Search Results

Search found 2592 results on 104 pages for 'backbone routing'.

Page 13/104 | < Previous Page | 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20  | Next Page >

  • an asp.net routing issue

    - by Adam Right
    my route implementation on Global.asax protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.intRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } void intRoutes(RouteCollection Rts) { Rts.MapPageRoute("search", "{language}/{page}", "~/search.aspx"); Rts.MapPageRoute("category", "{language}/{name}/{no}/{categoryname}", "~/category.aspx"); Rts.MapPageRoute("product", "{language}/{name}/{no}/{productname}", "~/product.aspx"); } the problem is; if i use product routing on a hyperlink, like as follows; <asp:HyperLink ID="hyProduct" NavigateUrl='<%#HttpUtility.UrlDecode(((Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler).GetRouteUrl("product", new{ language=getUIFromHelper(),name=getNameFromHelper(),no=Eval("code"),productname=getProductNameFromHelper(Eval("name"))})) %>' runat="server" Text="something" /> everything goes fine, the link is written as expected like /en/products/06.008.001.150.0510/davis-fish-seeker-green but when i click that link the category.aspx page runs insted of product.aspx. am i missing out something ?

    Read the article

  • How to Integrate Backbone.js with RESTful Web Services in 5 Minutes!

    - by Geertjan
    In NetBeans IDE 7.3, a Backbone.js file can be generated from a Java RESTful web service. The Backbone.js file contains complete CRUD functionality and your HTML5 application can immediately be deployed to make use of those features. Coupled with the NetBeans IDE two-way editing support for HTML5, via interaction with WebKit in Chrome, Backbone.js users have a completely new and powerful tool for coding their HTML5 applications. The above is illustrated via the brand new YouTube movie below: This makes NetBeans IDE 7.3 well suited as a learning tool for new Backbone.js users, as well as a productivity tool for those who are comfortable with Backbone.js already.

    Read the article

  • Simple rails routing / url question

    - by justinbach
    I'm using Ryan Bates' nifty authentication in my application for user signup and login. Each user has_many :widgets, but I'd like to allow users to browse other users' widgets. I'm thinking that a url scheme like /username/widgets/widget_id would make a lot of sense--it would keep all widget-related code in the same place (the widgets controller). However, I'm not sure how to use this style of URL in my app. Right now my codebase is such that it permits logged-in users to browse only their own widgets, which live at /widgets/widget_id. What changes would I need to make to routes.rb, my models classes, and any place where links to a given widget are needed? I've done Rails work before but am a newb when it comes to more complicated routing, etc, so I'd appreciate any feedback. Thanks for your consideration!

    Read the article

  • How to go about designing an intermediate routing filter program to accept input and forward accordingly?

    - by phileaton
    My predicament: I designed an app, written in Python, to read my mail and check for messages that contain a certain digital signature. It opens these and looks for keywords. If the message contains these keywords, certain related functions area executed on the computer. It is a way I can control my computer from my cell phone without being there. I am still in the beginning stages and it can only currently remotely open and close applications/processes. The obvious issue is security risks. I hoped to spearhead that by requiring and checking for that digital signature. However, my issue comes when I'd like to make this program usable by multiple users. The idea is that the user will send keywords: username and password, for instance, to log into their personal email account and send messages to it to be parsed. Please ignore the security implications of sending non-encoded passwords through email. (Though if you could help me on that part I'd much appreciate it as well, but currently, that is not the scope of my question.) My issue is designing an intermediary process that will take an email/password to read an email and scan for those keywords. The issue is, that the program has to be accessing an email to read the email for the username/password! I have got myself into a loop and cannot figure out how to have this required intermediary program. I could just create an arbitrary email account and have that check for login-creds, but is there a better way of doing this than that? Also, is there a better way of communicating with a computer remotely than this? Especially if the computer is not a server and is behind a router with only a subnet ip? If I am asking this question in the wrong place, I deeply apologize. Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Inconsistent Routing Results in MVC

    - by HapiDjus
    Seems I'm still missing something to the MVC routing concept. I have a route that follows nearly the same pattern as another route in an area but for what ever reason I get a 404 every time I attempt to run it. I've tried to use Phil Haack's Route Tester DLL and according to that it hits the correct route (matched route comes out to common/itemhistory/{contentid}). When I try to run it for real, it blows up. I'm trying to map a call to a JsonResult by passing a Guid. I've had success with other routes working fine (common is an area in my site). What could I be doing wrong? context.MapRoute( "ItemHistory", "common/itemhistory/{contentid}", new { controller = "common", action = "GetItemHistory" }, new { contentid = @"^(\{){0,1}[0-9a-fA-F]{8}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{4}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{4}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{4}\-[0-9a-fA-F]{12}(\}){0,1}$" } ); context.MapRoute( "Common_default", "common/{action}", new { controller="common", action = "Index" } );

