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• Avoiding CheckStyle magic number errors in JDBC queries.

  - by Dan

  Hello, I am working on a group project for class and we are trying out CheckStyle. I am fairly comfortable with Java but have never touched JDBC or done any database work before this. I was wondering if there is an elegant way to avoid magic number errors in preparedStatement calls, consider: preparedStatement = connect.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO shows " + "(showid, showtitle, showinfo, genre, youtube)" + "values (default, ?, ?, ?, ?);"); preparedStatement.setString(1, title); preparedStatement.setString(2, info); preparedStatement.setString(3, genre); preparedStatement.setString(4, youtube); result = preparedStatement.executeUpdate(); The setString methods get flagged as magic numbers, so far I just added the numbers 3-10 or so to the ignore list for magic numbers but I was wondering if there was a better way to go about inserting those values into the statement. I also beg you for any other advice that comes to mind seeing that code, I'd like to avoid developing any nasty habits, e.g. should I be using Statement or is PreparedStatement fine? Will that let me refer to column names instead? Is that ideal? etc... Thanks!

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• WPF - Setting ComboBox.SelectedItem in XAML based on matching object

  - by Andy T

  Hi, so, I have templated combobox that is basically acting as a simple colour palette. It is populated with a list of SolidColorBrush objects. Fine. Now, I have some data that holds the hex value of the current colour. I have a converter that converts the hex into a SolidColorBrush. Also fine. Now, I want to set the SelectedItem property of the combobox based on the colour from my datasource. Since my combo is populated with objects of type SolidColourBrush, and my binding converter is returning a SolidColorBrush, I assumed it would be as simple as saying: SelectedItem="{Binding Color, Converter={StaticResource StringToBrush}}" However... it doesn't work :( I've tested that the binding is working behind the scenes by using the exact same value for the Background property of the combobox. It works fine. So, clearly I can't just say SelectedItem = [something] where that [something] is basically an object equal to the item I want to be selected. What is the right way to do this? Surely it's possible in a XAML-only styley using binding, and I don't have to do some nasty C# iterating through all items in the combobox trying to find a match (that seems awfully old-school)...? Any help appreciated. Many thanks! AT

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• PHP (A few questions) OO, refactoring, eclipse

  - by jax

  I am using PHP in eclipse. It works ok, I can connect to my remote site, there is colour coding of code elements and some code hints. I realise this may be too long to answer all questions, if you have a good answer for one part, answering just that is ok. Firstly General Coding I have found that it is easy to loose track of included files and their variables. For example if there was a database $cursor it is difficult to remember or even know that it was declared in the included file (this becomes much worse the more files you include). How are people dealing with this? How are people documenting their code - in particular the required GET and POST data? Secondly OO Development: Should I be going full OO in my development. Currently I have a functions library which I can include and have separated each "task" into a separate file. It is a bit nasty but it works. If I go OO how do I structure the directories in PHP, java uses packages - what about php? How should I name my files, should I use all lower case with _ for spaces "hello_world.php"? Should I name classes with Uppercase like Java "HelloWorld.php"? Is there a different naming convention for Classes and regular function files? Thirdly Refactoring I must say this is a real pain. If I change the name of a variable in one place I have to go through whole document and each file that included this file and change the name their too. Of course, errors everywhere is what results. How are people dealing with this problem? In Java if you change the name in one place it changes everywhere. Are there any plugins to improve php refactoring? I am using the official PHP version of Eclipse from their website. thanks

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• best way to switch between secure and unsecure connection without bugging the user

  - by Brian Lang

  The problem I am trying to tackle is simple. I have two pages - the first is a registration page, I take in a few fields from the user, once they submit it takes them to another page that processes the data, stores it to a database, and if successful, gives a confirmation message. Here is my issue - the data from the user is sensitive - as in, I'm using an https connection to ensure no eavesdropping. After that is sent to the database, I'd like on the confirmation page to do some nifty things like Google Maps navigation (this is for a time reservation application). The problem is by using the Google Maps api, I'd be linking to items through a unsecure source, which in turn prompts the user with a nasty warning message. I've browsed around, Google has an alternative to enterprise clients, but it costs $10,000 a year. What I am hoping is to find a workaround - use a secure connection to take in the data, and after it is processed, bring them to a page that isn't secure and allows me to utilize the Google Maps API. If any of you have a Netflix account you can see exactly what I would like to do when you sign-in, it is a secure page, which then takes you to your account / queue, on an unsecure page. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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• Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

