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  • IE8 developer tools missing some styles

    - by Craig Warren
    Hi, I'm having some problems with some CSS properties in IE8. I've tested my site in IE7, Chrome and Firefox and they work fine but IE8 is having some layout issues. I inspect the developer tool option on ie8 and I've noticed that some of the properties I set in CSS are being ignored by ie8. For example: #header { position: relative; padding: 20px; height: 100px; background:url(header.png); } In this header IE8 ignored the height property: If I inspect the element in developer tools it is missing that property and it's crushed into another line: background:url;HEIGHT: 100PX The same thing happens for floats too: #logon { float: left; text-align:right; width:20%; height: 40px; padding-left: 0px; padding-right:7px; border:0; margin:0; background: url(navgradient.gif); } This ignores the float value: background: url(navgradient.gif); FLOAT:left; What is happening here and how can I fix it?

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  • Percent-Encoded Percent in URI

    - by Lukas
    In our application, it is possible for a user to upload files then download them later. We don't restrict them from having any special characters in the file name. The problem comes in when we create the link for the user to download the file. I use the Java URL encoder to encode the file name that gets put into the href of the link, but I'm still having problems with percent (%) signs. For example, if the user uploads a file named fi%le.jpg, the href that gets generated is fi%25le.jpg, and everything is fine. The problem is when the percent sign is right before the period (i.e., file%.jpg, which gets converted to file%25.jpg). When the user clicks on the link, they get a 404 (Not Found) error. The strange thing is that it is not a problem if the two characters following the percent sign are hex characters.... Weird, eh? Any help is appreciated. I am using Tomcat/Struts. Could the built-in URL decoder have anything to do with this problem?

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  • ifstream Open function not working

    - by Dave Swersky
    I've been all over the ifstream questions here on SO and I'm still having trouble reading a simple text file. I'm working with Visual Studio 2008. Here's my code: // CPPFileIO.cpp : Defines the entry point for the console application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include <fstream> #include <conio.h> #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { ifstream infile; infile.open("input.txt", ifstream::in); if (infile.is_open()) { while (infile.good()) cout << (char) infile.get(); } else { cout << "Unable to open file."; } infile.close(); _getch(); return 0; } I have confirmed that the input.txt file is in the correct "working directory" by checking the value of argv[0]. The Open method just won't work. I'm also having trouble debugging- should I not be able to set a watch on "infile.good()" or "infile.is_open()"? I keep getting "Error: member function not present." EDIT: Updated code listing with full code from .CPP file. UPDATE: The file was NOT in the Current Working Directory. This is the directory where the project file is located. Moved it there and it works when debugging in VS.NET.

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  • Implementing BindingList<T>

    - by EtherealMonkey
    I am trying to learn more about BindingList because I believe that it will help me with a project that I am working on. Currently, I have an object class (ScannedImage) that is a subtype of a class (HashedImage) that subtypes a native .Net object (Image). There is no reason why I couldn't move the two subtypes together. I am simply subtyping an object that I had previously constructed, but I will now be storing my ScannedImage object in an RDB (well, not technically - only the details and probably the thumbnail). Also, the object class has member types that are my own custom types (Keywords). I am using a custom datagridview to present these objects, but am handling all changes to the ScannedImage object with my own code. As you can probably imagine, I have quite a few events to handle that occur in these base types. So, if I changed my object to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would the object collection (implementing BindingList) receive notifications of changes to the ScannedImage object? Also, if Keywords were to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would changes be accessible to the BindingList through the ScannedImage object? Sorry if this seems rather newbish. I only recently discovered the BindingList and not having formal training in C# programming - am having a difficult time moving forward with this. Also, if anyone has any good reference material, I would be thankful for links. Obviously, I have perused the MSDN Library. I have found a few good links on the web, but it seems that a lot of people are now using WPF and ObservableCollection. My project is based on Winforms and .Net3.5 framework. TIA

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  • How do I manage application configuration in ASP.NET?

