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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Posted date field comes in as 1/1/0001

    - by engil
    Just started working with .NET and MVC(1). I'm having a problem wherein in my add action the entered date for some reason ends up as 1/1/0001 instead of what is entered thus causing a date overflow. In my model, this field ("Added") is is of type datetime and does not allow nulls. In my controller I have: public ActionResult Add() { Instance instance = new Instance() { Added = DateTime.Now, Active = true }; return View(instance); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(Instance instance) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { System.Diagnostics.Trace.Write("test"); instanceRepository.Add(instance); instanceRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = instance.InstanceID }); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(instance.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(instance); } And in my view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Added) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Added,String.Format("{0:g}",Model.Added))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Added) %> When I first go to Instances/Add the default value is set correctly, however as soon as I submit the date turns into 1/1/0001 (from my understanding this indicates that it was either null or in an unrecognizable format) When I debug and palce a watch on Request.Form I see the date coming in encoded ie Request.Form {Added=4%2f9%2f2010+8%3a24%3a39+AM} - is this an issue? I know its probably not enough information to make a conlusive determination on why this is failing, but if someone could provide some good debugging tips on how to determine where the submitted date is getting munged I'd really appreciate it.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

    - by Rupa
    Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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  • ASP.NET ListView, custom DataSources, and editing items

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    The MSDN walkthroughs provide a number of examples where you can drag a DataSource from the toolbox, run through some simple configuration steps, then drag a ListView onto the screen, point it at the DataSource, and hey - you've got full table editing. Now I'm trying to write my own DataSource class (a class that implements System.Web.UI.IDataSource) and my own DataSourceView class. I now assign an instance of this custom DataSource class to the ListView.DataSource propery. The display of all the items is working well. However, updating, inserting and deleting just is not working. I'm overriding every function I can in my DataSourceView class, and they just aren't being called. This is such a huge topic, I'll focus this question on one simple example: When you press the "Edit" button (the button inside the ItemTemplate with a CommandName of "Edit", you expect the ItemTemplate to be replaced by an EditItemTemplate. This did not happen. The only way I could get it to happen was to handle the onitemediting event. protected void _listViewPublicHolidays_ItemEditing(object sender, ListViewEditEventArgs e) { _listViewPublicHolidays.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; _listViewPublicHolidays.DataBind(); } This is hardly a problem, but how come I had to do it at all? In the MSDN walkthroughs where I attach a ListView to a LinqDataSource, this code doesn't have to be written. Can someone who's been here before hazard a guess as to what would be different or missing in my custom datasource?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Membership, Get new UserID

    - by Vishal Bharakhda
    I am trying to register a new user and also understand how to get the new userID so i can start creating my own user tables with a userID mapping to the asp.net membership user table. Below is my code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Register(string userName, string email, string position, string password, string confirmPassword) { ViewData["PasswordLength"] = MembershipService.MinPasswordLength; ViewData["position"] = new SelectList(GetDeveloperPositionList()); if (ValidateRegistration(userName, email, position, password, confirmPassword)) { // Attempt to register the user MembershipCreateStatus createStatus = MembershipService.CreateUser(userName, password, email); if (createStatus == MembershipCreateStatus.Success) { FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, false /* createPersistentCookie */); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("_FORM", ErrorCodeToString(createStatus)); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(); } I've done some research and many sites inform me to use Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; but this throws an error as Membership is NULL. I placed this line of code just above "return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home");" within the if statement. Please can someone advise me on this... Thanks in advance

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  • How to implement a download for dynamic files in asp.net with masterpages

