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  • HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Graham
    I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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  • activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

    - by Ameya Savale
    I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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  • jquery pass value class

    - by mckenzie
    $(".hidee2").click(function() { var type = $(".st").val(); } <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st2"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st3"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> How do i get which book now! link user click? because i need to pass over the st value? is there any way to achieve this using jquery? currently, only st value is passed over

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  • PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

    - by Marco Demaio
    When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

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  • Grails g:paginate tag and custom URL

    - by aboxy
    Hello, I am trying to use g:paginate in a shared template where depending on the controller, url changes e.g. For my homepage url should be : mydomain[DOT]com/news/recent/(1..n) For search Page: www[DOT]mydomain[DOT]com/search/query/"ipad apps"/filter/this month and my g:paginate looks like this: g:paginate controller=${customeController} action=${customAction} total:${total} For the first case, I was able to provide controller as 'news' and action as 'recent' and mapped url /news/recent/$offset to my controller. But for the search page, I am not able to achieve what I want to do. I have a URL mapping defined as /search/$filter**(controller:"search",action:"fetch") $filter can be /query/"ipad apps"/filter/thismonth/filter/something/filter/somethingelse. I want to be able to show the url as above rather than ?query="ipad apps"&filter=thismonth&filter=something&filter=somethingelse. I believe I can pass all the parameters in params attribute of g:paginate but that will not give me pretty URL. What would be the best way to achieve this? Please feel free to ask questions If i missed anything.Thanks in advance.

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  • XAttribute Generating strange namespaces

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm constructing an XElement with a couple attributes that have different namespaces. The code looks like this: var element = new XElement("SynchronousCommand", new XAttribute("{wcm}action", "add"), new XAttribute("{ns}id", Guid.NewGuid()), new XElement... ); The XML that is generated looks like this: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand d5p1:action="add" d5p2:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" xmlns:d5p2="ns" xmlns:d5p1="wcm"> ... </SynchronousCommand> </unattend> I'm just wondering if the auto-generated d5p2 is valid and why it is doing this. According to the XML standards here it seems like it would be valid. But why is it not: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand wcm:action="add" ns:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" > To generate the XML I'm doing this: public class unattend { public List<XElement> Any {get;} } var unattend = new unattend(); unattend.Add(element); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, unattend);

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  • how to get items that hasnot got a certain class in jquery?

    - by manraj82
    <ul id ='caseStudies'> <li class="humor crime fantasy hidden"> A </li> <li class="crime"> B </li> <li class="humor crime hidden"> C </li> <li class="humor crime"> D </li> <li class="humor crime fantasy action hidden"> E </li> <li class="fantasy action"> F </li> <li class="humor fantasy"> G </li> <li class="crime action hidden"> H </li> </ul> $('ul#caseStudies li.hidden').each(function() { }//this will get all the LI in the UL that has got class 'hidden' But how do i get all the LI in the UL that hasn got a class 'hidden'?

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  • There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/...

    - by virsum
    I have two WCF services hosted in a single Windows Service on a Windows Server 2003 machine. If the Windows service needs to access either of the WCF services (like when a timed event occurs), it uses one of the five named pipe endpoints exposed (different service contracts). The service also exposes HTTP MetadataExchange endpoints for each of the two services, and net.tcp endpoints for consumers external to the server. Usually things work great, but every once in a while I get an error message that looks something like this: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing that could accept the message. This is often caused by an incorrect address or SOAP action. See InnerException, if present, for more details. --- System.IO.PipeException: The pipe endpoint 'net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing' could not be found on your local machine. --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.PipeConnectionInitiator.GetPipeName(Uri uri) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.NamedPipeConnectionPoolRegistry.NamedPipeConnectionPool.GetPoolKey(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ConnectionPoolHelper.EstablishConnection(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientFramingDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) It doesn't happen reliably, which is maddening because I can't repeat it when I want to. In my windows service I also have some timed events and some file listeners, but these are fairly infrequent events. Does anyone have any ideas why I might be encountering an issue? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

    - by jp2code
    On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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  • How do you deal with naming conventions for rails partials?

    - by DJTripleThreat
    For example, I might have an partial something like: <div> <%= f.label :some_field %><br/> <%= f.text_field :some_field %> </div> which works for edit AND new actions. I also will have one like: <div> <%=h some_field %> </div> for the show action. So you would think that all your partials go under one directory like shared or something. The problem that I see with this is that both of these would cause a conflict since they are essentially the same partial but for different actions so what I do is: <!-- for edit and new actions --> <%= render "shared_edit/some_partial" ... %> <!-- for show action --> <%= render "shared_show/some_partial" ... %> How do you handle this? Is a good idea or even possible to maybe combine all of these actions into one partial and render different parts by determining what the current action is?