    - by GlennS
    I am having difficulty with managing configuration of an ASP.Net application to deploy for different clients. The sheer volume of different settings which need twiddling takes up large amounts of time, and the current configuration methods are too complicated to enable us to push this responsibility out to support partners. Any suggestions for better methods to handle this or good sources of information to research? How we do things at present: Various xml configuration files which are referenced in Web.Config, for example an AppSettings.xml. Configurations for specific sites are kept in duplicate configuration files. Text files containing lists of data specific to the site In some cases, manual one-off changes to the database C# configuration for Windsor IOC. The specific issues we are having: Different sites with different features enabled, different external services we have to talk to and different business rules. Different deployment types (live, test, training) Configuration keys change across versions (get added, remove), meaning we have to update all the duplicate files We still need to be able to alter keys while the application is running Our current thoughts on how we might approach this are: Move the configuration into dynamically compiled code (possibly Boo, Binsor or JavaScript) Have some form of diffing/merging configuration: combine a default config with a live/test/training config and a site-specific config

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  • Delphi: Alternative to using Assign/ReadLn for text file reading

    - by Ian Boyd
    i want to process a text file line by line. In the olden days i loaded the file into a StringList: slFile := TStringList.Create(); slFile.LoadFromFile(filename); for i := 0 to slFile.Count-1 do begin oneLine := slFile.Strings[i]; //process the line end; Problem with that is once the file gets to be a few hundred megabytes, i have to allocate a huge chunk of memory; when really i only need enough memory to hold one line at a time. (Plus, you can't really indicate progress when you the system is locked up loading the file in step 1). The i tried using the native, and recommended, file I/O routines provided by Delphi: var f: TextFile; begin Assign(filename, f); while ReadLn(f, oneLine) do begin //process the line end; Problem withAssign is that there is no option to read the file without locking (i.e. fmShareDenyNone). The former stringlist example doesn't support no-lock either, unless you change it to LoadFromStream: slFile := TStringList.Create; stream := TFileStream.Create(filename, fmOpenRead or fmShareDenyNone); slFile.LoadFromStream(stream); stream.Free; for i := 0 to slFile.Count-1 do begin oneLine := slFile.Strings[i]; //process the line end; So now even though i've gained no locks being held, i'm back to loading the entire file into memory. Is there some alternative to Assign/ReadLn, where i can read a file line-by-line, without taking a sharing lock? i'd rather not get directly into Win32 CreateFile/ReadFile, and having to deal with allocating buffers and detecting CR, LF, CRLF's. i thought about memory mapped files, but there's the difficulty if the entire file doesn't fit (map) into virtual memory, and having to maps views (pieces) of the file at a time. Starts to get ugly. i just want Assign with fmShareDenyNone!

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  • How to prepopulate an Outlook MailItem and avoiding a com Exception from the object model guard

    - by torrente
    Hi, I work for a company that develops a CRM tool and offers integration with MS Office(2003 & 2007) from windows XP to 7. (I'm working using Win7) My task is to call an Outlook instance (using C#) from this CRM tool when the user wants to send an email and prepopulate with data of the CRM tool (email, recipient, etc..) All of this already works just fine. The problem I'm having is that Outlook's "object model guard" is throwing com Exception (Operation aborted (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004004 (E_ABORT))) the moment I try to read a protected value from the mailItem (such as mail.bodyHTML). Example Snippet: using MSOutlook = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook; //untrusted Instance _outlook = new MSOutlook.Application(); MSOutlook.MailItem mail = (MSOutlook.MailItem)_outlook.CreateItem(MSOutlook.OlItemType.olMailItem); //this where the Exception occurs string outlookStdHTMLBody = mail.HTMLBody; I've done quite a bit of reading and know that my Outlook Instance (derived by using new Application) is considered untrusted and therefore the "omg" kicks in. I do have a workaround for development: I'm running VS2010 as Administrator and if I run Outlook as Administrator as well - all is good. I suppose this is due to them having the same integrity levels(high) and the UAC(?) is not complaining. But that just ain't the way to go for deployment. Now the question is: Is there a way to obtain a trusted instance of Outlook so that I can avoid this exception? I've already read that when developing an Office Add-In using VSTO one can obtain a trusted Instance from the OnComplete event and/or using "ThisAddin" But I "merely" want to start an outlook instance and preopulate it, and do not want to develop an Add-In since this is not the requirement. And to make it clear - I have no problem with pop ups informing the user that outlook is being accessed - I just want to get rid of the exception! So how can I get around this problem using code? Any help is highly appreciated! Thomas

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  • Searching a list of tuples in python

    - by Niclas Nilsson
    I'm having a database (sqlite) of members of an organisation (less then 200 people). Now I'm trying to write an wx app that will search the database and return some contact information in a wx.grid. The app will have 2 TextCtrls, one for the first name and one for the last name. What I want to do here is make it possible to only write one or a few letters in the textctrls and that will start to return result. So, if I search "John Smith" I write "Jo" in the first TextCtrl and that will return every single John (or any one else having a name starting with those letters). It will not have an "search"-button, instead it will start searching whenever I press a key. One way to solve this would be to search the database with like " SELECT * FROM contactlistview WHERE forname LIKE 'Jo%' " But that seems like a bad idea (very database heavy to do that for every keystroke?). Instead i thought of use fetchall() on a query like this " SELECT * FROM contactlistview " and then, for every keystroke, search the list of tuples that the query have returned. And that is my problem: Searching a list is not that difficult but how can I search a list of tuples with wildcards?

