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  • Debugging XSLT with extension objects in Visual Studio 2010

    - by Alex Ciminian
    I'm currently working on a project that involves a lot of XSLT transformations and I really need a debugger (I have XSLTs that are 1000+ lines long and I didn't write them :-). The project is written in C# and makes use of extension objects: xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:<obj>", new <Obj>()); From my knowledge, in this situation Visual Studio is the only tool that can help me debug the transformations step-by-step. The static debugger is no use because of the extension objects (it throws an error when it reaches elements that reference their namespace). Fortunately, I've found this thread which gave me a starting point (at least I know it can be done). After searching MSDN, I found the criteria that makes stepping into the transform possible. They are listed here. In short: the XML and the XSLT must be loaded via a class that has the IXmlLineInfo interface (XmlReader & co.) the XML resolver used in the XSLTCompiledTransform constructor is file-based (XmlUriResolver should work). the stylesheet should be on the local machine or on the intranet (?) From what I can tell, I fit all these criteria, but it still doesn't work. The relevant code samples are posted below: // [...] xslTransform = new XslCompiledTransform(true); xslTransform.Load(XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(contents)), null, new BaseUriXmlResolver(xslLocalPath)); // [...] // I already had the xml loaded in an xmlDocument // so I have to convert to an XmlReader XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(new StringReader(xmlDoc.OuterXml)); XsltArgumentList xslArg = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArg.AddExtensionObject("urn:[...]", new [...]()); xslTransform.Transform(r, xslArg, context.Response.Output); I really don't get what I'm doing wrong. I've checked the interfaces on both XmlReader objects and they implement the required one. Also, BaseUriXmlResolver inherits from XmlUriResolver and the stylesheet is stored locally. The screenshot below is what I get when stepping into the Transform function. First I can see the stylesheet code after stepping through the parameters (on template-match), I get this: If anyone has any idea why it doesn't work or has an alternative way of getting it to work I'd be much obliged :). Thanks, Alex

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  • GZip compression with WCF hosted on IIS7

    - by joniba
    So I'm going to add my query to the small ocean of questions on the subject. I'm trying to enable GZip compression on large soap responses from a WCF service. So far, I've followed instructions here and in a variety of other places to enable dynamic compression on IIS. Here's my dynamicTypes section from the applicationHost.config: <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xop+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/soap+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> And also: <urlCompression doDynamicCompression="true" dynamicCompressionBeforeCache="true" /> Though I'm not so clear on why that's needed. Threw some extra mime-types in there just in case. I've implemented IClientMessageInspector to add Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate to my client's HttpRequests. Here's an example of a request-header taken from fiddler: POST http://[omitted]/TestMtomService/TextService.svc HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8 Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: [omitted] Content-Length: 542 Expect: 100-continue Now, this doesn't work. There's simply no compression happening, no matter what the size of the message (tried up to 1.5Mb). I've looked at this post, but have not run into an exception as he describes, so I haven't tried the CodeProject implementation that he proposes. Also I've seen a lot of other implementations that are supposed to get this to work, but cannot make sense of them (e.g., msdn's GZip encoder). Why would I need to implement the encoder, or the code-project solution? Shouldn't IIS take care of the compression? So what else do I need to do to get this to work? Joni

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Entity Framework request error when property setter is internal

    - by Jim Straatman
    I receive an error message when exposing an ADO.NET Data Service using an Entity Framework data model that contains an entity (called "Case") with an internal setter on a property. If I modify the setter to be public (using the entity designer), the data services works fine. I don’t need the entity "Case" exposed in the data service, so I tried to limit which entities are exposed using SetEntitySetAccessRule. This didn’t work, and service end point fails with the same error. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("User", EntitySetRights.AllRead); } The error message is reported in a browser when the .svc endpoint is called. It is very generic, and reads “Request Error. The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.” Unfortunately, there are no entries in the System and Application event logs. I found this stackoverflow question that shows how to configure tracing on the service. After doing so, the following NullReferenceExceptoin error was reported in the trace log. Does anyone know how to avoid this exception when including an entity with an internal setter? Blockquote 131076 3 0 2 MOTOJIM http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/library/System.ServiceModel.Diagnostics.TraceHandledException.aspx Handling an exception. 685a2910-19-128703978432492675 System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.CreateProvider(Type dataServiceType, Object dataSourceInstance, DataServiceConfiguration&amp; configuration) at System.Data.Services.DataService1.EnsureProviderAndConfigForRequest() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.ProcessRequestForMessage(Stream messageBody) at SyncInvokeProcessRequestForMessage(Object , Object[] , Object[] ) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.SyncMethodInvoker.Invoke(Object instance, Object[] inputs, Object[]&amp; outputs) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) </StackTrace> <ExceptionString>System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.P

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  • How to troubleshoot a 'System.Management.Automation.CmdletInvocationException'

    - by JamesD
    Does anyone know how best to determine the specific underlying cause of this exception? Consider a WCF service that is supposed to use Powershell 2.0 remoting to execute MSBuild on remote machines. In both cases the scripting environments are being called in-process (via C# for Powershell and via Powershell for MSBuild), rather than 'shelling-out' - this was a specific design decision to avoid command-line hell as well as to enable passing actual objects into the Powershell script. The Powershell script that calls MSBuild is shown below: function Run-MSBuild { [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.Build.Engine") $engine = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Engine $engine.BinPath = "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5" $project = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Project($engine, "3.5") $project.Load("deploy.targets") $project.InitialTargets = "DoStuff" # # Set some initial Properties & Items # # Optionally setup some loggers (have also tried it without any loggers) $consoleLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.ConsoleLogger $engine.RegisterLogger($consoleLogger) $fileLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.FileLogger $fileLogger.Parameters = "verbosity=diagnostic" $engine.RegisterLogger($fileLogger) # Run the build - this is the line that throws a CmdletInvocationException $result = $project.Build() $engine.Shutdown() } When running the above script from a PS command prompt it all works fine. However, as soon as the script is executed from C# it fails with the above exception. The C# code being used to call Powershell is shown below (remoting functionality removed for simplicity's sake): // Build the DTO object that will be passed to Powershell dto = SetupDTO() RunspaceConfiguration runspaceConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); using (Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(runspaceConfig)) { runspace.Open(); IList errors; using (var scriptInvoker = new RunspaceInvoke(runspace)) { // The Powershell script lives in a file that gets compiled as an embedded resource TextReader tr = new StreamReader(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream("MyScriptResource")); string script = tr.ReadToEnd(); // Load the script into the Runspace scriptInvoker.Invoke(script); // Call the function defined in the script, passing the DTO as an input object var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild", dto, out errors); } } Assuming that the issue was related to MSBuild outputting something that the Powershell runspace can't cope with, I have also tried the following variations to the second .Invoke() call: var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-String", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-Null", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-Null"); I've also looked at using a custom PSHost (based on this sample: http://blogs.msdn.com/daiken/archive/2007/06/22/hosting-windows-powershell-sample-code.aspx), but during debugging I was unable to see any 'interesting' calls to it being made. Do the great and the good of Stackoverflow have any insight that might save my sanity?

