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  • Returning from dll (Asynchronous sockets)

    - by Juha
    I am trying to do a simple http-server in (c++) dll-file that I can use from managed (C#) application with P/Invoke. I was trying to do this with asynchronous functions (WSAAsyncSelect() and stuff), so that I could manage server by calling functions inside dll whenever needed and after that it would return to my main program. Now I'm not sure if that is even possible. It seems that "main function" in dll, the function that starts the server, has to include message loop or something and since it's a loop, it doesn't return from dll ever. Could I somehow do this message stuff in my managed application and call some function in dll when there is something to do? Or is it even possible to do this stuff in one thred? I would really like to avoid all concurrency stuff. The dll looks now basicly the same as here, main function is the one that I call from managed C# program and would like to return to there after calling the function. http://www.winsocketdotnetworkprogramming.com/winsock2programming/winsock2advancediomethod5b.html I'm quite noob in windows programming, and never even heard of this message-queue or message-loop.

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  • dotnetopenauth with asp.net mvc proving too frustrating to use.

    - by Stacey
    I've been trying excessively hard to implement a good open id solution into asp.net mvc - and everywhere I turn is absolute dead ends. DotNetOpenAuth is just too big and I have been thusfar unable to get even the most simplistic, basic, absolute cut and dry implementation of it to work. NerdDinner had a promising implementation, but it is impossible to track down all of the dependant files and scripts. The DotNetOpenAuth website has virtually no information that helps, either, unfortunately. Does ANYONE know of a simple approach to just implementing this that actually explains and details how it is working with some kind of selector? It is talked about so much, but everything I find for it is so difficult to work with that it is really putting my whole team off from even considering it. We want to implement it similar to how stack overflow already does - using a selector that'll popup a login page if it needs to. I realize there is a lot of code that needs to be done for this, but everything just hails and praises dotnetopenauth, and nothing really teaches it. Even the sample projects do not open or compile. It looks like a wonderful library - but it really just isn't clicking for me.

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  • How to best show progress info when using ADO.NET?

    - by Yadyn
    I want to show the user detailed progress information when performing potentially lengthy database operations. Specifically, when inserting/updating data that may be on the order of hundreds of KB or MB. Currently, I'm using in-memory DataTables and DataRows which are then synced with the database via TableAdapter.Update calls. This works fine and dandy, but the single call leaves little opportunity to glean any kind of progress info to show to the user. I have no idea how much data is passing through the network to the remote DB or its progress. Basically, all I know is when Update returns and it is assumed complete (barring any errors or exceptions). But this means all I can show is 0% and then a pause and then 100%. I can count the number of rows, even going so far to cound how many are actually Modified or Added, and I could even maybe calculate per DataRow its estimated size based on the datatype of each column, using sizeof for value types like int and checking length for things like strings or byte arrays. With that, I could probably determine, before updating, an estimated total transfer size, but I'm still stuck without any progress info once Update is called on the TableAdapter. Am I stuck just using an indeterminate progress bar or mouse waiting cursor? Would I need to radically change our data access layer to be able to hook into this kind of information? Even if I can't get it down to the precise KB transferred (like a web browser file download progress bar), could I at least know when each DataRow/DataTable finishes or something? How do you best show this kind of progress info using ADO.NET?

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  • What version control system is best designed to *prevent* concurrent editing?

    - by Fred Hamilton
    We've been using CVS (with TortoiseCVS interface) for years for both source control and wide-ranging document control (including binaries such as Word, Excel, Framemaker, test data, simulation results, etc.). Unlike typical version control systems, 99% of the time we want to prevent concurrent editing - when a user starts editing a file, the pre-edit version of the file becomes read only to everyone else. Many of the people who will be using this are not programmers or even that computer savvy, so we're also looking for a system that let's people simply add documents to the repository, check out and edit a document (unless someone else is currently editing it), and check it back in with a minimum of fuss. We've gotten this to work reasonably well with CVS + TortoiseCVS, but we're now considering Subversion and Mercurial (and open to others if they're a better fit) for their better version tracking, so I was wondering which one supported locking files most transparently. For example, we'd like exclusive locking enabled as the default, and we want to make it as difficult as possible for someone to accidentally start editing a file that someone else has checked out. For example when someone checks out a file for editing, it checks with the master database first even if they have not recently updated their sandbox. Maybe it even won't let a user check out a document if it's off the network and can't check in with the mothership.