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  • JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

    - by prabu
    Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

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  • Rails - Help scoring an online quiz in RoR

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I'm trying to grade a quiz application I would like to make. I have a questions model with and ask(the actual question), 4 choices(a-d), and a correct answer(string). In the view I have the 4 question being diplayed then the correct answer choice (This is just a test for functionality) and then I created a text_field to accept the users answer choice and a button to refresh the index action which has the scoring logic, for now.. --Do I need to put the text_field within a form_tag? <p>1. <%= h @question.q1 %></p> <p>2. <%= h @question.q2 %></p> <p>3. <%= h @question.q3 %></p> <p>4. <%= h @question.q4 %></p> <p>Answer: <%= h @question.correct %></p> <%= text_field_tag :choice, params[:choice] %> <%= button_to "Grade", {:controller => 'site', :action => "index"} %> <p> <%= @answer %></p> Heres the index controller action def index @question = Question.find(1) if @question.correct == params[:choice] @answer = 'right' else @answer = 'wrong' end end Its not really working. The textfield is supposed to take a letter choice like 'a' or 'c' and compare it with the correct answer in the database. I would love this to work by radiobuttons, but I'm a newbie to rails so I thought I'd take baby steps. So if anyone can help me with how to fix this by string, or preferably by radiobuttons, I'd really appreciate it.

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  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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  • Symfony: joining two forms in the same page

    - by user248959
    Hi, i'm trying to join in the same action the login and the register forms. This is what i'm trying: modules/miembros/actions.class.php public function executeAux(sfWebRequest $request) { // I execute this action } modules/miembros/templates/auxSuccess.php <?php include_component('sfGuardRegister', 'register'); ?> <?php include_component('sfGuardAuth', 'signin'); ?> modules/miembros/components.class.php public function executeSignin($request) { if ( $request->isMethod( 'post' ) && ($request- >getParameter('submit')=='signin') ){ $this->form->bind( $request->getParameter( 'login' ) ); if ( $this->form->isValid() ){ $this->getController()->getActionStack()->getLastEntry()->getActionInstance()->redirect( '@home' ); } } } modules/miembros/templates/_signin.php <form action="<?php echo url_for('miembros/aux?submit=signin') ?>" method="post"> <?php echo $form['email_address']->renderLabel() ?> <?php echo $form['email_address'] ?> ... It's working ok, but i would to know if you have other alternatives. Regards Javi

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  • Displaying data from a linked table and displaying it as a list with HTML/PHP/MySQL

    - by user1672694
    I have three tables. students studentID | FirstName | LastName | Email | Form course CCode | Title courseenrolement courseenrolementid | studentID | ccode | complete | scode With the website, I have a page where I can view all the current enrolements and I wish to be able to view the list displaying the first name, surname and course title. I know I could do it with the following SQL (for the names): SELECT FirstName, LastName FROM student, courseenrolement WHERE courseenrolement.studentID = student.studentID But I am unsure how to get this to work using HTML/PHP. At present I only know how to display the studentID and CCode from the courseenrolement table using the following code: <ul> <?php foreach ($courseenrolements as $ce): ?> <li> <form action="" method="post"> <div> <?php htmlout($ce['studentID']); ?> <?php htmlout($ce['CCode']); ?> <input type="hidden" name="courseenrolementid" value="<?php echo $ce['courseenrolementid']; ?>"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Edit"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Delete"> </div> </form> </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> which displays this: But I would like the names and course title. I managed to get it to show the names etc in the dropdown on the 'Add new' form, so I would assume it will be similar, but just unsure on how exactly. Thanks in advance

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  • I can't get RedirectToAction to work

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect from if the user is valid. But nothing happens. The breakpoint in the redirected-to action method never gets hit. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } And in another Controller, I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect to: // HttpVerbs.Post doesn't work either [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; IEnumerable<Group> groups = GetGroups(); var paginatedGroups = new PaginatedList<Group>(groups, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedGroups); } private IEnumerable<Group> GetGroups() { return groupRepository.GetGroups(); } Is there anything obviously wrong with what I'm doing? Could somebody suggest a different approach I could take?

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  • What is wrong with locking non-static fields? What is the correct way to lock a particular instance?