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  • getting autodiscover URL from Exchange email address

    - by Anthony
    I'm starting with an address for an Exchange 2007 server: [email protected] And I attempted to send an autodiscover request, as documented at MSDN. I attempted to use the generic autodiscover address documented at the TechNet White Paper. So, using curl on PHP, I sent the following request: <Autodiscover xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/requestschema/2006"> <Request> <EMailAddress>[email protected]</EMailAddress> <AcceptableResponseSchema> http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/responseschema/2006a </AcceptableResponseSchema> </Request> </Autodiscover> to the following URL: https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml But got no response, just an eventual timeout. I also tried: https://autodiscover.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml With the same result. Now, since my larger goal is to use Autodiscover with Exchange Web Services, and since all of the EWS URLs start with the same sub-domain as the Outlook Web Access address, I thought I'd give that a try: OWA: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org So I tried: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml And sure enough, I got back the expected response. However, I only knew the OWA sub-domain because it's the server I have access to and that I'm using to test everything. I would not know it for sure or be able to guess it if this were a live app and the user was entering in their own Exchange email. I know that whatever generic autodiscover settings must be turned on, because I can enter: [email protected] into Apple Mail on Snow Leopard and it finds everything without trouble. So the question is... Should https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml have worked, and I just missed a step when trying to connect to it? Or, Is there some trick (maybe involving pinging the email address?) that Apple Mail and other clients use to resolve the address to the OWA subdomain before sending the autodiscover request? Thanks to anyone who knows or can take a wild guess.

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  • EJB3 - using 2 persistence units within a transaction (Exception: Local transaction already has 1 no

    - by Sorcha
    I am trying to use 2 persistence units within the same transaction in a JEE application deployed on Glassfish. The 2 persistence units are defined in persistence.xml, as follows: <persistence-unit name="BeachWater"> <jta-data-source>jdbc/BeachWater</jta-data-source> ... <persistence-unit name="LIMS"> <jta-data-source>jdbc/BeachWaterLIMS</jta-data-source> ... These persistence units correspond to JDBC resources and connection pools which I had defined in Glassfish as follows (include one here as both are identical apart from names & database connection info): JDBC Resource: JNDI Name: jdbc/BeachWaterLIMS Pool Name: BEACHWATER_LIMS Connection Pool: Name: BEACHWATER_LIMS Datasource Classname: com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerConnectionPoolDataSource Resource Type: javax.sql.ConnectionPoolDataSource There are 3 stateless session beans, LimsServiceBean, AnalysisServiceBean and AnalysisDataTransformationServiceBean. Here are the relevant snippets from LimsServiceBean: @PersistenceContext(unitName = "LIMS") EntityManager em; ... public ArrayList<Sample> getLatestLIMSData() { Query q = em.createNamedQuery("Sample.findBySubTypeStatus"); return new ArrayList<Sample>(q.getResultList()); } From AnalysisServiceBean: @PersistenceContext(unitName = "BeachWater") EntityManager em; ... public ArrayList<AnalysisType> getAllAnalysisTypes() { Query q = em.createNamedQuery("AnalysisType.findAll"); return new ArrayList<AnalysisType>(q.getResultList()); } And from AnalysisDataTransformationServiceBean: @EJB private AnalysisService analysisService; @EJB private LimsService limsService; public void transformData() { List<AnalysisType> analysisTypes = analysisService.getAllAnalysisTypes(); ArrayList<Sample> samples = limsService.getLatestLIMSData(); This call to limsService.getLatestLIMSData() caused the following exception: [exec] Caused by: javax.ejb.TransactionRolledbackLocalException: Exception thrown from bean; nested exception is: Exception [TOPLINK-4002] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.1 (Build b60e-fcs (12/23/2008))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.DatabaseException [exec] Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Error in allocating a connection. Cause: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Local transaction already has 1 non-XA Resource: cannot add more resources. Having consulted this page, http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms378484.aspx (among many others), I tried changing the definition of the connection pools to: Connection Pool: Name: BEACHWATER_LIMS Datasource Classname: com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerXADataSource Resource Type: javax.sql.XADataSource Ping via the Glassfish admin console succeeds, but call to analysisService.getAllAnalysisTypes() now throws an exception: Caused by: javax.ejb.TransactionRolledbackLocalException: Exception thrown from bean; nested exception is: Exception [TOPLINK-4002] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.1 (Build b60e-fcs (12/23/2008))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Error in allocating a connection. Cause: javax.transaction.SystemException Any ideas?

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  • How to make a Custom Data Generator for SQL XML DataType.