    - by Tim
    Hello, the title says it all. I have seen some similar questions on SO like this or this, but either i have overlooked something or my requirement is different, neither works. My situation is following: i have a Masterpage one of its contentpage is called MasterData.aspx MasterData has an asp.net ajax tabcontainer control with one usercontrol in every tabpanel these usercontrols(f.e. MD_Customer.ascx)hold the main content(like a normal page) they all have GridViews in it and i want to provide an Excel-Export-Button What i've tried is is to use an iframe like here. But the function that adds the iframe to the document gets never called and therefore i never see the save-as-dialog. Maybe this is caused by using a MasterPage. Does somebody has an idea on how to provide a button in an UpdatePanel that causes an async postback, so that i can generate a CSV dynamically in codebehind and write it to the response? Thank you in advance. aspx-markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdGridInfo" runat="server" > <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LblInfo" Font-Underline="false" runat="server" CssClass="content" ></asp:Label>&nbsp;&nbsp; <asp:ImageButton ToolTip="export to Excel" style="vertical-align:bottom" ID="BtnExcelExport" ImageUrl="~/images/excel2007logo.png" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and the BtnExportExcel codebehind handler(of course it cannot work to write the csv to the response of this page): Private Sub BtnExcelExport_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.ImageClickEventArgs) Handles BtnExcelExport.Click Dim csv As String = tableToCsv(DirectCast(Me.GridSource, DataTable)) Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment; filename=RuleConfigurationFile.csv") Response.ContentType = "application/octet-stream" Response.Write(csv) Response.End() End Sub

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  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • how to get this value on method post using asp.net mvc

    - by kumar
    I have a lable in the view <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CDC.ITT.Info.StudentBE>" %> <label for="FollowupDate"> Follow-up: <span><input type="text" id="exc-flwup" name="fdate" /></span> </label> $("input[id^='exc-flwup']").datepicker({ duration: '', showTime: true, constrainInput: true, stepMinutes: 30, stepHours: 1, altTimeField: '', time24h: true, minDate: 0 }); when I click on the input field I am getting popupcalender to select the date. My method post is <% using (Html.BeginForm("Update", "home", FormMethod.Post, new { @id = "exc-"})) { %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> then Followupdate user is goign to select the perticular date he wants.. when this method post to the method.. public ActionResult Update(StudentBE e) { return View(); } this e should have the date value but I am not able to see the date selected there.. is there anything wrong I am doing here? thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

    - by Idsa
    Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

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  • Retaining parameters in ASP.NET MVC

    - by MapDot
    Many MVC frameworks (e.g. PHP's Zend Framework) have a way of providing basic state management through URLs. The basic principle is this: Any parameters that were not explicitly modified or un-set get copied into every URL For instance, consider a listing with pagination. You'll have the order, direction and page number passed as URL parameters. You may also have a couple of filters. Changing the value of a filter should not alter the sort order. ASP.net MVC seems to remember your controller and action by default: <%: Html.RouteLink("Next", "MyRoute", new {id = next.ItemId}) %> This will not re-set your action or controller. However, it does seem to forget all other parameters. The same is true of ActionLink. Parameters that get set earlier on in your URL seem to get retained as well. Is there a way to make it retain more than that? For instance, this does not seem to affect any of the links being generated: RouteValues.RouteData.Values["showDeleted"] = true;

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  • How can I serialize this .NET Collection item?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to xml serialize a POCO view data class into xml. It serializes, but incorrectly generates some xml. eg. (current result .. not the one I'm after) <ReviewListViewData> <reviews> <review>....</review> ... </reviews> </ReviewListViewData> I'm trying to get (notice how I've removed the bad root node?) ... <reviews> <review>....</review> ... </reviews> Class is defined as... public class ReviewListViewData { [XmlArray("reviews")] [XmlArrayItem("review")] public ReviewViewData[] Reviews { get; set; } } and here's a sample way it's called in an ASP.NET MVC ActionMethod :- var reviewListViewData = GetReviewListViewData(...); return XmlResult(reviewListViewData); // (XmlResult referenced from MVCContrib). anyone have any ideas, please?

