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  • How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

    - by devoured elysium
    When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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  • java.math.BigInteger pow(exponent) question

    - by Jan Kraus
    Hi, I did some tests on pow(exponent) method. Unfortunately, my math skills are not strong enough to handle the following problem. I'm using this code: BigInteger.valueOf(2).pow(var); Results: var | time in ms 2000000 | 11450 2500000 | 12471 3000000 | 22379 3500000 | 32147 4000000 | 46270 4500000 | 31459 5000000 | 49922 See? 2,500,000 exponent is calculated almost as fast as 2,000,000. 4,500,000 is calculated much faster then 4,000,000. Why is that? To give you some help, here's the original implementation of BigInteger.pow(exponent): public BigInteger pow(int exponent) { if (exponent < 0) throw new ArithmeticException("Negative exponent"); if (signum==0) return (exponent==0 ? ONE : this); // Perform exponentiation using repeated squaring trick int newSign = (signum<0 && (exponent&1)==1 ? -1 : 1); int[] baseToPow2 = this.mag; int[] result = {1}; while (exponent != 0) { if ((exponent & 1)==1) { result = multiplyToLen(result, result.length, baseToPow2, baseToPow2.length, null); result = trustedStripLeadingZeroInts(result); } if ((exponent >>>= 1) != 0) { baseToPow2 = squareToLen(baseToPow2, baseToPow2.length, null); baseToPow2 = trustedStripLeadingZeroInts(baseToPow2); } } return new BigInteger(result, newSign); }

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • Opa app does not load in Internet Explorer when compiled with Opa 1.1.1

    - by Marcin Skórzewski
    I did a minor update to the already working application and then had problems using new version of Opa compiler. First problem - runtime exception Since the original deployment Opa 1.1.1 has been released and it resulted in error: events.js:72 throw er; // Unhandled 'error' event ^ Error: listen EADDRINUSE at errnoException (net.js:901:11) at Server._listen2 (net.js:1039:14) at listen (net.js:1061:10) at Server.listen (net.js:1127:5) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:223:1405) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server_cps (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:226:15) at __v1_bslnet_http_server_init_server_cps_b970f080 (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:1:175) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:440:106 at global.execute_ (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:19:49) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:17:78 I decided to build Opa from sources and it helped, but another problem occurred :( Second problem - stops to support the IE Application stopped to work in Internet Explorer. I tried two different machines (Windows XP and 7) with IE 8 and 10. Web page does not load at all (looks like the network problem, but the same URL works fine in Firefox). I confirmed the same problem with "Hello world" from the Opa tutorial compiled with both Opa stable 1.1.1 and build from sources. I suspected that the problem is due to Node.js update (Opa = 1.1.1 requires Node 0.10.* - now I am using 0.10.12, but I also tried other 0.10-s), but "Hello world" from the Node's from page works fine. I am running the app on OSX developer box and Linux Debian 7.0 server. Any suggestions what am I doing wrong? PS. I was off the business for a while. Anyone knows what happened to the Opa forum? Signing is seams not to work.

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  • Simplification / optimization of GPS track

    - by GreyCat
    I've got a GPS track, produces by gpxlogger(1) (supplied as a client for gpsd). GPS receiver updates its coordinates every 1 second, gpxlogger's logic is very simple, it writes down location (lat, lon, ele) and a timestamp (time) received from GPS every n seconds (n = 3 in my case). After writing down a several hours worth of track, gpxlogger saves several megabyte long GPX file that includes several thousands of points. Afterwards, I try to plot this track on a map and use it with OpenLayers. It works, but several thousands of points make using the map a sloppy and slow experience. I understand that having several thousands of points of suboptimal. There are myriads of points that can be deleted without losing almost anything: when there are several points making up roughly the straight line and we're moving with the same constant speed between them, we can just leave the first and the last point and throw anything else. I thought of using gpsbabel for such track simplification / optimization job, but, alas, it's simplification filter works only with routes, i.e. analyzing only geometrical shape of path, without timestamps (i.e. not checking that the speed was roughly constant). Is there some ready-made utility / library / algorithm available to optimize tracks? Or may be I'm missing some clever option with gpsbabel?