    - by Keith Sirmons
    Howdy, I am using Visual Studio 2010 and am playing around with the Database Projects. I am creating a DataGenerationPlan to insert data into a simple table, in which one of the column datatypes is XML. Out of the box, the generation plan uses the Regular Expression generator and generates something like this : HGcSv9wa7yM44T9x5oFT4pmBkEmv62lJ7OyAmCnL6yqXC2X.......... I am looking at creating a custom data Generator for this data type and have followed this site for the basics: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa833244.aspx This example works if I am creating a string datatype and using it for a nvarchar datatype. What do I need to change to hook this Generator to the XML Datatype? Below are my code files. The string property works for nvarchar. The XElement property does not work for the xml datatype, and the RecordXMLDataGenerator is not listed as an option in the Generator column for the generation plan. CustomDataGenerators: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Tools.DataGenerator; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensibility; using Microsoft.Data.Schema; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Sql; using System.Xml.Linq; namespace CustomDataGenerators { [DatabaseSchemaProviderCompatibility(typeof(SqlDatabaseSchemaProvider))] public class RecordXMLDataGenerator : Generator { private XElement _RecordData; [Output(Description = "Generates string of XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordDataString")] public string RecordDataString { get { return _RecordData.ToString(SaveOptions.None); } } [Output(Description = "Generates XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordData")] public XElement RecordData { get { return _RecordData; } } protected override void OnGenerateNextValues() { base.OnGenerateNextValues(); XElement element = new XElement("Root", new XElement("Children1", 1), new XElement("Children6", 6) ); _RecordData = element; } } } XML Extensions File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <extensions assembly="" version="1" xmlns="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions.xsd"> <extension type="CustomDataGenerators.RecordXMLDataGenerator" assembly="CustomDataGenerators, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=xxxxxxxxxxxx" enabled="true"/> </extensions> Table.sql: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Record] ( id int IDENTITY (1,1) NOT NULL, recordData xml NULL, userId int NULL, test nvarchar(max) NULL, rowver rowversion NULL, CONSTRAINT pk_RecordID PRIMARY KEY (id) )

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  • Send User-Agent through CONNECT and POST with WinHTTP?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    I'm trying to POST to a secure site using WinHttp, and running into a problem where the User-Agent header isn't being sent along with the CONNECT. I am using a lightly-modified code sample from MSDN: HINTERNET hHttpSession = NULL; HINTERNET hConnect = NULL; HINTERNET hRequest = NULL; WINHTTP_AUTOPROXY_OPTIONS AutoProxyOptions; WINHTTP_PROXY_INFO ProxyInfo; DWORD cbProxyInfoSize = sizeof(ProxyInfo); ZeroMemory( &AutoProxyOptions, sizeof(AutoProxyOptions) ); ZeroMemory( &ProxyInfo, sizeof(ProxyInfo) ); hHttpSession = WinHttpOpen(L"WinHTTP AutoProxy Sample/1.0", WINHTTP_ACCESS_TYPE_NO_PROXY, WINHTTP_NO_PROXY_NAME, WINHTTP_NO_PROXY_BYPASS, 0); if(!hHttpSession) goto Exit; hConnect = WinHttpConnect( hHttpSession, L"server.com", INTERNET_DEFAULT_HTTPS_PORT, 0 ); if( !hConnect ) goto Exit; hRequest = WinHttpOpenRequest(hConnect, L"POST", L"/resource", NULL, WINHTTP_NO_REFERER, WINHTTP_DEFAULT_ACCEPT_TYPES, WINHTTP_FLAG_SECURE ); if( !hRequest ) goto Exit; WINHTTP_PROXY_INFO proxyInfo; proxyInfo.dwAccessType = WINHTTP_ACCESS_TYPE_NAMED_PROXY; proxyInfo.lpszProxy = L"192.168.1.2:3199"; proxyInfo.lpszProxyBypass = L""; WinHttpSetOption(hHttpSession, WINHTTP_OPTION_PROXY, &proxyInfo, sizeof(proxyInfo)); WinHttpSetCredentials(hRequest, WINHTTP_AUTH_TARGET_PROXY, WINHTTP_AUTH_SCHEME_BASIC, L"proxyuser", L"proxypass", NULL); if( !WinHttpSendRequest(hRequest, WINHTTP_NO_ADDITIONAL_HEADERS, 0, "content", 7, 7, 0)) { goto Exit; } if(!WinHttpReceiveResponse(hRequest, NULL)) goto Exit; /* handle result */ Exit: if( ProxyInfo.lpszProxy != NULL ) GlobalFree(ProxyInfo.lpszProxy); if( ProxyInfo.lpszProxyBypass != NULL ) GlobalFree( ProxyInfo.lpszProxyBypass ); if( hRequest != NULL ) WinHttpCloseHandle( hRequest ); if( hConnect != NULL ) WinHttpCloseHandle( hConnect ); if( hHttpSession != NULL ) WinHttpCloseHandle( hHttpSession ); What this does is connect to my server through an authenticated proxy at 192.168.1.2:3199, and make a POST. This works, but when I examine the proxy logs the User-Agent string ("WinHTTP AutoProxy Sample/1.0") is not being sent as part of the CONNECT. It is however sent as part of the POST. Could someone please tell me how I can change this code to have the User-Agent header sent during both the CONNECT and POST? Edited to add: we are observing this problem only on Windows 7. If we run the same code on a Windows Vista box, we can see the User-Agent header being sent on CONNECT.

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  • Unable to rename file with c# ftp methods when current user directory is different from root