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  • Problem after dismissing a modal view used in conjunction with a uisplitviewcontroller

    - by user336274
    I'm having a hard time understanding why the following is happening (and how to fix it). I've created an application using the split-view based application. I've added a UiBarButtonItem called showTheModal which calls this method found in RootViewController.m: - (IBAction)showTheModal:(id)sender { theModalController.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFullScreen; theModalController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:theModalController animated:YES]; if ([detailViewController popoverController] != nil) [[detailViewController popoverController] dismissPopoverAnimated:YES]; The BarButtonItem of course, is shown at the bottom of the Default Root Controller (left side of the of the split view in landscape) or at the bottom of the popup (if in landscape). The modal view is dismissed by a button placed in a toolbar. It calls the following: [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated: YES]; The problem I'm having is if rotate the screen, while the modal is up. Here is what happens in different scenarios (start refers to the orientation when the showTheModal button is hit, end refers to the orientation when I hit the dismissModal button). 1)Start landscape, end landscape: Everything appears fine. willHideViewController and willShowViewController methods are not called in the RootViewController (as expected) 2) Start landscape, end portrait: UI appears fine. willHideViewController is run TWICE (WHY?) 3) Start portrait, end portrait: UI appears fine. willHideViewController is run once (as expected) 4) Start portrait, end landscape: The 'Root List' button remains in the detail view (right side of the split view. Neither willHideViewController and willShowViewController are invoked (WHY??) Any thoughts as to why #2 and #4 don't behave quite the expected way?

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  • singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

    - by Joshua
    Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

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  • window.onload seems to trigger before the DOM is loaded (JavaScript)

    - by Dr. Monkey
    I am having trouble with the window.onload and document.onload events. Everything I read tells me these will not trigger until the DOM is fully loaded with all its resources, it seems like this isn't happening for me: I tried the following simple page in Chrome 4.1.249.1036 (41514) and IE 8.0.7600.16385 with the same result: both displayed the message "It failed!", indicating that myParagraph is not loaded (and so the DOM seems incomplete). <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = doThis(); // document.onload gives the same result function doThis() { if (document.getElementById("myParagraph")) { alert("It worked!"); } else { alert("It failed!"); } } </script> </head> <body> <p id="myParagraph">Nothing is here.</p> </body> </html> I am using more complex scripts than this, in an external .js file, but this illustrates the problem. I can get it working by having window.onload set a timer for half a second to run doThis(), but this seems like an inelegant solution, and doesn't answer the question of why window.onload doesn't seem to do what everyone says it does. Another solution would be to set a timer that will check if the DOM is loaded, and if not it will just call itself half a second later (so it will keep checking until the DOM is loaded), but this seems overly complex to me. Is there a more appropriate event to use?

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  • Eclipse PDE - Plug-in, Feature, and Product Versioning

    - by Michael
    I am having much confusion over the process of upgrading version numbers in dependent plug-ins, features, and products in a fairly large eclipse workspace. I have made API changes to java code residing in an existing plug-in and thus requires an increase of the Major part of the version identifier. This plug-in serves as a dependency to a given feature, where the feature is later included in a product. From the documentation at http://wiki.eclipse.org/Version_Numbering, I understand (for the most part) when the proper number should be increased on the containing plug-in itself. However, how would this Major version number change on the plug-in affect dependent, "down-the-line" items (e.g., features, products)? For example, assume we have the typical "Hello World" setup as follows: Plug-in: com.example.helloworld, version 1.0.0 Feature: com.example.helloworld.feature, version 1.0.0 Product: com.example.helloworld.product, version 1.0.0 If I were to make an API change in the plug-in, this would require a version update to be that of 2.0.0. What would then be the version of the feature, 1.1.0? The same question can be applied for the product level as well (e.g., if the feature is 1.1.0 OR 2.0.0, what is the product version number)? I'm sure this is quite the newbie question so I apologize for wasting anyone's time and effort. I have searched for this type of content but all I am finding is are examples showing how to develop a plug-in, feature, product, and update site for the first time. The only other content related to my search has been developing feature patches and have not touched on the versioning aspect as much as I would prefer. I am having difficulty coming into (for the first time) an Eclipse RCP / PDE environment and need to learn the proper way and / or best practices for making such versioning updates and how to best reflect this throughout other dependent projects in the workspace.