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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • Deserialize json with json.net c#

    - by 76mel
    Hi, am new to Json so a little green. I have a Rest Based Service that returns a json string; {"treeNode":[{"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}, {"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}]} I have been playing with the Json.net and trying to Deserialize the string into Objects etc. I wrote an extention method to help. public static T DeserializeFromJSON<T>(this Stream jsonStream, Type objectType) { T result; using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(jsonStream)) { JsonSerializer serializer = new JsonSerializer(); try { result = (T)serializer.Deserialize(reader, objectType); } catch (Exception e) { throw; } } return result; } I was expecting an array of treeNode[] objects. But its seems that I can only deserialize correctly if treeNode[] property of another object. public class treeNode { public string id { get; set; } public string pid { get; set; } public string userId { get; set; } } I there a way to to just get an straight array from the deserialization ? Cheers

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  • What is the easiest way to get the property value from a passed lambda expression in an extension me

    - by Andrew Siemer
    I am writing a dirty little extension method for HtmlHelper so that I can say something like HtmlHelper.WysiwygFor(lambda) and display the CKEditor. I have this working currently but it seems a bit more cumbersome than I would prefer. I am hoping that there is a more straight forward way of doing this. Here is what I have so far. public static MvcHtmlString WysiwygFor<TModel, TProperty>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> helper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression) { return MvcHtmlString.Create(string.Concat("<textarea class=\"ckeditor\" cols=\"80\" id=\"", expression.MemberName(), "\" name=\"editor1\" rows=\"10\">", GetValue(helper, expression), "</textarea>")); } private static string GetValue<TModel, TProperty>(HtmlHelper<TModel> helper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression) { MemberExpression body = (MemberExpression)expression.Body; string propertyName = body.Member.Name; TModel model = helper.ViewData.Model; string value = typeof(TModel).GetProperty(propertyName).GetValue(model, null).ToString(); return value; } private static string MemberName<T, V>(this Expression<Func<T, V>> expression) { var memberExpression = expression.Body as MemberExpression; if (memberExpression == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Expression must be a member expression"); return memberExpression.Member.Name; } Thanks!

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  • Can we manipulate (subtract) the value of a property while template bidning?

    - by Subhen
    Hi, I am currently defining few grids as following: <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height-Height/5}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/15}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/20}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/6}"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> While the division works fine , the subtraction isn't yielding the output. Ialso tried like following: <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height-(Height/5)}"/> Still no result. Any suggestions plz. Thanks, Subhen ** Update ** Now In My XAML I tried implementing the IvalueConverter like : <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height, Converter={StaticResource heightConverter}}"/> Added the reference as <local:medieElementHeight x:Key="heightConverter"/> In side generic.cs I have coded as following: public class medieElementHeight : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { //customVideoControl objVdeoCntrl=new customVideoControl(); double custoMediaElementHeight = (double)value;//objVdeoCntrl.customMediaPlayer.Height; double mediaElementHeight = custoMediaElementHeight - (custoMediaElementHeight / 5); return mediaElementHeight; } #region IValueConverter Members object IValueConverter.ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion } But getting the exception Unknown Element Height in the element RowDefination.

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  • how to retreive the row value on click

    - by kumar
    var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( var s = $("#Grid").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'selarrrow').toString(); alert(s); $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + s)); }; on RowClick i am trying to get the value of that row to send throw URL.. to access this Row value in my Actionresult method. but I am getting null value for the row? is this right what I am doing here? Thanks When I am doing somethign like this.. var value; $("#Grid").click(function(e) { var row = jQuery(e.target).parent(); value= row.attr("id"); }); var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + value)); }; on alert I am getting the row value perfectly but in my action result method Its showing me null value? Public Actionresult List(string value) { return View(); } can anybody help me out.. thanks

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  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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  • delegate method throws runtime "unrecognized selector" error when switching back from one UIViewCont

