the comma separates the path from the amount of files that are under that path. Is it possible some how use Jython to order the URLs by length, so it would end up look like the below list: http://www.domain.com/folder1/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/folder3/|,1 http://www.domain.com/folder1/folder2/folder3/|,1 Hope you guys get what I mean, any help would be appreciated. Cheers

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  • ASP.NET MVC and ApplicationPath

    - by user93422
    Question is about paths and domains: I have an out-of-the box ASP.NET MVC project (generated by "File-New Project"). On LogOn page it does: return Redirect("~/Account/LogOn");. I have a domain name: mycompany.com, and following file structure on the server: /Root /MyApp (this is where my app goes into) Default.aspx ... I have set up following domain pointer: mycompany.com -> \MyApp When I go to mycompany.com I get an error, something about can't find mycompany.com/MyApp/MyApp/Account/LogOn Question: Where does second /MyApp path element comes from? Note: If I don't use domain pointer and deploy the site to the root - everything works just fine. Note: My hosting provider is webhost4life.com.

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  • Prevent Exchange Server from advertising itself on domain

    - by Justin Shin
    I'm in the middle of setting up an Exchange 2010 Server. Currently, we use a SaaS provider for Exchange 2007 services. Some (but not all) of my users have been reporting that they are receiving Outlook/Exchange login prompts to login to the new Exchange server. This is happening without any intervention on the client's machines. The Exchange server is a member of the domain and connects to the domain site remotely through a site-to-site VPN. What can I do to prevent these login prompts from appearing? Will shutting down the new server until it is time to switch resolve these issues? A little more info: I found that on one of the client computers, all of the settings for Outlook over HTTP had been changed (automatically) from webmail.provider.com to mail.company.com (the latter being the new server). This happened when I enabled Outlook Anywhere access on Exchange 2010. I changed the client's settings back, and everything was groovy. But, when I disabled Outlook Anywhere again, the logon prompt came back.

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  • Multi domain on my dedicated server with Apache2

    - by x4vier
    I setup a server with Ubuntu 10.04 server edition. It's works for a long time with a single domain name. Now i want to add another domain wich will pointed to a new directory. I tried to change my Apache2 configuration but it does not seems to work properly. Here is my /etc/apache2/sites-available/default <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/ <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log combined Alias /doc/ "/usr/share/doc/" <Directory "/usr/share/doc/"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.0/255.0.0.0 ::1/128 </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName mydomain.com ServerAlias www.mydomain.com DocumentRoot /var/www/mydomain </VirtualHost> here is my /etc/hosts 127.0.0.1 localhost **.***.133.29 sd-***.****.fr sd-**** **.***.133.29 mediousgame.com # The following lines are desirable for IPv6 capable hosts ::1 localhost ip6-localhost ip6-loopback ****::0 ip6-localnet ****: :0 ip6-mcastprefix ****::1 ip6-allnodes ****::2 ip6-allrouters ****::3 ip6-allhosts With this configuration when i try to access to mydomain it redirect to the /var/www/ content. Do you have any idea to redirect to the right folder ?

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  • Where and how to validate and map ViewModel?

    - by chobo
    Hi, I am trying to learn Domain Driven Design and recently read that lots of people advocate creating a ViewModels for your views that store all the values you want to display in a given view. My question is how should I do the form validation? should I create separate validation classes for each view, or group them together? I'm also confused on what this would look like in code. This is how I currently think validation and viewmodels fit in to the scheme of things: View (some user input) - Controller - FormValidation(of ViewModel) - (If valid map to ViewModel to Domain Model) - Domain Layer Service - Infrastructure Thanks! P.S. I use Asp.net MVC with C#

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  • append $myorigin to localpart of 'from', append different domain to localpart of incomplete recipient address