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  • Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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  • Understanding CABasicAnimation when spinning an object from a random angle....

    - by user157733
    I have spent ages trying to figure this out and I am still having problems. I want to rotate an image a random number of time - say 5 and a bit - then have it stop. I then want to rotate it again FROM ITS STOPPED POSITION. I am having difficulty with this so maybe someone can advise me on the right way to do it. Ok so I am using a CABasicAnimation for the spin like this... CABasicAnimation* rotationAnimation; rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: 0.0]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: M_PI * 1.0]; rotationAnimation.duration = 100; rotationAnimation.cumulative = YES; rotationAnimation.repeatCount = 5.2; rotationAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; rotationAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [myView.layer addAnimation:rotationAnimation forKey:@"rotationAnimation"]; This works fine. I use a animationDidStop function to transform the image to the new angle so that it actually in the new position (not just appearing that way). This is where my problems start. I have tried the following... removing the toValue line which means the animation starts from where it currently is but when the animation block is repeated it jumps back to this start position every time the block is run storing the value of the end rotation and using this in the toValue so the 2 lines of code become... rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: previousVal]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: (M_PI * 1.0)+previousVal]; when I do this the animation still jumps because it is flicking back to the previousVal everytime the block is repeated Therefore my final thought is to check to see if the image is at zero, if not then rotate it to zero, then impliment the block of code to spin multiple times. This seems complicated but is this the ONLY way to achieve this? I am concerned about getting the timings smooth with this method. Any suggestions would be amazing! Thanks

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  • Amazon S3 and swfaddress

    - by justinbach
    I recently migrated a large AS3 site (lots of swfs, lots of flvs) to Amazon S3. Pretty much everything but HTML and JS files is being stored/served from Amazon, and it's working well. The only problem I'm having is that I built the site using SWFaddress (actually, via the Gaia framework which uses SWFaddress), and for some reason, SWFaddress is no longer updating the address bar correctly as users navigate from page to page. In other words, the URL persistently remains http://www.mysite.com, not http://www.mysite.com/#/section as would be the case were SWFaddress functioning correctly (and as it was functioning prior to the migration). Stranger yet, if I go to (e.g.) http://www.mysite.com/#/section directly, the deeplinking functions as you'd expect--I arrive directly at the correct section. However, navigating away from that section doesn't have any effect on the address bar, despite the fact that it should be dynamically updated. I've got a crossdomain.xml file set up on the site that allows access from all domains, so that's not the issue, and I don't know what else might be. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! P.S. I integrated S3 by putting pretty much the entire site in an S3 bucket and then just changing the initial swfobject embed to point to the S3 instance of main.swf, passing in the S3 path as the "base" param to the embedded swf so that all dynamically loaded assets and swfs would also be sourced from s3. Dunno if that's related to the troubles I'm having.

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  • Silverlight 4 race condition with DataGrid master details control

    - by Simon_Weaver
    Basically I want a DataGrid (master) and details (textbox), where DataGrid is disabled during edit of details (forcing people to save/cancel)... Here's what I have... I have a DataGrid which serves as my master data. <data:DataGrid IsEnabled="{Binding CanLoad,ElementName=dsReminders}" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=dsReminders}" > Its data comes from a DomainDataSource: <riaControls:DomainDataSource Name="dsReminders" AutoLoad="True" ... I have a bound Textbox which is the 'details' (very simple right now). There are buttons (Save/Cancel) which should be enabled when user tries to edit the text. Unfortunately Silverlight doesn't support UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged so I have to raise an event: <TextBox Text="{Binding SelectedItem.AcknowledgedNote, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, ElementName=gridReminders}" TextChanged="txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged"/> The event to handle this calls BindingExpression.UpdateSource to update the source immediately: private void txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { BindingExpression be = txtAcknowledgedNote.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); be.UpdateSource(); } IN other words - typing in the textbox causes CanLoad of the DomainDataSource to become False (because we're editing). This in turn disables the DataGrid (IsEnabled is bound to it) and enables 'Cancel' and 'Save' buttons. However I'm running up against a race condition if I move quickly through rows in the DataGrid (just clicking random rows). The TextChanged presumably is being called on the textbox and confusing the DomainDataSource which then thinks there's been a change. So how should I disable the DataGrid while editing without having the race condition? One obvious solution would be to use KeyDown events to trigger the call to UpdateSource but I always hate having to do that.