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Custom Routing Long Custom Route not Clicking in my Head

    - by percent20
    I have spent several hours today reading up on doing Custom Routing in ASP.NET MVC. I can understand how to do any type of custom route if it expands from or is similar/smaller than the Default Route. However, I am trying figure out how to do a route similar to: /Language/{id}/Question/{id}/ And what I would like, too, is similar to how SO works. Something like: /Language/{id}/Arabic/Question/{ID}/Some-Question-Title Where "Arabic" and "Some-Question-Title" can be almost anything because what really matters is the ID's Am I going beyond what can be done with the extended URL past the language ID?

    Read the article

  • URL Routing to Default Page

    - by ewitkows
    Hi everyone, I have an asp.net 4.0 web forms app setup with url rereouting. In development, my app's URL looks perfect. I have a page called enrollnow.aspx that responds to the routing, so if I type in localhost/enrollnow/abc, my app responds as expected. Once promoted into my staging environment however, the URL is off. I have a domain, and a virtual dir created off of my domain called "enrollnow". So basically, my URL outside of development is: mydomain.com/enrollnow/enrollnow/abc - where the first enrollnow is the directory, the second enrollnow is the page name, and the abc is my route value. Is there any way I can have the "default page" respond, so the second enrollnow (which is enrollnow.asp) isnt required? Perhaps I can rename my enrollnow.aspx page to default.aspx, or I can change the mapping in my routetable? Heres my routetable, incase that helps. thanks! Routetable: RouteTable.Routes.Add("PURLRoute", New Route("EnrollNow/{PURL_ID}", New PageRouteHandler("~/EnrollNow.aspx")))

    Read the article

  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

    Read the article

  • How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

    - by code-gijoe
    I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC2 Routing Issue With StructureMap

    - by alphadogg
    So, in global.asax, I have: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute(" { *favicon }", new { favicon = @"(.*/)?favicon.ico(/.*)?" }); routes.IgnoreRoute("{*robotstxt}", new { robotstxt = @"(.*/)?robots.txt(/.*)?" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } protected void Application_Start() { var container = new Container(); ServiceLocator.SetLocatorProvider(() => new StructureMapServiceLocator(container)); ComponentRegistrar.Register(container); Debug.WriteLine(container.WhatDoIHave()); // original MVC2 code at project startup AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } and in my StructureMapControllerFactory, I have: protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (requestContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("requestContext"); } if (controllerType == null) { //return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); controllerType = GetControllerType(requestContext, "Home"); requestContext.RouteData.Values["Controller"] = "Home"; requestContext.RouteData.Values["action"] = "Index"; } try { return theContainer.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (StructureMapException) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(theContainer.WhatDoIHave()); throw; } } Now, normally, in most examples you find on the net, when controllerType is null, you have the commented out line (base.GetControllerInstance()) that handles it. However, if I use that, I get an error about not finding the controller for default.aspx when the controllerType is null at startup of the web app. If I force the use of the Home controller, I get the site to appear. What am I doing wrong? Is it a problem in routing?

    Read the article

  • inbound/outbound url routing in asp.net MVC

    - by Stephane
    The routing I need is quite simple, I must be missing something there. As code example I put the simpler situation where I can reproduce my behavior. You have this ActionMethod : public ActionResult Index(string provider) { ViewData["Message"] = provider; return View("Index"); } And you have this route : routes.MapRoute( null, "{controller}/{action}/{provider}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", provider = "Default" } ); // Parameter defaults You can call /Home/Index/Custom and provider will take the value "Custom" What Route would I need if I want the url /?provider=Custom to map the provider to the parameter. I thought that would just work, because the default controller and the default action would be used, and the provider from the querystring would be used instead of the default one. but the querystring is just ignored here. That's a problem in my situation as I have a form using HTTP GET method. The form action has to be Html.BeginForm(c=c.Index(null)) which is resolved as / and the value of my form are added in the querystring. (the provider being a dropdown in the form) So the url built by the form is /?abc=value&cde=value...