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  • WPF: Invert OpacityMask

    - by Meleak
    Consider the following piece of Xaml <Grid Background="Blue"> <Border Width="100" Height="60" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <Border Background="Red"> <Border.OpacityMask> <VisualBrush> <VisualBrush.Visual> <TextBlock Text="Text" Foreground="#FF000000" Background="#00000000"/> </VisualBrush.Visual> </VisualBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> </Border> </Border> </Grid> It will look like this because of the OpacityMask whos only non-transparent part is the Foreground of the TextBlock. Now if I switch the Colors for Foreground and Background in the TextBlock like this <TextBlock Text="Text" Foreground="#00000000" Background="#FF000000"/> I get this because the even though the Foreground is transparent the Background behind it is not, resulting in a useless OpacityMask :) Is there anyway I can get this? Basically an inverted OpacityMask The reason I'm asking this is because of the answer I made in this question, using the approach from this link. Even though it works, it feels very "hacky". Am I missing some other way to do this here? Update To clarify, even though my example is about a TextBlock, it could be anything. Ellipse/Image/Path etc. The feature I'm after is "Invert OpacityMask"

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  • CSS: "float:left" doesn't work as expected

    - by Patrick
    hi, I want to display 2 columns of images using "float:left", and I dunno why the 3rd image is on the right. See screenshot:http://dl.dropbox.com/u/72686/imagesFloat.png See HTML: <div class="field-item odd"> <img alt="" class="filefield-imagecache-galleryImage" src="http://localhost/bernardi/sites/default/files/Picture%202.png" title=""><br> <span>description1</span> </div> <div class="field-item even"> <img alt="" class="filefield-imagecache-galleryImage" src="http://localhost/bernardi/sites/default/files/Picture%203.png" title=""><br> <span>description2</span> </div> <div class="field-item odd"> <img alt="" class="filefield-imagecache-galleryImage" src="http://localhost/bernardi/sites/default/files/Picture%204.png" title=""><br> <span>description3</span> </div> <div class="field-item even"> <img alt="" class="filefield-imagecache-galleryImage" src="http://localhost/bernardi/sites/default/files/Picture%205.png" title=""><br> <span></span> </div> see CSS: .field-field-image .odd { padding-right:20px; } .field-field-image .even { padding-left:20px; } .field-field-image .field-item { float:left; } thanks

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  • Sudden issues reading uncompressed video using opencv

    - by JohnSavage
    I have been using a particular pipeline to process video using opencv to encode uncompressed video (fourcc = 0), and opencv python bindings to then open and work on these files. This has been working fine for me on OpenCV 2.3.1a on Ubuntu 11.10 until just a few days ago. For some reason it currently is only allowing me to read the first frame of a given file the first time I open that file. Further frames are not read, and once I touch the file once with my program, it then cannot even read the first frame. More detail: I created the uncompressed video files as follows: out_video.open(out_vid_name, 0, // FOURCC = 0 means record raw fps, Size(640, 480)) Again, these videos worked fine for me until about a week ago. Now, when I try to open one of these I get the following message (from what I think is ffmpeg): Processing video.avi Using network protocols without global network initialization. Please use avformat_network_init(), this will become mandatory later. [avi @ 0x29251e0] parser not found for codec rawvideo, packets or times may be invalid. It reads and displays the first frame fine, but then fails to read the next frame. Then, when I try to run my code on the same video, the capture still opens with the same message as above. However, it cannot even read the very first frame. Here is the code to open the capture: self.capture = cv2.VideoCapture(filename) if not self.capture.isOpened() print "Error: could not open capture" sys.exit() Again, this part is passed without any issue, but then the break happens at: success, rgb = self.capture.read() if not success: print "error: could not read frame" return False This part breaks at the second frame on the first run of the video file, and then on the first frame on subsequent runs. I really don't know where to even begin debugging this. Please help!