    - by Agata
    Hello everyone, Remark: due to spam prevention mechanizm I was forced to replace the beginning of the Uris from ftp:// to ftp. I've got following problem. I have to upload file with C# ftp method and afterwards rename it. Easy, right? :) Ok, let's say my ftp host is like this: ftp.contoso.com and after logging in, current directory is set to: users/name So, what I'm trying to achieve is to log in, upload file to current directory as file.ext.tmp and after upload is successful, rename the file to file.ext The whole difficulty is, as I guess, to properly set the request Uri for FtpWebRequest. MSDN states: The URI may be relative or absolute. If the URI is of the form "ftp://contoso.com/%2fpath" (%2f is an escaped '/'), then the URI is absolute, and the current directory is /path. If, however, the URI is of the form "ftp://contoso.com/path", first the .NET Framework logs into the FTP server (using the user name and password set by the Credentials property), then the current directory is set to UserLoginDirectory/path. Ok, so I upload file with the following URI: ftp.contoso.com/file.ext.tmp Great, the file lands where I wanted it to be: in directory "users/name" Now, I want to rename the file, so I create web request with following Uri: ftp.contoso.com/file.ext.tmp and specify rename to parameter as: file.ext and this gives me 550 error: file not found, no permissions, etc. I traced this in Microsoft Network Monitor and it gave me: Command: RNFR, Rename from CommandParameter: /file.ext.tmp Ftp: Response to Port 53724, '550 File /file.ext.tmp not found' as if it was looking for the file in the root directory - not in the current directory. I renamed the file manually using Total Commander and the only difference was that CommandParameter was without the first slash: CommandParameter: file.ext.tmp I'm able to successfully rename the file by supplying following absolute URI: ftp.contoso.com/%2fusers/%2fname/file.ext.tmp but I don't like this approach, since I would have to know the name of current user's directory. It can probably be done by using WebRequestMethods.Ftp.PrintWorkingDirectory, but it adds extra complexity (calling this method to retrieve directory name, then combining the paths to form proper URI). What I don't understand is why the URI ftp.contoso.com/file.ext.tmp is good for upload and not for rename? Am I missing something here? The project is set to .NET 4.0, coded in Visual Studio 2010.

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  • Best practice to handle Parent Form Child Form relation using Presentation Model

    - by Rajarshi
    According to Presentation Model notes by Martin Fowler and also on MSDN documentation about Presentation Model, it is explained that the Presentation Model Class should be unaware of the UI class and similarly Business Model Class should be unaware of the Presentation Model class. The UI should databind extensively to the Presentation Model, the Presentation Model in turn will co-ordinate with one or more Domain/Business Model objects to get the job done. The Presentation Model basically presents the Domain Model data in a way to facilitate maximum data binding in UI, allowing the UI take as less decisions as possible and thus increase testability of Presentation behaviours. This also makes the presentation model class generic, i.e. agnostic of any particular UI technology. Now, consider there is a List form (say CustomerList) and there is another Root form (say Customer) and there is a Use Case of allowing to Edit a Customer from the CustomerList form on a button click. For simplicity of discussion, consider that some actions took place when Customer List is opened from menu (i.e. Customer menu clicked) and the Customer List has been shown from the Menu click event. Now as per the above Use Case, I need to open the Customer Root UI (single Customer) from the Customer List. How do I do that? Build necessary objects (BusinessModel, PresentationModel, UI) in click event of Edit button and call CustomerEdit UI from there? Build the CustomerEdit UI from Presentation Model Class and show UI from presentation model? this can be done in any of the two ways below - a. Create objects in the following sequence DomainModel-PresentationModel-UIForm b. Use Unity.Resolve(); Either ways, Presentation Model is violated as the P model now has to the refer the concrete UI assembly, where CustomerEdit is located. Also the P Model has to refer and use a WinForm directly making it less UI technology agnostic. Even though the violations are in theory and can be ignored, I would still seek the community's opinion about whether I am going wrong direction. Please suggest if there's a better way to call the Child Form from the List (Parent) Form. Rajarshi

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  • Connecting to a WSE 3.0 Web Service From a WCF Client

    - by Dave
    I'm having difficulty connecting to a 3rd party WSE 3.0 web service from a WCF client. I have implemented the custom binding class as indicated in this KB article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms734745.aspx The problem seems to have to do with the security assertion used by the web service - UsernameOverTransport. When I attempt to call a method, I get the following exception: System.InvalidOperationException: The 'WseHttpBinding'.'[namespace]' binding for the 'MyWebServiceSoap'.'[namespace]' contract is configured with an authentication mode that requires transport level integrity and confidentiality. However the transport cannot provide integrity and confidentiality.. It is expecting a username, password, and CN number. In the example code supplied to us by the vendor, these credentials are bundled in a Microsoft.Web.Services3.Security.Tokens.UsernameToken. Here's the example supplied by the vendor: MyWebServiceWse proxy = new MyWebServiceWse(); UsernameToken token = new UsernameToken("Username", "password", PasswordOption.SendPlainText); token.Id = "<supplied CN Number>"; proxy.SetClientCredential(token); proxy.SetPolicy(new Policy(new UsernameOverTransportAssertion(), new RequireActionHeaderAssertion())); MyObject mo = proxy.MyMethod(); This works fine from a 2.0 app w/ WSE 3.0 installed. Here is a snippet of the code from my WCF client: EndpointAddress address = new EndpointAddress(new Uri("<web service uri here>")); WseHttpBinding binding = new WseHttpBinding(); // This is the custom binding I created per the MS KB article binding.SecurityAssertion = WseSecurityAssertion.UsernameOverTransport; binding.EstablishSecurityContext = false; // Not sure about the value of either of these next two binding.RequireDerivedKeys = true; binding.MessageProtectionOrder = MessageProtectionOrder.SignBeforeEncrypt; MembershipServiceSoapClient proxy = new MembershipServiceSoapClient(binding, address); // This is where I believe the problem lies – I can’t seem to properly setup the security credentials the web service is expecting proxy.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "username"; proxy.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "pwd"; // How do I supply the CN number? MyObject mo = proxy.MyMethod(); // this throws the exception I've scoured the web looking for an answer to this question. Some sources get me close (like the MS KB article), but I can't seem to get over the hump. Can someone help me out?