  - by Visage

  So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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• Exposing a .Net Service

  - by Dave

  I have written a Windows Service in .Net and I want to expose the classes to be called by other .Net code. Specifically, I have an API that I want to expose via a DLL that will be placed in the GAC, and I want the DLL in the GAC to use the classes of the .Net Windows Service. I need this architecture as the code in the Windows Service needs to be run as a different user/account as the caller of the API (the account would be created at install time). My plan was to expose the Windows Service classes via COM (regasm.exe to register and tlbexp.exe to create the type library), and then call the classes in the GAC DLL via COM (imported via tlbimp.exe). However I get the following error from tlbimp: TlbImp : error TI0000 : System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException - Type library '' was exported from a CLR assembly and cannot be re- imported as a CLR assembly. This implies to me that my method is not going to easily work. I can only think that I might need a C++ DLL as a bridge for my GAC DLL to invoke the COM calls, but this seems like a nasty solution. I am basically looking for suggestions. Does anyone know how to expose classes of a Windows Service written in .Net to other .Net code?

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• What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms?

  - by Simon

  What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms? I'm tryin to better understand this 'simple' question in order to determine whether or not existing pages I have in a (very) simple site can be easily converted from ASP.NET WebForms. Either a 'conversion' of the process below, or an alternative lifecycle would be what I'm looking for. What I'm currently doing: (yes i know that anyone capable of answering my question already knows all this -- i'm just tryin to get a comparison of the 'lifecycle' so i thought i'd start by filling in what we already all know) Rendering the page: I have a master page which contains my basic template I have content pages that give me named regions from the master page into which I put content. In an event handler for each content page I load data from the database (mostly read-only). I bind this data to ASP.NET controls representing grids, dropdowns or repeaters. This data all 'lives' inside the HTML generated. Some of it gets into ViewState (but I wont go into that too much!) I set properties or bind data to certain items like Image or TextBox controls on the page. The page gets sent to the client rendered as non-reusable HTML. I try to avoid using ViewState other than what the page needs as a minimum. Client side (not using ASP.NET AJAX): I may use JQuery and some nasty tricks to find controls on the page and perform operations on them. If the user selects from a dropdown -- a postback is generated which triggers a C# event in my codebehind. This event may go to the database, but whatever it does a completely newly generated HTML page ends up getting sent back to the client. I may use Page.Session to store key value pairs I need to reuse later So with MVC how does this 'lifecycle' change?

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• Best pattern to load enumerated values from DAL using WCF RIA Services

  - by Dale Halliwell

  I would like to be able to load several RIA entitysets in a single call without chaining/nesting several small LoadOperations together so that they load sequentially. I have several pages that have a number of comboboxes on them. These comboboxes are populated with static values from a database (for example status values). Right now I preload these values in my VM by one method that strings together a series of LoadOperations for each type that I want to load. For example: public void LoadEnums() { context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues1Query()).Completed += (s, e) => { this.StatusValues1 = context.StatusValues1; context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues2()).Completed += (s1, e1) => { this.StatusValues2 = context.StatusValues2; context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues3Query()).Completed += (s2, e2) => { this.StatusValues3 = context.StatusValues3; (....and so on) }; }; }; }; While this works fine, it seems a bit nasty. Also, I would like to know when the last loadoperation completes so that I can load whatever entity I want to work on after this, so that these enumerated values resolve properly in form elements like comboboxes and listboxes. (I think) I can't do this easily above without creating a delegate and calling that on the completion of the last loadoperation. So my question is: does anyone out there know a better pattern to use, ideally where I can load all my static entitysets in a single LoadOperation?