    - by chimgrrl
    Ok, I've spend like half day on this and it's killing me. So I've got 3 view controllers transitioning from one another, something like this: I call the UploadDecisionViewController after destroying the previous View Controller: [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; [self performSelector:@selector(showUDModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; In my showUDModalView method: - (void)showUDModalView { UploadDecisionViewController *udcontroller = [[UploadDecisionViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UploadDecisionViewController" bundle:nil]; udcontroller.delegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:udcontroller animated:YES]; [udcontroller release]; } The UploadDecisionViewController shows up no problem. The UploadDecisionViewController has a button, which when clicked I want it to transition to the FileUploadViewController. I setup a UploadDecisionDelegate, threw a method in there to handle the button clicking: Inside UploadDecisionDelegate protocol (UploadDecisionViewController.h): @protocol UploadDecisionDelegate //let UOnliveViewController know that a button was selected - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection; @end Then inside my IBAction method when the button is clicked, I have this: - (IBAction)decisionSelected:(id)sender { [delegate UploadDecisionViewController:self madeChoice:@"upload"];//crashing at this line } When I run this, at this line above it is throwing a runtime exception: 2010-06-09 12:48:59.561 UOnlive[4735:207] *** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420 2010-06-09 12:48:59.562 UOnlive[4735:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420' 2010-06-09 12:48:59.563 UOnlive[4735:207] Stack: ( 33502299, 2495698185, 33884219, 33453686, 33306306, 20618, 2982917, 3390286, 3399023, 3394235, 3087839, 2996168, 3022945, 40156505, 33287040, 33283144, 40150549, 40150746, 3026863, 11700, 11554 ) Let me throw in the delegate method implemented also: - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection { NSLog(@"it got to here 245"); [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; if (yesOrNo) { //open up the FileUploadViewController and proceed to upload [self performSelector:@selector(showFUModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; } } Can someone tell me what the heck is going on? Thanks a bunch for the help...

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  • Why does this work?

    - by jsoldi
    I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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  • Exception handling in Spring MVC with 3 layer architecture

    - by Chorochrondochor
    I am building a simple web applications with 3 layers - DAO, Service, MVC. When in my Controller I want to delete menu group and it contains menus I am getting ConstraintViolationException. Where should I handle this exception? In DAO, Service, or in Controller? Currently I am handling the exception in Controller. My code below. DAO method for deleting menu groups: @Override public void delete(E e){ if (e == null){ throw new DaoException("Entity can't be null."); } getCurrentSession().delete(e); } Service method for deleting menu groups: @Override @Transactional(readOnly = false) public void delete(MenuGroupEntity menuGroupEntity) { menuGroupDao.delete(menuGroupEntity); } Controller method for deleting menu groups in Controller: @RequestMapping(value = "/{menuGroupId}/delete", method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView delete(@PathVariable Long menuGroupId, RedirectAttributes redirectAttributes){ MenuGroupEntity menuGroupEntity = menuGroupService.find(menuGroupId); if (menuGroupEntity != null){ try { menuGroupService.delete(menuGroupEntity); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessage", "admin.menu-group-deleted"); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessageType", "success"); } catch (Exception e){ redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessage", "admin.menu-group-could-not-be-deleted"); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessageType", "danger"); } } return new ModelAndView("redirect:/admin/menu-group"); }

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  • How can I intelligently group rows of integers for a faceted search?

    - by Alastair
    I'm not even quite sure what terms I should be using for what I want, so any advice on what I'm even asking for would be very welcome. Basically, my web site lists user-generated accommodations. Each has a rent price, which users will be able to query in our new faceted search box. Users search by city, and within each city I'd like to present a different rent grouping. That is to say that in City #1, if we have listings ranging from $200 - $1000, I'd like to present checkboxes for: less than $300 $301 - $500 $501 - $700 more than $700 However, if City #2 has values that range from $500 - $1500, I want the ranges above to change accordingly. So, if I say that I want 5 or 6 range options in each city, I think I have two options: Take the min and max values and just split the difference. I don't like this idea because one listing with a rent of $10,000 will throw the whole scale off. Intelligently calculate the ranges using means, medians etc. Number 2 is what I need help with. I'm a web developer that gets logic, but was never strong on math and statistics at school. Can anyone point me towards a guide that'll help me figure this out?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 randomly unable to debug WCF service.

    - by rossisdead
    I'm running Visual Studio 2010 on a Windows 7 x64 machine, and occasionally VS is giving me the good old "The remote procedure could not be debugged.This usually indicates that debugging has not been enabled on the server" error that a lot of people ask about. My problem, though, is that it seems to only do this randomly(it can be anywhere from a few minutes to a few hours), and after I've made plenty of successful calls to the service already. It doesn't prevent the service from working. It still returns values and doesn't throw any errors. The only difference is that annoying dialog pops up everytime I start to debug my application. I should mention that I'm connecting the WCF service from a WPF application. If I launch the web site the service is part of, I don't get the dialog. A few of the things I've tried that do not work: Killing and restarting the server. Compiling the web server in x86 Enabling tracing, but couldn't find any problems. Is this just a bug in Visual Studio 2010, or is there something I'm missing?