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  • How to estimate size of data to transfer when using DbCommand.ExecuteXXX?

    - by Yadyn
    I want to show the user detailed progress information when performing potentially lengthy database operations. Specifically, when inserting/updating data that may be on the order of hundreds of KB or MB. Currently, I'm using in-memory DataTables and DataRows which are then synced with the database via TableAdapter.Update calls. This works fine and dandy, but the single call leaves little opportunity to glean any kind of progress info to show to the user. I have no idea how much data is passing through the network to the remote DB or its progress. Basically, all I know is when Update returns and it is assumed complete (barring any errors or exceptions). But this means all I can show is 0% and then a pause and then 100%. I can count the number of rows, even going so far to cound how many are actually Modified or Added, and I could even maybe calculate per DataRow its estimated size based on the datatype of each column, using sizeof for value types like int and checking length for things like strings or byte arrays. With that, I could probably determine, before updating, an estimated total transfer size, but I'm still stuck without any progress info once Update is called on the TableAdapter. Am I stuck just using an indeterminate progress bar or mouse waiting cursor? Would I need to radically change our data access layer to be able to hook into this kind of information? Even if I can't get it down to the precise KB transferred (like a web browser file download progress bar), could I at least know when each DataRow/DataTable finishes or something? How do you best show this kind of progress info using ADO.NET?

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  • ActionScript 3.0: placing code on stage/MC timelines a la AS2 instead of in classes

    - by BoltClock
    I'm aware that ActionScript 3.0 is designed from the ground up to be a largely object-oriented language and using it means less or even no timeline code in Flash documents. I'm quite experienced with OOP and am comfortable writing classes. However, since I mostly use Flash for animations, I hardly ever need to write ActionScript code other than for preloaders, subtitles, quality controls, website links and so on. In fact, I still set my Flash movies to use AS2 to this day because I'm used to gotoAndPlay()/gotoAndStop(), AS2 preloaders, subtitles, quality controls and even getURL(). Of course, I really want to move on now that practically everyone's on Flash Player 9 or 10 and now that I've dabbled with other OO languages like Java, C# and Objective-C too. I'm a complete newcomer to AS3 and am not very learned with AS2 either. Considering my current use of ActionScript, are there any cases where it's still OK to use very simple AS3 code in the timeline instead of moving code to a class, especially since moving to a class might mean unnecessarily increasing the number of LOC from 4 to 40? (Heck, is the latter case ('instead of ...') even a valid concern at all?)

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  • strange redefined symbols

    - by Chris H
    I included this header into one of my own: http://codepad.org/lgJ6KM6b When I compiled I started getting errors like this: CMakeFiles/bin.dir/SoundProjection.cc.o: In function `Gnuplot::reset_plot()': /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-pc-linux-gnu/4.3.4/include/g++-v4/new:105: multiple definition of `Gnuplot::reset_plot()' CMakeFiles/bin.dir/main.cc.o:project/gnuplot-cpp/gnuplot_i.hpp:962: first defined here CMakeFiles/bin.dir/SoundProjection.cc.o: In function `Gnuplot::set_smooth(std::basic_string, std::allocator const&)': project/gnuplot-cpp/gnuplot_i.hpp:1041: multiple definition of `Gnuplot::set_smooth(std::basic_string, std::allocator const&)' CMakeFiles/bin.dir/main.cc.o:project/gnuplot-cpp/gnuplot_i.hpp:1041: first defined here CMakeFiles/bin.dir/SoundProjection.cc.o:/usr/include/eigen2/Eigen/src/Core/arch/SSE/PacketMath.h:41: multiple definition of `Gnuplot::m_sGNUPlotFileName' I know it's hard to see in this mess, but look at where the redefinitions are taking place. They take place in files like /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-pc-linux-gnu/4.3.4/include/g++-v4/new:105. How is the new operator getting information about a gnuplot header? I can't even edit that file. How could that ever even be possible? I'm not even sure how to start debugging this. I hope I've provided enough information. I wasn't able to reproduce this in a small project. I mostly just looking for tips on how to find out why this is happening, and how to track it down. Thanks.