    - by smartcaveman
    Why is it considered bad practice to lock non-static fields? And, if I am not locking non-static fields, then how do I lock an instance method without locking the method on all other instances of the same or derived class? I wrote an example to make my question more clear. public abstract class BaseClass { private readonly object NonStaticLockObject = new object(); private static readonly object StaticLockObject = new object(); protected void DoThreadSafeAction<T>(Action<T> action) where T: BaseClass { var derived = this as T; if(derived == null) { throw new Exception(); } lock(NonStaticLockObject) { action(derived); } } } public class DerivedClass :BaseClass { private readonly Queue<object> _queue; public void Enqueue(object obj) { DoThreadSafeAction<DerivedClass>(x=>x._queue.Enqueue(obj)); } } If I make the lock on the StaticLockObject, then the DoThreadSafeAction method will be locked for all instances of all classes that derive from BaseClass and that is not what I want. I want to make sure that no other threads can call a method on a particular instance of an object while it is locked.

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  • HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

    - by Steven Huwig
    I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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  • Rails log shows unexpected data as to the time spent on a DB stuff

    - by Arhimed
    I'm running on WinXP + Ruby 1.8.6 + Rails 2.3.5 (frozen to the project) in development environment. Looking at development.log I observe inconsistent data as to the time spent on a database stuff. Example #1 (good): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:54) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (563.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (15.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 953ms (DB: 578) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:36) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (0.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 47ms (DB: 32) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 shows 32ms were spent on DB while there were just 2 sql querries and both of zero time spent. Example #3 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 11:21:24) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (63.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (62.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 1187ms (DB: 297) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #3 shows 297ms while there were querries of 63ms and 62ms (125ms in total). Can't understand it. Could someone explain? Thanks in advance.

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • Struts 2 security

    - by Dewfy
    Does Struts 2 has complete solution for simple login task? I have simple declaration in struts.xml: <package namespace="/protected" name="manager" extends="struts-default" > <interceptors> <interceptor-stack name="secure"> <interceptor-ref name="roles"> <param name="allowedRoles">registered</param> </interceptor-ref> </interceptor-stack> </interceptors> <default-action-ref name="pindex"/> <action name="pindex" > <interceptor-ref name="completeStack"/> <interceptor-ref name="secure"/> <result>protected/index.html</result> </action> </package> Accessing to this resource shows only (Forbidden 403). So what should I do on the next step to: Add login page (standart Tomcat declaration on web.xml with <login-config> not works) ? Provide security round trip. Do I need write my own servlet or exists struts2 solutions? Thanks in advance!

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  • MSI install sequence - run DB scripts before services start

    - by marc_s
    Folks, we're running into some sequencing troubles with our MSI install. As part of our app, we install a bunch of services and allow the user to pick whether to start them right away or later. When they start right away, they seem to start too early in the install sequence - before our database manager had a chance to update the database. Right now, our custom action to run the database updater looks like this - it's being run after "InstallFinalize" - very late in the process. <InstallExecuteSequence> <RemoveExistingProducts After='InstallInitialize' /> <Custom Action='RunDbUpdateManagerAction' After='InstallFinalize'> DbUpdateManager=3</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> What would be the more appropriate step to run after or before, to make sure the DB scripts are executed before any of the installed services start up? Is there a "BeforeServiceStart" step? EDIT: Just defining the "Before='StartServices'" attribute on the tag didn't solve my problem. I am assuming the issue is this: the custom action has an "inner text", which represents a condition, and this condition is: "&DbUpdateManager=3". From what I can deduce from trial & error, this probably means "the DbUpdateManager feature must be published". Now, trouble is: "PublishFeature" comes way at the end in the install sequence, just before "InstallFinalize", and definitely AFTER InstallServices / StartServices. So when I specify the "Before=StartServices" requirement, the condition "DbUpdateManager feature must be published" isn't true yet, so the DbUpdateManager doesn't get executed :-( I tried removing the condition - in that case, my DbUpdateManager sometimes doesn't execute at all, sometimes more than once - no real clear pattern as to what happens when..... Any more ideas?? Is there a way I could check for a condition "the DbUpdateManager feature is installed" which would be true after the "InstallFiles" step?? Marc

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  • JSF redirect doesn't work

    - by user319331
    I have a problem with redirecting a page in my JSF application. My navigation rule look like this : <navigation-rule> <from-view-id>/index.xhtml</from-view-id> <navigation-case> <from-action>#{registerBean.registerUser}</from-action> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/confirmation.xhtml</to-view-id> <redirect/> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> In my case the redirect tag doesn't work, the URL remains unchanged, and when I refresh the page the registerUser action is executed again. I just have no idea what I'm doing wrong; I'm not very experienced with JSF. Can anyone please tell why the redirect tag doesn't work? Thanks. (I'm using JSF 2.0 and NetBeans IDE)

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