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  • Still getting duplicate token error after calling DuplicateTokenEx for impersonated token

    - by atconway
    I'm trying to return a Sytem.IntPtr from a service call so that the client can use impersonation to call some code. My imersonation code works properly if not passing the token back from a WCF service. I'm not sure why this is not working. I get the following error: "Invalid token for impersonation - it cannot be duplicated." Here is my code that does work except when I try to pass the token back from a service to a WinForm C# client to then impersonate. [DllImport("advapi32.dll", EntryPoint = "DuplicateTokenEx")] public extern static bool DuplicateTokenEx(IntPtr ExistingTokenHandle, uint dwDesiredAccess, ref SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES lpThreadAttributes, int TokenType, int ImpersonationLevel, ref IntPtr DuplicateTokenHandle); private IntPtr tokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); private IntPtr dupeTokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES { public int Length; public IntPtr lpSecurityDescriptor; public bool bInheritHandle; } public enum SecurityImpersonationLevel { SecurityAnonymous = 0, SecurityIdentification = 1, SecurityImpersonation = 2, SecurityDelegation = 3 } public enum TokenType { TokenPrimary = 1, TokenImpersonation = 2 } private const int MAXIMUM_ALLOWED = 0x2000000; [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.Demand, Name = "FullTrust")] public System.IntPtr GetWindowsUserToken(string UserName, string Password, string DomainName) { IntPtr tokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); IntPtr dupTokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); const int LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT = 0; //This parameter causes LogonUser to create a primary token. const int LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE = 2; //Initialize the token handle tokenHandle = IntPtr.Zero; //Call LogonUser to obtain a handle to an access token for credentials supplied. bool returnValue = LogonUser(UserName, DomainName, Password, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref tokenHandle); //Make sure a token was returned; if no populate the ResultCode and throw an exception: int ResultCode = 0; if (false == returnValue) { ResultCode = Marshal.GetLastWin32Error(); throw new System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception(ResultCode, "API call to LogonUser failed with error code : " + ResultCode); } SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES sa = new SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES(); sa.bInheritHandle = true; sa.Length = Marshal.SizeOf(sa); sa.lpSecurityDescriptor = (IntPtr)0; bool dupReturnValue = DuplicateTokenEx(tokenHandle, MAXIMUM_ALLOWED, ref sa, (int)SecurityImpersonationLevel.SecurityDelegation, (int)TokenType.TokenImpersonation, ref dupTokenHandle); int ResultCodeDup = 0; if (false == dupReturnValue) { ResultCodeDup = Marshal.GetLastWin32Error(); throw new System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception(ResultCode, "API call to DuplicateToken failed with error code : " + ResultCode); } //Return the user token return dupTokenHandle; } Any idea if I'm not using the call to DuplicateTokenEx correctly? According to the MSDN documentation I read here I should be able to create a token valid for delegation and use across the context on remote systems. When 'SecurityDelegation' is used, the server process can impersonate the client's security context on remote systems. Thanks!

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  • Visual Web Developer 2008 Express and XHTML 1.1 (not applying)

    - by Mike Valeriano
    Hello. I may be missing something since I'm not used to work with IDEs for web development, so please understand if I'm doing something stupid. I've picked a copy of Beginning ASP.NET 3.5 in C# and VB to try and learn this thing quickly. I'm no HTML guru, but I know something about the DTDs and I want to either use XHTML 1.0 Strict or XHTML 1.1 while learning the ins and outs of ASP.NET. Following the book (just started actually), I'm not having any trouble understanding the concepts, since I have a C# background, but what I don't understand is how VWD goes about applying the schema you select for validation. The book explains that the drop-down list on the toolbar is enough to set this, so that's what I did: I've selected XHTML 1.1 (since there is no 1.0 strict option, what I find really odd) and then started the project. The thing is that the code generated automatically for the Default page had the XHTML 1.0 transitional DTD. Every other page added had the same DTD, even though XHTML 1.1 is still the selected schema in the drop-down list. I decided to test it out and there it was: inserting some text in the design view and then applying a bold formatting just inserted < b tags on the code. Changing color does add a span tag with added CSS though. What I want to know is: if I want strict XHTML (or 1.1) should I just code it manually? Or is there a "fix" for this problem (having a schema selected but not applied by the IDE)? Am I missing something really easy and dumb? I have no problem with coding it manually - I actually prefer doing that. The thing is that I really wanna try this WYSIWYG approach for once, since some developers swear by it. Plus I don't know yet if I'll need special tags for ASP.NET, so I think having them inserted automatically should be the best practice. I couldn't find any similar problems around (MSDN, Google, here), and as far as the book goes (up to the point I've read), this is the expected VWD behavior, which I find suspect at least. Sorry for the long text (and poor English - not my primary language). Thanks in advance for any help/tips.

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  • IDataServiceMetadataProvider - Entities dont show up in $metadata.

    - by TomTom
    I am trying to write our own RIA services provider to expose data from a server that I access via ODBC. I follow th eguidelines set out at http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2010/03/02/creating-a-data-service-provider-part-9-un-typed.aspx I have written our own IDataServiceMetadataProvider / IDataServiceQueryProvider pair and get no errors on what i do. I am putting in a resource set like this: ResourceType tableType = new ResourceType( typeof(Dictionary<string, object>), ResourceTypeKind.EntityType, null, "Martini", table_name, false ); tableType.CanReflectOnInstanceType = false; var prodKey = new ResourceProperty( "Key", ResourcePropertyKind.Key | ResourcePropertyKind.Primitive, ResourceType.GetPrimitiveResourceType(typeof(int)) ); prodKey.CanReflectOnInstanceTypeProperty = false; tableType.AddProperty(prodKey); var prodName = new ResourceProperty( "Name", ResourcePropertyKind.Primitive, ResourceType.GetPrimitiveResourceType(typeof(string)) ); prodName.CanReflectOnInstanceTypeProperty = false; tableType.AddProperty(prodName); _MetaDataProvider.AddResourceType(tableType); _MetaDataProvider.AddResourceSet(new ResourceSet(table_name, tableType)); I see the requests coming in for enumerating the resource sets. I check them there in a breakpoint, and the resource set and the type is there, with all properties. Still, the output I get is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> - <service xml:base="http://localhost:2377/MartiniData.svc/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xmlns:app="http://www.w3.org/2007/app" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2007/app"> - <workspace> <atom:title>Default</atom:title> </workspace> </service> And for the $metadata version: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> - <edmx:Edmx Version="1.0" xmlns:edmx="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/06/edmx"> - <edmx:DataServices xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" m:DataServiceVersion="1.0"> - <Schema Namespace="Martini" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices" xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/05/edm"> <EntityContainer Name="Martini" m:IsDefaultEntityContainer="true" /> </Schema> </edmx:DataServices> </edmx:Edmx> The actual metadata for the types never shows up, no error is shown. pretty frustrating. Anyone any idea?