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  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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  • ASP.Net MVC: Change Routes dynamically

    - by Frank
    Hi, usually, when I look at a ASP.Net MVC application, the Route table gets configured at startup and is not touched ever after. I have a couple of questions on that but they are closely related to each other: Is it possible to change the route table at runtime? How would/should I avoid threading issues? Is there maybe a better way to provide a dynamic URL? I know that IDs etc. can appear in the URL but can't see how this could be applicable in what I want to achieve. How can I avoid that, even though I have the default controller/action route defined, that default route doesn't work for a specific combination, e.g. the "Post" action on the "Comments" controller is not available through the default route? Background: Comment Spammers usually grab the posting URL from the website and then don't bother to go through the website anymore to do their automated spamming. If I regularly modify my post URL to some random one, spammers would have to go back to the site and find the correct post URL to try spamming. If that URL changes constantly I'd think that that could make the spammers' work more tedious, which should usually mean that they give up on the affected URL.

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  • Javascript/Jquery pop-up window in Asp.Net MVC4

    - by Mark
    Below I have a "button" (just a span with an icon) that creates a pop-up view of a div in my application to allow users to compare information in seperate windows. However, I get and Asp.Net Error as follows: **Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Requested URL: /Home/[object Object]** Does anyone have an Idea of why this is happending? Below is my code: <div class="module_actions"> <div class="actions"> <span class="icon-expand2 pop-out"></span> </div> </div> <script> $(document).ajaxSuccess(function () { var Clone = $(".pop-out").click(function () { $(this).parents(".module").clone().appendTo("#NewWindow"); }); $(".pop-out").click(function popitup(url) { LeftPosition = (screen.width) ? (screen.width - 400) / 1 : 0; TopPosition = (screen.height) ? (screen.height - 700) / 1 : 0; var sheight = (screen.height) * 0.5; var swidth = (screen.width) * 0.5; settings = 'height=' + sheight + ',width=' + swidth + ',top=' + TopPosition + ',left=' + LeftPosition + ',scrollbars=yes,resizable=yes,toolbar=no,status=no,menu=no, directories=no,titlebar=no,location=no,addressbar=no' newwindow = window.open(url, '/Index', settings); if (window.focus) { newwindow.focus() } return false; }); });

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  • how to remove IEnemurable in asp.net mvc

    - by kumar
    I have a view with <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<StudentInfo>>" %> in my view if i have IEnumerable I can do foreach.. but before that i need to access the properties for StudnetInfo.. StudentInfo clas having Public class StudentInfo { public Studentdetails sd {get;set;} public classDetails cd {get;set;} } <% foreach(var e in Model){%> <div> <%=Html.DisplayFor(x=>e.StdentEdit) %> <div> <span> <% Html.RenderAction("Details", "Home", new { @t = e }); %> </span> </div> </div> <% } %> please can anybody help me out.. how to get the properties of StudentInfo above the foreach loop... if i remove IEnemurable I can do that.. but i need to have Ienemurable for RenderAction.. is there any other way we can achieve this? thanks

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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • vCenter appliance won't use mail relay server

    - by Safado
    tl;dr: - sendmail is configured to use a relay server but still insists on using 127.0.01 as the relay, which results in mail not being sent. We have the open source vCenter appliance (v 5.0) managing our ESXi cluster. When connected to it via vSphere Client, you can configure the SMTP relay server to use by going to Administration > vCenter Server Settings > MAIL. There you can set the SMTP Server value. I looked through their documentation and also confirmed on the phone with support that all you have to do to configure mail is to put in the relay IP or fqdn in that box and hit OK. Well, I had done that and mail still wasn't sending. So I SSH into the server (which is SuSE) and look at /var/log/mail and it looks like it's trying to relay the email through 127.0.0.1 and it's rejecting it. So looking through the config files, I see there's /etc/sendmail.cf and /etc/mail/submit.cf. You can configure items in /etc/sysconfig/sendmail and run SuSEconfig --module sendmail to generate those to .cf files based on what's in /etc/sysconfig/sendmail. So playing around, I see that when you set the SMTP Server value in the vCenter gui, all that it does is change the "DS" line in /etc/mail/submit.cf to have DS[myrelayserver.com]. Looking on the internet, it would appear that the DS line is really the only thing you need to change in order to use a relay server. I got on the phone with VMWare support and spent 2 hours trying to modify ANY setting that had anything to do with relays and we couldn't get it to NOT use 127.0.0.1 as the relay. Just to note, any time we made any sort of configuration change, we restarted the sendmail service. Does anyone know whats going on? Have any ideas on how I can fix this?