    - by PJ P
    We have been having some trouble getting Postfix to behave in a very specific fashion in which sender and recipient addresses with only a localpart (i.e. no @domain) are handled differently. We have a number of applications that use mailx to send messages. We would like to know the username and hostname of the sending party. For example, if root sends an email from db001.company.local, we would like the email to be addressed from [email protected]. This is accomplished by ensuring $myorigin is set to $myhostname. We also want unqualified recipients to have a different domain appended. For example, if a message is sent to 'dbadmin' it should qualify to '[email protected]'. However, by the nature of Postfix and $myorigin, an unqualified recipient would instead qualify to [email protected]. We do not want to adjust the aliases on all servers to forward appropriately. (in fact, every possible recipient doesn't have an entry in /etc/passwd) All company employees have mailboxes on Exchange, which Postfix eventually routes to, and no local Linux/Unix mailboxes are used or access. We would love to tell our application owners to ensure they use a fully qualified email address for all recipients, but the powers that be dictate that any negligence must be accommodated. If we were to keep $myorigin equal to $myhostname, we could resolve this issue by having an entry such as the following in 'recipient_canonical_maps': @$myorigin @company.com However, unfortunately, we cannot use variables in these map files. We also want to avoid having to manually enter and maintain the actual hostname in 'recipient_canonical_maps' for each server. Perhaps once our servers are 'puppetized' we can dynamically adjust this file, but we're not there yet. After an afternoon of fiddling I've decided to reach out. Any thoughts? Thanks in advance.

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  • Domain changes required for SSL integration

    - by user131003
    Currently my site supports regular payment options (User is taken to Payment Gateway/PG website). Now I'm trying to implement "seamless" PG integration. I need SSL for this. I'm having a dedicated server with 5 static IPs from Hostgator/HG. options: I take SSL for www.my_domain.com. According to HG, I need to change IP of main site as current IP is not really dedicated as it is being shared by cpanel etc. So They need to bind another dedicated IP to main domain for SSL to work. This would required DNS change for main website and hence cause few hours downtime (which is ok). I've noticed that most of the e-commerce websites are using subdomains like secure.my_domain.com for ssl/https. This sounds like a better approach. But I've got few doubts in this case: a) Would I need to re-register with existing PGs (Paypal, Google Checkout, Authorize.net) if I switch to subdomain? Re-registering is not an option for me. b) Would DNS change be required for www.my_domain.com in this case. This confusion arose because of following reply from HG : "If the sub domain secure.my_domain.com is added to an existing cPanel it will use the IP for that cPanel so as long as it is a Dedicated IP that will be fine. If secure.my_domain.com gets setup as its own cPanel it will need to be assigned to a Dedicated IP which would have a DNS change involved.". PLease suggest.

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  • How to return radio checked object with jQuery ?

    - by Kim
    HTML <input type="radio" name="rdName" id="uniqueID1" value="1" checked="checked"> <input type="radio" name="rdName" id="uniqueID2" value="2"> <input type="radio" name="rdName" id="uniqueID3" value="3"> jQuery #1 $('input:radio[name=rdName]:checked').val(); jQuery #2 $('input[name=rdName]:checked'); jQuery #1 gets the value of checked radio, but I need to get the whole object to get the ID. jQuery #2 get this (from Chrome Dev console). Object "0" is the actual object I need, but I am unable to just that. 0: HTMLInputElement constructor: function Object() context: HTMLDocument length: 1 prevObject: Object selector: input[name=rdName]:checked __proto__: Object Any ideas how to isolate the needed object ?

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  • Prevent SSL certificate being returned for a specific domain

    - by jezmck
    Apologies for a long question: We've taken on a new client whose web hosting was previously on their in-house server which still has their Exchange/Outlook email. We now host their domain (and many others) on our server. They're complaining that they're getting errors in Outlook. I don't understand the AutoDiscover stuff at the root of the problem, but believe that I just need to stop the SSL certificate on our server being returned when requested at a particular domain: Yes it is, the issue lies with "{newclient}.com" being pointed to your server IP and that server has Port 443 open with an SSL certificate associated to it. So when Outlook/ActiveSync use autodiscover to find the mailbox settings it find your SSL (because 443 is open) and flags it as an error. The solution is to close 443 so its not discovered, Autodiscover will then proceed to mail.{newclient}.com via the MX / ServiceRecords and discover the correct SSL. I'm new here and there was no hand-over, so I don't know whether other currently hosted sites need to accept SSL connections, though I suspect some will, or may in future. This is a live server, so I can't risk trying loads of options in case I take the server offline! I feel like I should be adding something like the following to vhosts.conf. <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName {newclient}.com ServerAlias www.{newclient}.com SSLEngine Off SSLCertificateFile {NONE} SSLCertificateKeyFile {NONE} </VirtualHost> Apologies for the fact that I don't know enough about this subject to be able to ask the question more clearly!