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  • .NET: understanding web.config in asp.net

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, Does anyone know of a good link to explain how to use the web.config...... For example, i am using forms authentication... and i notice there is a system.web and then it closed /system.web and then below configuration there are additional location tags here is an example, if you ntoice there is an authentication mode=forms with authorization i presume this is the ROOT....... It is also self contained within a system.web .... Below this there are more location= with system.web tags.... I have never really understand what i am actually doing.. I have tried checkign the MSDN documentation but still i don't fully understand up.... Can anyone help? If you notice with my example.... everything is stored in 1 web.config... i thought the standard waas create a standard web.config and then create another web.config in the directory where i wish to protect it..??? <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" strict="false" explicit="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="Login.aspx" defaultUrl="Login.aspx" cookieless="UseCookies" timeout="60"/> </authentication> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Forms"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="Forms/Seguridad"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow roles="Administrador"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location>

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  • Beginner - C# iteration through directory to produce a file list

    - by dassouki
    The end goal is to have some form of a data structure that stores a hierarchal structure of a directory to be stored in a txt file. I'm using the following code and so far, and I'm struggling with combining dirs, subdirs, and files. /// <summary> /// code based on http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb513869.aspx /// </summary> /// <param name="strFolder"></param> public static void TraverseTree ( string strFolder ) { // Data structure to hold names of subfolders to be // examined for files. Stack<string> dirs = new Stack<string>( 20 ); if ( !System.IO.Directory.Exists( strFolder ) ) { throw new ArgumentException(); } dirs.Push( strFolder ); while ( dirs.Count > 0 ) { string currentDir = dirs.Pop(); string[] subDirs; try { subDirs = System.IO.Directory.GetDirectories( currentDir ); } catch ( UnauthorizedAccessException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } catch ( System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } string[] files = null; try { files = System.IO.Directory.GetFiles( currentDir ); } catch ( UnauthorizedAccessException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } catch ( System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } // Perform the required action on each file here. // Modify this block to perform your required task. /* foreach ( string file in files ) { try { // Perform whatever action is required in your scenario. System.IO.FileInfo fi = new System.IO.FileInfo( file ); Console.WriteLine( "{0}: {1}, {2}", fi.Name, fi.Length, fi.CreationTime ); } catch ( System.IO.FileNotFoundException e ) { // If file was deleted by a separate application // or thread since the call to TraverseTree() // then just continue. MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } } */ // Push the subdirectories onto the stack for traversal. // This could also be done before handing the files. foreach ( string str in subDirs ) dirs.Push( str ); foreach ( string str in files ) MessageBox.Show( str ); }

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  • Releasing an OLE IStorage file handle in C#

    - by Bernard Darnton
    I'm trying to embed a PDF file into a Word document using the OLE technique described here: http://blogs.msdn.com/brian_jones/archive/2009/07/21/embedding-any-file-type-like-pdf-in-an-open-xml-file.aspx I've tried to implement to C++ code provided in C# so that the whole project's in one place and am almost there except for one roadblock. When I try to feed the generated OLE object binary data into the Word document I get an IOException. IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Wherever\Whatever.pdf.bin' because it is being used by another process. There is a file handle open the .bin file and I don't know how to get rid of it. I don't know a huge amount about COM - I'm winging it here - and I don't know where the file handle is or how to release it. Here's what my C#-ised code looks like. What am I missing? public void ExportOleFile(string oleOutputFileName, string emfOutputFileName) { OLE32.IStorage storage; var result = OLE32.StgCreateStorageEx( oleOutputFileName, OLE32.STGM.STGM_READWRITE | OLE32.STGM.STGM_SHARE_EXCLUSIVE | OLE32.STGM.STGM_CREATE | OLE32.STGM.STGM_TRANSACTED, OLE32.STGFMT.STGFMT_DOCFILE, 0, IntPtr.Zero, IntPtr.Zero, ref OLE32.IID_IStorage, out storage ); var CLSID_NULL = Guid.Empty; OLE32.IOleObject pOle; result = OLE32.OleCreateFromFile( ref CLSID_NULL, _inputFileName, ref OLE32.IID_IOleObject, OLE32.OLERENDER.OLERENDER_NONE, IntPtr.Zero, null, storage, out pOle ); result = OLE32.OleRun(pOle); IntPtr unknownFromOle = Marshal.GetIUnknownForObject(pOle); IntPtr unknownForDataObj; Marshal.QueryInterface(unknownFromOle, ref OLE32.IID_IDataObject, out unknownForDataObj); var pdo = Marshal.GetObjectForIUnknown(unknownForDataObj) as IDataObject; var fetc = new FORMATETC(); fetc.cfFormat = (short)OLE32.CLIPFORMAT.CF_ENHMETAFILE; fetc.dwAspect = DVASPECT.DVASPECT_CONTENT; fetc.lindex = -1; fetc.ptd = IntPtr.Zero; fetc.tymed = TYMED.TYMED_ENHMF; var stgm = new STGMEDIUM(); stgm.unionmember = IntPtr.Zero; stgm.tymed = TYMED.TYMED_ENHMF; pdo.GetData(ref fetc, out stgm); var hemf = GDI32.CopyEnhMetaFile(stgm.unionmember, emfOutputFileName); storage.Commit((int)OLE32.STGC.STGC_DEFAULT); pOle.Close(0); GDI32.DeleteEnhMetaFile(stgm.unionmember); GDI32.DeleteEnhMetaFile(hemf); }

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  • Is it possible to change HANDLE that has been opened for synchronous I/O to be opened for asynchrono