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  • extract specific element from nested elements using lxml html

    - by Dan.StackOverflow
    Hi all I am having some problems that I think can be attributed to xpath problems. I am using the html module from the lxml package to try and get at some data. I am providing the most simplified situation below, but keep in mind the html I am working with is much uglier. <table> <tr> <td> <table> <tr><td></td></tr> <tr><td> <table> <tr><td><u><b>Header1</b></u></td></tr> <tr><td>Data</td></tr> </table> </td></tr> </table> </td></tr> </table> What I really want is the deeply nested table, because it has the header text "Header1". I am trying like so: from lxml import html page = '...' tree = html.fromstring(page) print tree.xpath('//table[//*[contains(text(), "Header1")]]') but that gives me all of the table elements. I just want the one table that contains this text. I understand what is going on but am having a hard time figuring out how to do this besides breaking out some nasty regex. Any thoughts?

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  • Python metaclass for enforcing immutability of custom types

    - by Mark Lehmacher
    Having searched for a way to enforce immutability of custom types and not having found a satisfactory answer I came up with my own shot at a solution in form of a metaclass: class ImmutableTypeException( Exception ): pass class Immutable( type ): ''' Enforce some aspects of the immutability contract for new-style classes: - attributes must not be created, modified or deleted after object construction - immutable types must implement __eq__ and __hash__ ''' def __new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ): instance = type.__new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ) # Make sure __eq__ and __hash__ have been implemented by the immutable type. # In the case of __hash__ also make sure the object default implementation has been overridden. # TODO: the check for eq and hash functions could probably be done more directly and thus more efficiently # (hasattr does not seem to traverse the type hierarchy) if not '__eq__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __eq__.' ) if not '__hash__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __hash__.' ) if _methodFromObjectType( instance.__hash__ ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must override object.__hash__.' ) instance.__setattr__ = _setattr instance.__delattr__ = _delattr return instance def __call__( self, *args, **kwargs ): obj = type.__call__( self, *args, **kwargs ) obj.__immutable__ = True return obj def _setattr( self, attr, value ): if '__immutable__' in self.__dict__ and self.__immutable__: raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be modified because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) object.__setattr__( self, attr, value ) def _delattr( self, attr ): raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be deleted because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) def _methodFromObjectType( method ): ''' Return True if the given method has been defined by object, False otherwise. ''' try: # TODO: Are we exploiting an implementation detail here? Find better solution! return isinstance( method.__objclass__, object ) except: return False However, while the general approach seems to be working rather well there are still some iffy implementation details (also see TODO comments in code): How do I check if a particular method has been implemented anywhere in the type hierarchy? How do I check which type is the origin of a method declaration (i.e. as part of which type a method has been defined)?

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  • Is possible to reuse subqueries?

    - by Gothmog
    Hello, I'm having some problems trying to perform a query. I have two tables, one with elements information, and another one with records related with the elements of the first table. The idea is to get in the same row the element information plus several records information. Structure could be explain like this: table [ id, name ] [1, '1'], [2, '2'] table2 [ id, type, value ] [1, 1, '2009-12-02'] [1, 2, '2010-01-03'] [1, 4, '2010-01-03'] [2, 1, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-03'] [2, 3, '2010-01-07'] [2, 4, '2010-01-07'] And this is want I would like to achieve: result [id, name, Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4] [1, '1', '2009-12-02', '2010-01-03', , '2010-01-03'] [2, '2', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-07', '2010-01-07'] The following query gets the proper result, but it seems to me extremely inefficient, having to iterate table2 for each column. Would be possible in anyway to do a subquery and reuse it? SELECT a.id, a.name, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 1 group by t.type) as Column1, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 2 group by t.type) as Column2, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 3 group by t.type) as Column3, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 4 group by t.type) as Column4 FROM (SELECT distinct id FROM table2 t WHERE (t.type in (1, 2, 3, 4)) AND t.value between '2010-01-01' and '2010-01-07') as subquery LEFT JOIN table a ON a.id = subquery.id

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  • Why does VBA Find loop fail when called from Evaluate?