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  • Gmail notification in Ubuntu's native mail icon.

    - by D Connors
    So, new Ubuntu 10.04 up and running. Playing with the interface eventually got me curious about something. Up until now, I've only used the chat and broadcasting functionalities of the mail icon in Ubuntu's top panel, mostly because I take care of my mail on firefox so I don't need one more program (empathy) running on my poor little netbook. I'm currenty using gnome-gmail to set gmail as my default mail client in Ubuntu. But, when I click on the "Set up mail" item, inside the Panel's Mail icon, it simply brings up empathy. My question is: Is it possible (in any way whatsoever) to have my gmail notifications up there, configured so that clicking it will just take me to a gmail tab in Firefox? (instead of opening up empathy) This is really just some frivolous interest of mine, nothing important. Right now I'm using check-gmail to notify me of new mail, but the panel is really cramped up on my netbook, so it'd be nice to free up some room by getting rid of check-gmail and only using Ubuntu's mail icon. Ok, hope I was clear enough.

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  • How to send mail with PHP [migrated]

    - by roth66
    My litle problem is about mail() function in PHP, it doesnt want to send emails, to my local server, or anywhere else. I don't think that function was supposed to send mail to adresses like: [email protected]; So I've installed a mail server: hmailserver, I installed a client: dream-mail; I installed sendmaill.exe; (actually unzipped it in a folder, then in php.ini set the sendmail_path to point to it) After countless trials and errors, it still doesn't work. my system would comprise in an Apache server 2.2, and PHP (last version I think 5.3 or somehing), running on windows. And now for avoiding the usual questions (Did you make rules in your firewall etc etc), I guess I should mention, that there arent any connectivity issues, everything is set to "local" (localhost), port 25, 110, 143, are all opened, And, after a few days of fiddling with my brand new mail-server, I manage to make it work. THe Dream-mail client, has a test, trough which it would test its connections, and according to it, the SMTP AND POP3 connections are all successful, it even sends an email, for testing. SO ya, it would work. The problem, remains: PHP mail funcion. And I really need it, since on my website there's a contact form, and right now is useless. I've also checked the form it self, and seems to be alright.

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  • Setting Outlook Web Access as default mail client in Firefox

    - by Barton Chittenden
    The company that I work for is nice enough to let me use Linux for work, but they use Outlook. I've been using Outlook Web Access (OWA) as my mail client, which is more or less acceptable. The only problem is that whenever I click on a mailto link or use the "Send Link" menu option in firefox, I'm prompted to use evolution. Since connecting to an exchange server through evolution seems to be sketchy at best, I would like to set OWA as my default mail client. I'm using Firefox 3.6.13 Here's what I've found so far: Default mail client can be found at Edit Menu -> Preferences -> Applications Tab -> mailto When I click on the drop down menu, one of the options is "Application Details" This shows two options by default: Google Yahoo! Mail Each of these shows how to launch that service. For Gmail: https://mail.google.com/mail/?extsrc=mailto&url=%s For Yahoo!: http://compose.mail.yahoo.com/?To=%s I presume that Outlook Web Access has something similar. Based on the googling that I've done so far, I think that this should look something like this: https://<server name>/owa/?cmd=compose... A little experimentation on my part shows that the following will compose a message: https://<email server>/owa/?ae=Item&a=New&t=IPM.Note but I still don't know how to specify recipient, subject or body of the email to be composed... What I want to know is a) does anyone know the URL parameters to compose a mailto in Outlook Web Access, including subject, recipient and body? else b) can someone give me a decent pointer for where to get this information?