    Read the article

  • How to use ASP.NET Routing in a Quote of the Day Website

    - by SidC
    Good Afternoon, A client is interested in creating an ASP.NET 2.0 website whose purpose is to serve up a "quote of the day". He wants the quotes on static content pages all attached to the same master page. The quote pages must be viewed in a certain sequence, and site browsers cannot view any other pages than the starting page when browsing to the site. That is, everyone must go to page 001.aspx when entering the site. Two Questions: 1. The content pages are going to be created by the client using an excel data source and a merge process by which each quote page is created eg. 001.aspx, 002.aspx etc. This seems clunky to me at best. Would ASP.NET Dynamic Data be a better solution here? I'm new to ASP.NET Routing and URL Rewriting as a whole. How would I setup a route table to ensure that users always entered the site on the same entry page, and create a route table such that default.aspx resolves to 001.aspx? Thanks, Sid

    Read the article

  • jscript1.js error in webforms when applying routing

    - by Sean N
    Hello I have a project using webforms. I applied routing on one of the page. My route is structure like this : http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/ = http://localhost:3576/Request/{role}/{action}/{id} Everything works great but i have a javascript error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 7 May 2010 13:35:54 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 3 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/JScript1.js I think it's trying to route to the file where i stored my javascript functions. Any suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Postback not working with ASP.NET Routing (Validation of viewstate MAC failed)

    - by Robert
    Hi. I'm using the ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 System.Web.Routing with classic WebForms, as described in http://chriscavanagh.wordpress.com/2008/04/25/systemwebrouting-with-webforms-sample/ All works fine, I have custom SEO urls and even the postback works. But there is a case where the postback always fails and I get a: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Here is the scenario to reproduce the error: Create a standard webform mypage.aspx with a button Create a Route that maps "a/b/{id}" to "~/mypage.aspx" When you execute the site, you can navigate http://localhost:XXXX/a/b/something the page works. But when you press the button you get the error. The error doen't happen when the Route is just "a/{id}". It seems to be related to the number of sub-paths in the url. If there are at least 2 sub-paths the viewstate validation fails. You get the error even with EnableViewStateMac="false". Any ideas? Is it a bug? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Extremely Difficult Problem with ASP.Net 4.0 WebForms app using Routing

    - by dudeNumber4
    I have a completed app running in a QA environment. Everything works fine under most circumstances. If you hit a plain URL (no identifying information in the URL), you see an intro page with a button (generated by an asp LinkButton control) that posts back and directs you to another page. The markup looks the same when it fails and when it doesn't. When such a URL is followed from, e.g., Word and the default browser is IE, the intro page loads fine, but clicking the button causes an error. When not debugging, this behavior occurs every time. While debugging, the error occurs only ~ 1 in 10 times (closing the browser instance and starting over every time). When the error occurs, the intro page Page_Load fires and IsPostBack is false. Somehow, instead of a post, a get is being issued. When I run fiddler to try to analyze the actual calls (can't use firebug because it never happens using Firefox), everything works every time. I don't know whether this issue has anything to do with routing, and I've no idea even what to look at next. The strange thing is, when I debug, the intro page doesn't fully load every time. Only about 1 in 3 times does it fully load even if I've just cleared browser cache. When I run it through fiddler, it fully loads and works fine every time.

    Read the article

  • Rails 3) Delete, Destory, and Routing

    - by Maximus S
    The problem is the code below <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :delete, :class => :destroy %> My Post model has many relations that are dependent on delete. However, the code above will only remove the post, leaving its relations intact. The problem is that methods delete and destroy are different in that method delete doesn't instantiate the object. So I need to use "destroy" instead of "delete" my post. <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :destroy %> gives me routing error. No route matches [POST] "/posts/2" <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, Post.destroy(@post) %> deletes the post without clicking the button. Could anyone help me with this? UPDATE: application.js //= require jquery //= require jquery-ui //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap-modal //= require bootstrap-typeahead //= require_tree . rake routes DELETE (/:locale)/posts/:id(.:format) posts#destroy Post model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :through => :tag_links Tag model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :posts, :through => :tag_links Problem: When I delete a post, all the tag_links are destroyed but tags still exist.

    Read the article

  • How do I setup routing for 2 companies with different Internet connections on the same LAN?