    - by Abiel
    I am having some problems running a find loop inside of a subroutine when the routine is called using the Application.Evaluate or ActiveSheet.Evaluate method. For example, in the code below, I define a subroutine FindSub() which searches the sheet for a string "xxx". The routine CallSub() calls the FindSub() routine using both a standard Call statement and Evaluate. When I run Call FindSub, everything will work as expected: each matching address gets printed out to the immediate window and we get a final message "Finished up" when the code is done. However, when I do Application.Evaluate "FindSub()", only the address of the first match gets printed out, and we never reach the "Finished up" message. In other words, an error is encountered after the Cells.FindNext line as the loop tries to evaluate whether it should continue, and program execution stops without any runtime error being printed. I would expect both Call FindSub and Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" to yield the same results in this case. Can someone explain why they do not, and if possible, a way to fix this? Thanks. Note: In this example I obviously do not need to use Evaluate. This version is simplified to just focus on the particular problem I am having in a more complex situation. Sub CallSub() Call FindSub Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" End Sub Sub FindSub() Dim rngFoundCell As Range Dim rngFirstCell As Range Set rngFoundCell = Cells.Find(What:="xxx", after:=ActiveCell, LookIn:=xlValues, _ LookAt:=xlPart, SearchOrder:=xlByRows, SearchDirection:=xlNext, _ MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False) If Not rngFoundCell Is Nothing Then Set rngFirstCell = rngFoundCell Do Debug.Print rngFoundCell.Address Set rngFoundCell = Cells.FindNext(after:=rngFoundCell) Loop Until (rngFoundCell Is Nothing) Or (rngFoundCell.Address = rngFirstCell.Address) End If Debug.Print "Finished up" End Sub

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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  • How can I write classes that don't rely on "global" variables?

    - by Joel
    When I took my first programming course in university, we were taught that global variables were evil & should be avoided at all cost (since you can quickly develop confusing and unmaintainable code). The following year, we were taught object oriented programming, and how to create modular code using classes. I find that whenever I work with OOP, I use my classes' private variables as global variables, i.e., they can be (and are) read and modified by any function within the class. This isn't really sitting right with me, as it seems to introduce the same problems global variables had in languages like C. So I guess my question is, how do I stop writing classes with "global" variables? Would it make more sense to pretend I'm writing in a functional language? By this I mean having all functions take parameters & return values instead of directly modifying class variables. If I need to set any fields, I can just take the output of the function and assign it instead of having the function do it directly. This seems like it might make more maintainable code, at least for larger classes. What's common practice? Thanks!

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  • Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

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  • Hibernate ScrollableResults Do Not Return The Whole Set of Results

    - by mlaverd
    Some of the queries we run have 100'000+ results and it takes forever to load them and then send them to the client. So I'm using ScrollableResults to have a paged results feature. But we're topping at roughly 50k results (never exactly the same amount of results). I'm on an Oracle9i database, using the Oracle 10 drivers and Hibernate is configured to use the Oracle9 dialect. I tried with the latest JDBC driver (ojdbc6.jar) and the problem was reproduced. We also followed some advice and added an ordering clause, but the problem was reproduced. Here is a code snippet that illustrates what we do: Criteria crit = sess.createCriteria(ABC.class); crit.add(Restrictions.eq("property", value)); crit.setFetchSize(pageSize); crit.addOrder(Order.asc("property")); ScrollableResults sr = crit.scroll(); ... ... do{ for (Object entry : page) sess.evict(entry); //to avoid having our memory just explode out of proportion page.clear(); for (int i =0 ; i < pageSize && ! metLastRow; i++){ if (resultSet.next()) page.add(sr.get(0)); else metLastRow = true; } metLastRow = metLastRow?metLastRow:sr.isLast(); sendToClient(page); }while(!metLastRow); So, why is it that I get the result set to tell me its at the end when it should be having so much more results?

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  • Implementing IDisposable on a subclass when the parent also implements IDisposable

    - by Tanzelax
    I have a parent and child class that both need to implement IDisposable. Where should virtual (and base.Dispose()?) calls come into play? When I just override the Dispose(bool disposing) call, it feels really strange stating that I implement IDisposable without having an explicit Dispose() function (just utilizing the inherited one), but having everything else. What I had been doing (trivialized quite a bit): internal class FooBase : IDisposable { Socket baseSocket; private void SendNormalShutdown() { } public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } private bool _disposed = false; protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { if (disposing) { SendNormalShutdown(); } baseSocket.Close(); } } ~FooBase() { Dispose(false); } } internal class Foo : FooBase, IDisposable { Socket extraSocket; private bool _disposed = false; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { extraSocket.Close(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } ~Foo() { Dispose(false); } }

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