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  • Postfix "mail-to-script" pipe only delivers empty messages

    - by user68202
    i have a problem here. I want that a incoming email is piped to a php script in the system through postfix. My System is running with ispconfig 3, postfix and dovecot (< virtual mailbox users are saved in mysql). I looked already into this one: How to configure postfix to pipe all incoming email to a script? ... the script is executed, but no "message" is delivered to the script. My setup so far: In ISPConfig 3 i have set up the following email route: Active Server Domain Transport Sort by Yes example.com pipe.example.com piper: 5 excerpt from my postfix master.cf: piper unix - n n - - pipe user=piper:piper directory=/home/piper argv=php -q /home/piper/mail.php so far it is working great (mail sent to [email protected]) (mail.log): Jun 21 16:07:11 example postfix/pipe[10948]: 235CF7613E2: to=<[email protected]>, relay=piper, delay=0.04, delays=0.01/0.01/0/0.02, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (delivered via piper service) ... and no errors in mail.err the mail.php is sucessfully executed (its chmod 777 and chown'ed to piper), but creates a empty .txt file (normally it should contain the email message): -rw------- 1 piper piper 0 Jun 21 16:07 mailtext_1340287631.txt the mail.php script ive used, is the one from http://www.email2php.com/HowItWorks if i use their (commercial) service to pipe an email to the mail.php (in a apache2 environment) through a provided "pipe-email", the message is saved sucessfully and complete. But as you can see, i dont want to use external services. -rw-r--r-- 1 web2 client0 1959 Jun 21 16:19 mailtext_1340288377.txt So, whats wrong here? I think it has something to do with the "delivering configuration" in my system...

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  • postfix not sending domain mail to mx

    - by orlandoresorts
    I'm trying to get postfix to forward email to my domain which is hosted by gmail. As I don't have any users on my server nor do I want to. Here's how I have things set up.. LEt's say you and I have a domain called mcdonalds.com the registrar has mcdonalds.com MX records pointing to gmail. (everything works for like a year) Now we set up a server to host a website. Then we create a mail account called [email protected] and send mail locally from the server using roundcube. This works. We can send mail to cnn.com we can send mail to serverfault.com we can email any/everyone. BUT we cannot send mail to our own domain mcdonalds.com So I cannot email [email protected] I cannot email [email protected] I cannot email [email protected] It gives the error: SMTP Error (450): Failed to add recipient "[email protected]" (4.1.1 : Recipient address rejected: User unknown in virtual mailbox table). I'm guessing because it is looking at the local server to find the mailbox and it doesn't exist. So how to I tell the server for any mail going to mcdonalds.com for [email protected] to send to my external mail server and NOT to lookup on the local www box we set up with zpanel. Any ideas?

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  • Mail server DNS failed to resolved by Mac clients

    - by Concordus Applications
    We have two internal DNS servers. One is located on a linux server box and the other is the router's DNS management. We set the linux box as primary DNS via DHCP and the router as secondary. We have a few Mac clients that are accessing our internal mail server (hostnamed "mail" internally). When using IMAP or SMTP against the mail server internally, the mac boxes will sometimes fail to locate the server. If I use NSLOOKUP I can see that "mail" is pointed to the correct IP address and is being resolved via the correct DNS server, but if I ping "mail" it fails. ~ (bash)$ nslookup mail Server: 254.254.254.206 Address: 254.254.254.206#53 Name: mail.example.com Address: 254.254.254.205 Note: I replaced our actual internal IP address with 254.254.254.* If I wait a few minutes (3-5 minutes), somehow it resolves itself and sends successfully. This happens multiple times a day. The /etc/hosts file on the mac boxes is the default config. ## # Host Database # # localhost is used to configure the loopback interface # when the system is booting. Do not change this entry. ## 127.0.0.1 localhost 255.255.255.255 broadcasthost ::1 localhost fe80::1%lo0 localhost Is there something about Mac clients I should know to prevent this failed DNS resolution? Client boxes are: OSX 10.7.4, 8GB RAM, i5 MacBooks Server is: Ubuntu 12.04 Server

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