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  • Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

    - by polygenelubricants
    The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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  • Configure Windows firewall to prevent an application from listening on a specific port [closed]

    - by U-D13
    The issue: there are many applications struggling to listen on port 80 (Skype, Teamviewer et al.), and to many of them that even is not essential (in the sense that you can have a httpd running and blocking the http port, and the other application won't even squeak about being unable to open the port). What makes things worse, some of the apps are... Well, I suppose, that it's okay that the mentally impaired are being integrated in the society by giving them a job to do, but... Programming requires some intellectual effort, in my humble opinion... What I mean is that there is no way to configure the app not to use specific ports (that's what you get for using proprietary software) - you can either add it to windows firewall exceptions (and succumb to undesired port opening behavior) or not (and risk losing most - if not all - of the functionality). Technically, it is not impossible for the firewall to deny an application opening an incoming port even if the application is in the exception list. And if this functionality is built into the Windows firewall somewhere, there should be a way to activate it. So, what I want to know is: whether there exists such an option, and if it does how to activate it.

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  • Convert IDispatch* to a string?

    - by Rob
    I am converting an old VB COM object (which I didn't write) to C++ using ATL. One of the methods, according to the IDL, takes an IDispatch* as a parameter and the documentation and samples for this method claim that you can pass either a string (which is the progid of an object that will be created and used by the control) or an IDispatch* to an object that has already been created. How on earth do I implement this in ATL? For example, the IDL: [id(1)] HRESULT Test(IDispatch* obj); The samples (which are all JScript): obj.Test("foo.bar"); or var someObject = new ActiveXObject("foo.bar"); obj.Test(someObject); To make matters even more bizarre the actual VB code that implements this method actually declares the 'obj' parameter as a string! However, it all seems to work. Can you even pass a string to a COM method that takes an IDispatch*? If so, can I determine that the IDispatch* is actually a string in my C++ ATL code? Even better, if it's an IDispatch that implements a specific interface I will want to call methods on it, or instantiate an object if it's a string. Any ideas welcome!

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  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

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  • Why won't VS2010 RC use my existing types when I add a service reference?

    - by Johan Driessen
    I have a huge problem getting services references in VS2010 RC to use existing assemblies. Even though I have a class library with all the data contracts (classes marked with DataContract and properties with DataMember) that is shared between the service project and the consuming project (which is a class library), when I add a service reference, the data contracts are regenerated withing the service reference instead of using the existing types. When I was using VS2010 beta 2, this worked fine, and I have existing service references using the very same data contracts. But if I add a new service reference, or even update an old one, it won't use the existing types anymore. I have made a mini-test-solution, with one service, one data contract type and one console app as a consumer (all in the same solution), and there it seems to work, but that's no great comfort to me. Is there any way to see why it can't use the existing types? Edit to clearify. It works to generate the proxy classes with svcutil.exe, and point to the data contracts dll, like this: svcutil.exe http://localhost/MyService.svc /reference:[Path To DataContracts]\DataContracts.dll /n:*,MyProject.MyServiceReference /ct:System.Collections.Generic.List`1 The question is, what possible reason could there be for Visual Studio to generate its own datacontracts instead of using the existing ones even though the "reuse" checkbox is checked and the datacontracts assembly is referenced.

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  • CStdioFile Undeclared Identifier