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  • How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

    - by Kyle Kaitan
    Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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  • Java: ResultSet exception - before start of result set

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having trouble getting data from a ResultSet object. Here is my code: String sql = "SELECT type FROM node WHERE nid = ?"; PreparedStatement prep = conn.prepareStatement(sql); int meetNID = Integer.parseInt(node.get(BoutField.field_meet_nid)); prep.setInt(1, meetNID); ResultSet result = prep.executeQuery(); result.beforeFirst(); String foundType = result.getString(1); if (! foundType.equals("meet")) { throw new IllegalArgumentException(String.format("Node %d must be of type 'meet', but was %s", meetNID, foundType)); } The error trace: Exception in thread "main" java.sql.SQLException: Before start of result set at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:1072) at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:986) at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:981) at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createSQLException(SQLError.java:926) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.checkRowPos(ResultSetImpl.java:841) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.getStringInternal(ResultSetImpl.java:5656) at com.mysql.jdbc.ResultSetImpl.getString(ResultSetImpl.java:5576) at nth.cumf3.nodeImport.Validator.validate(Validator.java:43) at nth.cumf3.nodeImport.Main.main(Main.java:38) What am I doing wrong here?

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

    - by Lars A. Brekken
    I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

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  • Javascript changing source of an image

    - by Pete Herbert Penito
    Hi Everyone! I have some javascript which runs a timer that animates something on the website. It all works perfectly but I want to get an image to change when the animation is run, It uses jquery: if(options.auto && dir=="next" && !clicked) { timeout = setTimeout(function(){ if (document.images['bullet1'].src == "img/bulletwhite.png") { document.images['bullet1'].src = "img/bullet.png"; document.images['bullet2'].src = "img/bulletwhite.png"; } animate("next",false); },diff*options.speed+options.pause); } options.auto means that its automatically cycling, dir is the direction of the motion and clicked is whether or not the user clicked it. Is there something wrong with my syntax here? I ran firebug with it, and it doesn't throw any errors, it simply won't work. Any advice would help! I should mention that the src of bullet1 starts at bulletwhite.png and then I was hoping for it to change to bullet.png and have bullet2 change to bulletwhite.png.

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  • Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

    - by FnGreg7
    Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

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  • Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

    - by chappar
    I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

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  • Returning pointers in a thread-safe way.

    - by Roddy
    Assume I have a thread-safe collection of Things (call it a ThingList), and I want to add the following function. Thing * ThingList::findByName(string name) { return &item[name]; // or something similar.. } But by doing this, I've delegated the responsibility for thread safety to the calling code, which would have to do something like this: try { list.lock(); // NEEDED FOR THREAD SAFETY Thing *foo = list.findByName("wibble"); foo->Bar = 123; list.unlock(); } catch (...) { list.unlock(); throw; } Obviously a RAII lock/unlock object would simplify/remove the try/catch/unlocks, but it's still easy for the caller to forget. There are a few alternatives I've looked at: Return Thing by value, instead of a pointer - fine unless you need to modify the Thing Add function ThingList::setItemBar(string name, int value) - fine, but these tend to proliferate Return a pointerlike object which locks the list on creation and unlocks it again on destruction. Not sure if this is good/bad practice... What's the right approach to dealing with this?

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  • Can a WebServiceHost be changed to avoid the use of HttpListener?

    - by sbyse
    I am looking for a way to use a WCF WebServiceHost without having to rely on the HttpListener class and it's associated permission problems (see this question for details). I'm working on a application which communicates locally with another (third-party) application via their REST API. At the moment we are using WCF as an embedded HTTP server. We create a WebServiceHost as follows: String hostPath = "http://localhost:" + portNo; WebServiceHost host = new WebServiceHost(typeof(IntegrationService), new Uri(hostPath)); // create a webhttpbinding for rest/pox and enable cookie support for session management WebHttpBinding webHttpBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); webHttpBinding.AllowCookies = true; ServiceEndpoint ep = host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IIntegrationService), webHttpBinding, ""); host.Open() ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService> cf = new ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService>(webHttpBinding, hostPath); IIntegrationService channel = cf.CreateChannel(); Everything works nicely as long as our application is run as administrator. If we run our application on a machine without administrative privileges the host.Open() will throw an HttpListenerException with ErrorCode == 5 (ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED). We can get around the problem by running httpcfg.exe from the command line but this is a one-click desktop application and that's not really as long term solution for us. We could ditch WCF and write our own HTTP server but I'd like to avoid that if possible. What's the easiest way to replace HttpListener with a standard TCP socket while still using all of the remaining HTTP scaffolding that WCF provides?

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