    - by Clint Miller
    Here's the setup: 2 companies (A & B) share office space and a LAN. A 2nd ISP is brought in and company A wants it's own Internet connection (ISP A) and company B wants it's own Internet connection (ISP B). VLANs are deployed internally to separate the 2 company's networks (company A: VLAN 1, company B: VLAN 2, shared VOIP: VLAN 3). With separate VLANs it's simple enough to use separate DHCP servers (or separate scopes on the same server) to assign the default gateway to each company's gateway for their Internet connection. Static routes can be created on each gateway to point traffic destined for the other company's VLAN or the voice VLAN so that all nodes are reachable as expected. However, I think this is a form of asymmetrical routing, right? (The path from node A1 to node B1 is not the same as the path back from node B1 to node A1). Can I setup policy-based routing to correct this? In that case, can I assign the same default gateway to every device on all VLANs and create a routing policy on a L3 switch to look at the source address and forward traffic to the appropriate next hop? In that case, I want the routing logic to go like this: If the destination address is known, forward the traffic (traffic destined for a different VLAN). If the destination address is unknown, forward the traffic to ISP A's gateway if the source address is on VLAN A; or forward the traffic to ISP B's gateway if the source address is VLAN B. Am I thinking about this problem in the correct way? Is there another way to solve this problem that I am overlooking?

    Read the article

  • How do I setup routing for two companies with different Internet connections on the same LAN?

    - by Clint Miller
    Here's the setup: Two companies (A & B) share office space and a LAN. A 2nd ISP is brought in and company A wants its own Internet connection (ISP A) and company B wants its own Internet connection (ISP B). VLANs are deployed internally to separate the two companies' networks (company A: VLAN 1, company B: VLAN 2, shared VOIP: VLAN 3). With separate VLANs it's simple enough to use separate DHCP servers (or separate scopes on the same server) to assign the default gateway to each company's gateway for their Internet connection. Static routes can be created on each gateway to point traffic destined for the other company's VLAN or the voice VLAN so that all nodes are reachable as expected. However, I think this is a form of asymmetrical routing, right? (The path from node A1 to node B1 is not the same as the path back from node B1 to node A1). Can I set up policy-based routing to correct this? In that case, can I assign the same default gateway to every device on all VLANs and create a routing policy on a L3 switch to look at the source address and forward traffic to the appropriate next hop? In that case, I want the routing logic to go like this: If the destination address is known, forward the traffic (traffic destined for a different VLAN). If the destination address is unknown, forward the traffic to ISP A's gateway if the source address is on VLAN A; or forward the traffic to ISP B's gateway if the source address is VLAN B. Am I thinking about this problem in the correct way? Is there another way to solve this problem that I am overlooking?

    Read the article

  • Polymorphic urls with singular resources

    - by Brendon Muir
    I'm getting strange output when using the following routing setup: resources :warranty_types do resources :decisions end resource :warranty_review, :only => [] do resources :decisions end I have many warranty_types but only one warranty_review (thus the singular route declaration). The decisions are polymorphically associated with both. I have just a single decisions controller and a single _form.html.haml partial to render the form for a decision. This is the view code: = simple_form_for @decision, :url => [@decision_tree_owner, @decision.becomes(Decision)] do |form| The warranty_type url looks like this (for a new decision): /warranty_types/2/decisions whereas the warranty_review url looks like this: /admin/warranty_review/decisions.1 I think because the warranty_review id has no where to go, it's just getting appended to the end as an extension. Can someone explain what's going on here and how I might be able to fix it? I can work around it by trying to detect for a warranty_review class and substituting @decision_tree_owner with :warranty_review and this generates the correct url, but this is messy. I would have thought that the routing would be smart enough to realise that warranty_review is a singular resource and thus discard the id from the URL. This is Rails 3 by the way :)