    - by Eric Regnier
    I am unable to compile my code when using a CStdioFile type. I have included the afx.h header file but I am still receiving errors. What I am trying to do is write a cstring that contains an entire xml document to file. This cstring contains comments inside of it, but when I use other objects such as wofstream to write it to file, these comments are striped out for some reason. So that is why I am trying to write this to file using CStdioFile now. If anyone can help me out as to why I cannot compile my code using CStdioFile, or any other way to write a cstring that contains xml comments to file, please let me know! Below is my code using CStdioFile: CStdioFile xmlFile; xmlFile.Open( "c:\\test.txt", CFile::modeCreate | CFile::modeWrite | CFile::typeText ); xmlFile.WriteString( m_sData ); xmlFile.Close(); And my errors: error C2065: 'CStdioFile' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'modeCreate' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'modeWrite' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'typeText' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'xmlFile' : undeclared identifier error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'xmlFile' error C2228: left of '.Close' must have class/struct/union type type is ''unknown-type'' error C2228: left of '.Open' must have class/struct/union type type is ''unknown-type'' error C2228: left of '.WriteString' must have class/struct/union type type is ''unknown-type'' error C2653: 'CFile' : is not a class or namespace name error C2653: 'CFile' : is not a class or namespace name error C2653: 'CFile' : is not a class or namespace name error C3861: 'xmlFile': identifier not found, even with argument-dependent lookup error C3861: 'xmlFile': identifier not found, even with argument-dependent lookup error C3861: 'xmlFile': identifier not found, even with argument-dependent lookup

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  • Simple way to repeat a String in java

    - by e5
    I'm looking for a simple commons method or operator that allows me to repeat some String n times. I know I could write this using a for loop, but I wish to avoid for loops whenever necessary and a simple direct method should exist somewhere. String str = "abc"; String repeated = str.repeat(3); repeated.equals("abcabcabc"); Related to: repeat string javascript Create NSString by repeating another string a given number of times Edited I try to avoid for loops when they are not completely necessary because: They add to the number of lines of code even if they are tucked away in another function. Someone reading my code has to figure out what I am doing in that for loop. Even if it is commented and has meaningful variables names, they still have to make sure it is not doing anything "clever". Programmers love to put clever things in for loops, even if I write it to "only do what it is intended to do", that does not preclude someone coming along and adding some additional clever "fix". They are very often easy to get wrong. For loops that involving indexes tend to generate off by one bugs. For loops often reuse the same variables, increasing the chance of really hard to find scoping bugs. For loops increase the number of places a bug hunter has to look.

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  • Apps with lable XYZ could not be found

    - by HWM-Rocker
    Hello folks, today I ran into an error and have no clue how to fix it. Error: App with label XYZ could not be found. Are you sure your INSTALLED_APPS setting is correct? Where XYZ stands for the app-name that I am trying to reset. This error shows up every time I try to reset it (manage.py reset XYZ). Show all the sql code works. Even manage.py validate shows no error. I already commented out every single line of code in the models.py that I touched the last three monts. (function by function, model by model) And even if there are no models left I get this error. Here http://code.djangoproject.com/ticket/10706 I found a bugreport about this error. I also applied one the patches to allocate the error, it raises an exception so you have a trace back, but even there is no sign in what of my files the error occurred. I don't want to paste my code right now, because it is nearly 1000 lines of code in the file I edited the most. If someone of you had the same error please tell me were I can look for the problem. In that case I can post the important part of the source. Otherwise it would be too much at once. Thank you for helping!!!

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  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • Nhibernate fires SQL commands

    - by Chris
    Hi all, when updating an entity A, NHibernate also send an SQL update command for some other entity B. A and B are not related. Just before saving entity A, the parent of entity B is loaded via a SQLQuery. Then, when accessed, B is lazy loaded (part of a collection). If I save entity A an update statement for entity B is generated as well. How can that be, that when saving an entity, another entity loaded before but is not related to the entity saved, is updated as well?! Can I somehow track where the update comes from? Btw. I am using an save event listener. Could it be that this is always triggered for entity loaded, even though they are not saved explicitly? public class EntitySaveEventListener : NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener { protected override object PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent e) { //auditing return base.PerformSaveOrUpdate(e); } } Update (sorry for providing not enough info): I tracked it down a bit. A select stateement on a entity called address is executed (is it lazy loaded by a parent). Then I create a new entity called Request. Right before saving this entity a session flush is called which updates the address, even though I did not call save or update on the address. Address is a collection within Request. <class name="Request" table="Request"> <bag name="addresses" access="field" cascade="all-delete-orphan" where="IsDeleted = 0"> <key column="RequestId"/> <one-to-many class="Address"/> </bag> ... // address is fetched only NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:21,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - SELECT addresses0_.RequestId as ServiceP8_3_, .... // session flushed here // address is updated NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:34,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - Batch commands: command 0:UPDATE Address SET Street = @p0, ..... Would the address be updated automatically when it is manipulated somehow even though it is not explicitly saved via it's parent (cascade)?