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  • nginx 301 redirect to subfolder on primary domain

    - by 187j3x1
    sorry for my poor english. i just set up wordpress on my vps, so far its the only item on my site. there for seo reason, i think is better redirect all primary domain to the blog folder. primary domain is example.com wordpress is at example.com/blog what i want is rewrite www.example.com and example.com to example.com/blog. googled got some scripts, and make some change paste into nginx config file. here is: #301 redirect www to non-www server { server_name www.example.com; location = / { rewrite ^/(.*) http://example.com/$1 permanent; } } #301 non-www to subfolder server { server_name example.com; location = / { rewrite ^/(.*) http://example.com/blog$1 permanent; } } it works at some degree, successfully redirect to example.com/blog. the only problem is i get 404 not found error. then i only make nginx redirect www to example.com/blog. ok, this time i can access blog page. i know there is something wrong in the non-www to subfolder script. but do not how to fix it :(

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  • Postfix relay all mail through SES except for one sending domain / address

    - by Kevin
    I'm thinking this is really really super simple, but I can't figure out what I need to do. I don't mess with Postfix much (Just let it run and do its thing) so I've got no idea where to even start with this. We have postfix currently configured to relay all mail out through SES using the code below. We need to modify this so that emails sent from one of our domains (domain.com) DO NOT go through SES. Everything else should continue to flow out through the SES connection. I'm assuming this is like a one line thing but my google skills are not helping me at all. relayhost = email-smtp.us-east-1.amazonaws.com:25 smtp_sasl_auth_enable = yes smtp_sasl_security_options = noanonymous smtp_sasl_password_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/sasl_passwd smtp_use_tls = yes smtp_tls_security_level = encrypt smtp_tls_note_starttls_offer = yes smtp_tls_CAfile = /etc/ssl/certs/ca-certificates.crt smtp_destination_concurrency_limit = 450 Update I have created sender_transport file in /etc/postfix. In it is @domain.com smtp: I then ran this through postmap and placed sender_dependent_default_transport_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/sender_transport above the above block of code and restarted postfix, but still all email is going out through SES. Log after sending Oct 22 14:38:48 web postfix/smtp[19446]: 4B19D640002: to=<[email protected]>, relay=email-smtp.us-east-1.amazonaws.com[54.243.47.187]:25, delay=1.4, delays=0.01/0/0.92/0.44, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (250 Ok 00000141e21b181f-ee6f7c4f-f0f5-4b0f-ba69-2db146a4f988-000000) Oct 22 14:38:48 web postfix/qmgr[19435]: 4B19D640002: removed I don't think this log is what you're looking for, but it's the only thing that is logged when mail goes out, and this is with me running /usr/sbin/postfix -v start manually and not with the init script.

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  • Asp.net error object not set to a reference

    - by Frank
    Hi all, Because I rush in development (a lot of whip cracking here) and declare my objects at the top of the function and instantiate inside my try-catch block, I get a lot of the good old "object not set to an instance of an object" errors while doing TDD, and later if I do miss a branch that object was used in (doing VB now, would prefer C#) or just in every day coding, object not set to an instance of an object is a bit vague. Sure the stack trace sends me to the line the error occured at, but it would be nice if I could modify my logging to either name the object or its type because sometimes I have multiple objects on the same line. It's not the end of the world, but in the end it would save me a few minutes each day. Any ideas on how I can pass the info on which object wasn't set? Thanks

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  • What comes first in Ruby's object model?

    - by Timothy
    I've been reading Metaprogramming Ruby and the object model like the chicken or egg dilemma. In Ruby 1.8, the Object class is an instance of Class. Module's superclass is Object and is an instance of Class. Class' superclass is Module, and it is an instance of Class (self-referential). Say class SomeClass; end is defined somewhere; SomeClass is an instance of Class, however its superclass is Object. Why does an instance of Class have Object as the superclass instead of nil? Also, if Object is to exist, then Class has to exist, but then Module has to exist, but for Module to exist Object has to exist. How are these classes created?

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