    - by Martin Dobšík
    Dear all, Most of my daily programming work in Windows is nowadays around I/O operations of all kind (pipes, consoles, files, sockets, ...). I am well aware of different methods of reading and writing from/to different kinds of handles (Synchronous, asynchronous waiting for completion on events, waiting on file HANDLEs, I/O completion ports, and alertable I/O). We use many of those. For some of our applications it would be very useful to have only one way to treat all handles. I mean, the program may not know, what kind of handle it has received and we would like to use, let's say, I/O completion ports for all. So first I would ask: Let's assume I have a handle: HANDLE h; which has been received by my process for I/O from somewhere. Is there any easy and reliable way to find out what flags it has been created with? The main flag in question is FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. The only way known to me so far, is to try to register such handle into I/O completion port (using CreateIoCompletionPort()). If that succeeds the handle has been created with FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. But then only I/O completion port must be used, as the handle can not be unregistered from it without closing the HANDLE h itself. Providing there is an easy a way to determine presence of FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, there would come my second question: Is there any way how to add such flag to already existing handle? That would make a handle that has been originally open for synchronous operations to be open for asynchronous. Would there be a way how to create opposite (remove the FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED to create synchronous handle from asynchronous)? I have not found any direct way after reading through MSDN and googling a lot. Would there be at least some trick that could do the same? Like re-creating the handle in same way using CreateFile() function or something similar? Something even partly documented or not documented at all? The main place where I would need this, is to determine the the way (or change the way) process should read/write from handles sent to it by third party applications. We can not control how third party products create their handles. Dear Windows gurus: help please! With regards Martin

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • Unselect Databound Combobox Winforms .NET

    - by joedotnot
    The problem: combobox is databound to a DataView, first item in the dataview is DataRowView whose fields are DBNull.Value; Combo DropdownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDownList Loads fine, displays fine, selects fine, problem is to Unselect via code. Setting the SelectedIndex to 0 throws an exception. (Setting to -1 is a no-no as per msdn doco that says dont set SelectedIndex=-1 if databound) So how to unselect without throwing an exception ? For now i wrapped it into a try/catch to just ignore the error! EDIT: As asked by Hubeza, i worked on sample code to post. Did a stripped down version of the original code in C# (original is in VB.NET) and could NOT reproduce it either. Converted to VB.NET and could NOT reproduce it either ! In other words, SelectedIndex = 0 does work in the stripped down version! Currently further investigating what else could be wrong with the original code. EDIT2: Case Closed. Call me a stupid fool if you like, and apologies for wasting anyone's time - The error was originating from MyComboBox_SelectedIndexChanged event, which i neglected to check ! May as well post the sample in case anyone finds useful. private void LoadComboMethod() { DataTable dtFruit = new DataTable("FruitTable"); //define columns DataColumn colID = new DataColumn(); colID.DataType = typeof(Int32); //VB.NET GetType(Int32) colID.ColumnName = "ID"; DataColumn colDesc = new DataColumn(); colDesc.DataType = typeof(String); colDesc.ColumnName = "Description"; //add columns to table dtFruit.Columns.AddRange(new DataColumn[] { colID, colDesc }); //add rows DataRow row = dtFruit.NewRow(); row[colID] = 1; row[colDesc] = "Apples"; dtFruit.Rows.Add(row); row = dtFruit.NewRow(); row[colID] = 1; row[colDesc] = "Bananas"; dtFruit.Rows.Add(row); row = dtFruit.NewRow(); row[colID] = 1; row[colDesc] = "Oranges"; dtFruit.Rows.Add(row); //add extra blank row. DataRowView drv = dtFruit.DefaultView.AddNew(); drv.EndEdit(); //Bind combo box DataView dv = new DataView(dtFruit); dv.Sort = "ID ASC"; //ensure blank item on top cboFruit.DataSource = dv; cboFruit.DisplayMember = "Description"; cboFruit.ValueMember = "ID"; } private void UnselectComboMethod() { if (cboFruit.SelectedIndex > 0) { cboFruit.SelectedIndex = 0; } else { MessageBox.Show("no fruit selected"); } }

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  • System.Net.Dns.GetHostAddresses("")

    - by dbasnett
    Yesterday s**ked, and today ain't (sic) looking better. I have an application I have been working on and it can be slow to start when my ISP is down because of DNS. My ISP was down for 3 hours yesterday, so I didn't think much about this piece of code I had added, until I found that it is always slow to start. This code is supposed to return your IP address and my reading of the link suggests that should be immediate, but it isn't, at least on my machine. Oh, and yesterday before the internet went down, I upgraded (oymoron) to XP SP3, and have had other problems. So my questions / request: 1. Am I doing this right? 2. If you run this on your machine does it take 39 seconds to return your IP address? It does on mine. One other note, I did a packet capture and the first request did NOT go on the wire, but the second did, and was answered quickly. So the question is what happened in XP SP3 that I am missing, besides a brain. One last note. If I resolve a FQDN all is well. Public Class Form1 'http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.net.dns.gethostaddresses.aspx ' 'excerpt 'The GetHostAddresses method queries a DNS server 'for the IP addresses associated with a host name. ' 'If hostNameOrAddress is an IP address, this address 'is returned without querying the DNS server. ' 'When an empty string is passed as the host name, 'this method returns the IPv4 addresses of the local host Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim stpw As New Stopwatch stpw.Reset() stpw.Start() 'originally Dns.GetHostEntry, but slow also Dim myIPs() As System.Net.IPAddress = System.Net.Dns.GetHostAddresses("") stpw.Stop() Debug.WriteLine("'" & stpw.Elapsed.TotalSeconds) If myIPs.Length > 0 Then Debug.WriteLine("'" & myIPs(0).ToString) 'debug '39.8990525 '192.168.1.2 stpw.Reset() stpw.Start() 'originally Dns.GetHostEntry, but slow also myIPs = System.Net.Dns.GetHostAddresses("www.vbforums.com") stpw.Stop() Debug.WriteLine("'" & stpw.Elapsed.TotalSeconds) If myIPs.Length > 0 Then Debug.WriteLine("'" & myIPs(0).ToString) 'debug '0.042212 '63.236.73.220 End Sub End Class

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  • WMI: Editing the Registry Remotely