    Read the article

  • Rails routing to XML/JSON without views gone mad

    - by John Schulze
    I have a mystifying problem. In a very simple Ruby app i have three classes: Drivers, Jobs and Vehicles. All three classes only consist of Id and Name. All three classes have the same #index and #show methods and only render in JSON or XML (this is in fact true for all their CRUD methods, they are identical in everything but name). There are no views. For example: def index @drivers= Driver.all respond_to do |format| format.js { render :json => @drivers} format.xml { render :xml => @drivers} end end def show @driver = Driver.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.js { render :json => @driver} format.xml { render :xml => @driver} end end The models are similarly minimalistic and only contain: class Driver< ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name end In routes.rb I have: map.resources :drivers map.resources :jobs map.resources :vehicles map.connect ':controller/:action/:id' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id.:format' I can perform POST/create, GET/index and PUT/update on all three classes and GET/read used to work as well until I installed the "has many polymorphs" ActiveRecord plugin and added to environment.rb: require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') require 'has_many_polymorphs' require 'active_support' Now for two of the three classes I cannot do a read any more. If i go to localhost:3000/drivers they all list nicely in XML but if i go to localhost:3000/drivers/3 I get an error: Processing DriversController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-06-11 20:34:03) [GET] Parameters: {"id"=>"3"} [4;36;1mDriver Load (0.0ms)[0m [0;1mSELECT * FROM "drivers" WHERE ("drivers"."id" = 3) [0m ActionView::MissingTemplate (Missing template drivers/show.erb in view path app/views): app/controllers/drivers_controller.rb:14:in `show' ...etc This is followed a by another unexpected error: Processing ApplicationController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-06-11 21:35:52)[GET] Parameters: {"id"=>"3"} NameError (uninitialized constant ApplicationController::AreaAccessDenied): ...etc What is going on here? Why does the same code work for one class but not the other two? Why is it trying to do a #view on the ApplicationController? I found that if I create a simple HTML view for each of the three classes these work fine. To each class I add: format.html # show.html.erb With this in place, going to localhost:3000/drivers/3 renders out the item in HTML and I get no errors in the log. But if attach .xml to the URL it again fails for two of the classes (with the same error message as before) while one will output XML as expected. Even stranger, on the two failing classes, when adding .js to the URL (to trigger JSON rendering) I get the HTML output instead! Is it possible this has something to do with the "has many polymorphs" plugin? I have heard of people having routing issues after installing it. Removing "has many polymorphs" and "active support" from environment.rb (and rebooting the sever) seems to make no difference whatsoever. Yet my problems started after it was installed. I've spent a number of hours on this problem now and am starting to get a little desperate, Google turns up virtually no information which makes me suspect I must have missed something elementary. Any enlightenment or hint gratefully received! JS

    Read the article

  • Multiple collections tied to one base collection with filters and eventing

    - by damienc88
    I have a complex model served from my back end, which has a bunch of regular attributes, some nested models, and a couple of collections. My page has two tables, one for invalid items, and one for valid items. The items in question are from one of the nested collections. Let's call it baseModel.documentCollection, implementing DocumentsCollection. I don't want any filtration code in my Marionette.CompositeViews, so what I've done is the following (note, duplicated for the 'valid' case): var invalidDocsCollection = new DocumentsCollection( baseModel.documentCollection.filter(function(item) { return !item.isValidItem(); }) ); var invalidTableView = new BookIn.PendingBookInRequestItemsCollectionView({ collection: app.collections.invalidDocsCollection }); layout.invalidDocsRegion.show(invalidTableView); This is fine for actually populating two tables independently, from one base collection. But I'm not getting the whole event pipeline down to the base collection, obviously. This means when a document's validity is changed, there's no neat way of it shifting to the other collection, therefore the other view. What I'm after is a nice way of having a base collection that I can have filter collections sit on top of. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Running Radius on a Novell Backbone

    - by YsoL8
    Hello I am a rookie network engineer and I've been asked to create a secure wireless system intergrated with an existing network. So far I'd decided to use 802.1x secuity with a Radius enabled server over a Novell backbone. My question is: does Novell still support this type of server setup? I heard rumours it is at the end of it's supported life and I'd like some confirmation. Also can I get some recommendations on better backbone / server providers. Cheers

    Read the article

  • How Does One Differentiate Between Routes POSTed To In Asp.Net MVC?

    - by Laz
    I have two actions, one that accepts a ViewModel and one that accepts two parameters a string and an int, when I try to post to the action, it gives me an error telling me that the current request is ambiguous between the two actions. Is it possible to indicate to the routing system which action is the relevant one, and if it is how is it done?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: routing help

    - by pcampbell
    Consider two methods on the controller CustomerController.cs: //URL to be http://mysite/Customer/ public ActionResult Index() { return View("ListCustomers"); } //URL to be http://mysite/Customer/8 public ActionResult View(int id) { return View("ViewCustomer"); } How would you setup your routes to accommodate this requirement? How would you use Html.ActionLink when creating a link to the View page?

    Read the article

  • Routing to the actions with same names but different parameters

    - by zerkms
    I have this set of routes: routes.MapRoute( "IssueType", "issue/{type}", new { controller = "Issue", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); Here is the controller class: public class IssueController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { // todo: redirect to concrete type return View(); } public ActionResult Index(string type) { return View(); } } why, when i request http://host/issue i get The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'IssueController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: I expect that first one method should act when there is no parameters, and second one when some parameter specified. where did i made mistake? UPD: possible duplicate: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20  | Next Page >