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  • Refreshing WEB-INF/lib in Google App Engine (with Eclipse)

    - by Adrian Petrescu
    Hi, I've created a new Google App Engine project within Eclipse. I copied several JARs that I need for my application into the WEB-INF/lib directory, and add them to the build path. I make some random calls to these JARs from within the handler, deploy, and everything works fine. However, if I then change one of the JARs outside the project, and copy the new version to WEB-INF/lib (with the same name) and re-deploy, it doesn't seem to be sending the new JAR; everything is still linking to the old one even though it's not even in my WEB-INF/lib anymore. I'm guessing it's being cached by the server or Eclipse is not even realizing something has changed in order to upload the new version. If I just create a new project with the new JAR, everything is fine again (until I have to make another change...) but of course I don't want to have to create a new project for every change to a dependency I make. My question is, how can I make GAE re-upload all the JARs I have from within Eclipse? Thanks in advance, guys :) -Adrian

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  • How to automatically split git commits to separate changes to a single file

    - by Hercynium
    I'm just plain stuck as to how to accomplish this, or if it's even possible. Even it it can be done, I wonder if it could be setting us up for a messed-up, unmanageable repository. I have set up two branches of the code-base. One is "master" and the other is "prod". The HEAD of prod is always the latest code in production, and master is the main development branch. Here's the problem, though: We're converting from CVS here at $work and most of the developers are still getting used to git. Their CVS workflow involved tagging versions of individual files for production, then updating the servers using the tag. Unfortunately, this has let to sloppy practices like committing unrelated changes together and then tagging the files after-the-fact... and the devs want to know how they can do the following: In their local repos, they hack and commit to their hearts' delight, then at the end of the day, be able to run a command that takes a list of files whose commits over the day get merged with their local prod - and only those files - even if those commits combine changes to other files. I know how to split commits with git rebase --interactive, but I have no clue how I would automate splitting commits at all, never mind the way I want to. I do realize the simplest thing would be to just tell them to switch the their prod branches, checkout the files from their master branches into the working tree then commit to prod. My problem with that is losing the history of their commits over the day.

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • QT QSslError being signaled with the error code set to NoError

    - by Nantucket
    My Problem I compiled OpenSSL into QT to enable OpenSSL support. Everything appeared to go correctly in the compile. However, when I try to use the official HTTP example application that can be found here, everytime I try to download an https page, it will signal two QSslError, each with contents NoError. The types of QSslErrors, including NoError, are documented here, poorly. There is no explanation on why they even included an error type called NoError, or what it means. Bizarrely, the NoError error code seems to be true, as it downloads the remote https document perfectly even while signaling the error. Does anyone have any idea what this means and what could possibly be causing it? Optional Background Reading Here is the relevant part of the code from the example app (this is connected to the network connection's sslErrors signal by the constructor): void HttpWindow::sslErrors(QNetworkReply*,const QList<QSslError> &errors) { QString errorString; foreach (const QSslError &error, errors) { if (!errorString.isEmpty()) errorString += ", "; errorString += error.errorString(); } if (QMessageBox::warning(this, tr("HTTP"), tr("One or more SSL errors has occurred: %1").arg(errorString), QMessageBox::Ignore | QMessageBox::Abort) == QMessageBox::Ignore) { reply->ignoreSslErrors(); } } I have tried the old version of this example, and it produced the same result. I have tried OpenSSL 1.0.0a and 0.9.8o. I have tried tried compiling OpenSSL myself, I have tried using pre-compiled versions of OpenSSL from the net. All produce the same result. If this were my first time using QT with SSL, I would almost think this is the intended result (even though their example application is popping up error warning message windows), if not for the fact that last time I played with QT, using what would now be an old version of QT with an old version of SSL, I distinctly remember everything working fine with no error windows. My system is running Windows 7 x64.

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