    - by Quanta
    I'm trying to use the following code (poorly written, but it's just a proof of concept) to edit the registry of a computer on a domain. I have a domain account, and I've verified that the domain admin group is present in the local admin group on the machines I'm attempting to affect. I've connected to these other machines to perform other administrative type tasks, so I'm sure that I have administrative privileges on these hosts. All of StdRegProv's "get" methods work fine (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa393664%28VS.85%29.aspx) but the "set" or "create" methods as well as check access all return "5" which is "Error_Access_Denied" according to winerror.h. So there's the problem: why do I get access denied when attempting to modify the registry? If anyone can help me figure this out, you'd have my utmost appreciation! I almost forgot, when I fire up Visual Studio in admin mode on my local machine and run the code against the local machine, it works flawlessly. If I don't start in admin mode on the local machine, the code fails, so I suspect there's a UAC problem maybe? using System; using System.Management; public class EditRemoteRegistry { public static void Main(string[] args) { ConnectionOptions options = new ConnectionOptions(); options.EnablePrivileges = true; options.Impersonation = ImpersonationLevel.Impersonate; options.Password = "password goes here"; //options.Authority = "my company's domain"; //options.Username = "Admin username"; ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope("\\\\arbitraryhost\\root\\default", options); scope.Connect(); ManagementClass mc = new ManagementClass("StdRegProv"); ManagementBaseObject inParams = mc.GetMethodParameters("CreateKey"); inParams["hDefKey"] = (UInt32)2147483650; inParams["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mc.InvokeMethod("CreateKey", inParams, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("CreateKey Method returned " + outParams["returnValue"]); //This chunk works fine ManagementBaseObject inParams5 = mc.GetMethodParameters("GetDWORDValue"); inParams5["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams5["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams5["sValueName"] = "testDWORDvalue"; ManagementBaseObject outParams5 = mc.InvokeMethod("GetDWORDValue", inParams5, null); Console.WriteLine("GetDWORDValue returned " + (UInt32)outParams5["returnValue"] + " "); Console.WriteLine((UInt32)outParams5["uValue"]); ManagementBaseObject inParams6 = mc.GetMethodParameters("SetStringValue"); inParams6["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams6["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams6["sValueName"] = "TestStringValue"; inParams6["sValue"] = "Hello World!"; ManagementBaseObject outParams6 = mc.InvokeMethod("SetStringValue", inParams6, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("SetStringValue returned " + outParams6["returnValue"]); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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  • ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

    - by John
    I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

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  • Verify Authenticode signature as being from our company for automatic updater

    - by James Johnston
    I am implementing an automatic update feature and need some advice on how to do this securely using best practices. I would like to use the downloaded file's Authenticode signature to verify that it is safe to run (i.e. originates from our company and hasn't been tampered with). My question is very similar to question #2008519. The bottom-line question: what's the best, most secure way to check Authenticode signatures for an automatic update feature? What fields in the certificate should be checked? Requirements being: (1) check signature is valid, (2) check it's my signature, (3) old clients can still update when my certificate expires and I get a new one. Here's some background information / ideas from my research: I believe this could be broken into two steps: Verify that the signature is valid. I believe this should be easy using WinVerifyTrust as outlined in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa382384(VS.85).aspx - I don't expect problems here. Verify that the signature corresponds to our company, and not another company. This seems to be a more difficult question to answer: One possibility is to check some of the strings in the signature. Could be obtained via code at MS KB article #323809, but this article doesn't make recommendations on what fields should be checked for this type of application (or any other, for that matter). Question #1072540 also illustrates how to get some certificate info, but again doesn't recommend what fields to actually check. My concern is that the strings might not be the best check: what if another person is able to obtain a certificate with the same name, for example? Or if there's a valid reason for us to change the strings in the future? The person at question #2008519 has a very similar requirement. His need for a "TrustedByUs" function is identical to mine. However, he goes about doing the check by comparing public keys. While this would work in the short-term, it seems like it won't work for an automatic update feature. This is because code signing certificates are only valid for 2 - 3 years max. Therefore, in the future, when we buy a new certificate in 2 years, the old clients wouldn't be able to update any more due to the change in public key.

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  • IE and Content-disposition inline vs. extension-token

    - by pinkgothic
    Preamble So IE does Mime-Type sniffing. That part's old news. Suggestions of how to combat it tend to be along the lines of 'supply a content-type IE trusts' (i.e. anything that isn't text/plain or application/octet-stream) or 'add extraneous data at the start of the file that is definitely of the type you're serving'. Now, I'm working on an application that has to allow message attachments (like in e-mails), and we want to close up XSS vectors. IE's mime sniffing is one of those vectors - a text/plain file with html content will trigger as html. Recoding isn't an option at this point, changing the attachments the user has provided can only happen if there is absolutely no doubt about the maliciousness of the file - and someone might want to send HTML as text. Now, Microsoft's MSDN article implies the situation might be easier to fix than advertised: If Internet Explorer knows the Content-Type specified and there is no Content-Disposition data, Internet Explorer performs a "MIME sniff," [...] Great! Except I don't have IE nor current means to reliably install it (I realise this is a fairly sad state for a webdeveloper to be in, I hope to fix this soon) and this is grey theory that I can't quite seem to get confirmed one way or the other. Local sources say that line is hogwash - IE will mime sniff anything that is Content-Disposition: inline / <default> and not specific enough for its tastes in -Type. But what about x-* ('extension-token' in the RFC)? Trying to google for how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token> hasn't yielded anything (though I may just be doing it wrong, my understanding of Google is seriously slipping lately). I found one question that looked promising, but turned out to be a misunderstanding on side of the thread author, meaning that the train of thought was never actually addressed there. Question(s) Does IE really Mime sniff if you expressly pass Content-Disposition: inline? If so: Does anyone here know how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token>? If they do this in a way that is for my purposes benign, by presuming it to be synonymous with the default (effectively 'inline', though I hear it's not defined anywhere?), is it specific enough for IE not to Mime sniff? Or am I actually shooting myself in the foot by thinking of pursuing this avenue?

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