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• Variable Assignment and loops (Java)

  - by Raven Dreamer

  Greetings Stack Overflowers, A while back, I was working on a program that hashed values into a hashtable (I don't remember the specifics, and the specifics themselves are irrelevant to the question at hand). Anyway, I had the following code as part of a "recordInput" method. tempElement = new hashElement(someInt); while(in.hasNext() == true) { int firstVal = in.nextInt(); if (firstVal == -911) { break; } tempElement.setKeyValue(firstVal, 0); for(int i = 1; i<numKeyValues;i++) { tempElement.setKeyValue(in.nextInt(), i); } elementArray[placeValue] = tempElement; placeValue++; } // close while loop } // close method This part of the code was giving me a very nasty bug -- no matter how I finagled it, no matter what input I gave the program, it would always produce an array full of only a single value -- the last one. The problem, as I later determined it, was that because I had not created the tempElement variable within the loop, and because values were not being assigned to elementArray[] until after the loop had ended -- every term was defined rather as "tempElement" -- when the loop terminated, every slot in the array was filled with the last value tempElement had taken. I was able to fix this bug by moving the declaration of tempElement within the while loop. My question to you, Stackoverflow, is whether there is another (read: better) way to avoid this bug while keeping the variable declaration of tempElement outside the while loop. (suggestions for better title and tags also appreciated)

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• Security implications of writing files using PHP

  - by susmits

  I'm currently trying to create a CMS using PHP, purely in the interest of education. I want the administrators to be able to create content, which will be parsed and saved on the server storage in pure HTML form to avoid the overhead that executing PHP script would incur. Unfortunately, I could only think of a few ways of doing so: Setting write permission on every directory where the CMS should want to write a file. This sounds like quite a bad idea. Setting write permissions on a single cached directory. A PHP script could then include or fopen/fread/echo the content from a file in the cached directory at request-time. This could perhaps be carried out in a Mediawiki-esque fashion: something like index.php?page=xyz could read and echo content from cached/xyz.html at runtime. However, I'll need to ensure the sanity of $_GET['page'] to prevent nasty variations like index.php?page=http://www.bad-site.org/malicious-script.js. I'm personally not too thrilled by the second idea, but the first one sounds very insecure. Could someone please suggest a good way of getting this done?

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• 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

  - by user72603

  I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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• Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

  - by John Galt

  On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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• Debian packaging of a Python package.

  - by chrisdew

  I need to write (or find) a script to create a Debian package (using python-support) from a Python package. The Python package will be pure Python (no C extensions). The Python package (for testing purposes) will just be a directory with an empty __init__.py file and a single Python module, package_test.py. The packaging script must use python-support to provide the correct bytecode for possible multiple installations of Python on a target platform. (i.e. v2.5 and v2.6 on Ubuntu Jaunty.) Most advice I find while googling are just examples nasty hacks that don't even use python-support or python-central. I have so far spent hours researching this, and the best I can come up with is to hack around the script from an existing open source project - but I don't know which bits are required for what I'm doing. Has anyone here made a Debian package out of a Python package in a reasonably non-hacky way? I'm starting to think that it will take me more than a week to go from no knowledge of Debian packaging and python-support to getting a working script. How long has it taken others? Any advice? Chris.

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• Safe way to set computed environment variables

  - by sfink

  I have a bash script that I am modifying to accept key=value pairs from stdin. (It is spawned by xinetd.) How can I safely convert those key=value pairs into environment variables for subprocesses? I plan to only allow keys that begin with a predefined prefix "CMK_", to avoid IFS or any other "dangerous" variable getting set. But the simplistic approach function import () { local IFS="=" while read key val; do case "$key" in CMK_*) eval "$key=$val";; esac done } is horribly insecure because $val could contain all sorts of nasty stuff. This seems like it would work: shopt -s extglob function import () { NORMAL_IFS="$IFS" local IFS="=" while read key val; do case "$key" in CMK_*([a-zA-Z_]) ) IFS="$NORMAL_IFS" eval $key='$val' IFS="=" ;; esac done } but (1) it uses the funky extglob thing that I've never used before, and (2) it's complicated enough that I can't be comfortable that it's secure. My goal, to be specific, is to allow key=value settings to pass through the bash script into the environment of called processes. It is up to the subprocesses to deal with potentially hostile values getting set. I am modifying someone else's script, so I don't want to just convert it to Perl and be done with it. I would also rather not change it around to invoke the subprocesses differently, something like #!/bin/sh ...start of script... perl -nle '($k,$v)=split(/=/,$_,2); $ENV{$k}=$v if $k =~ /^CMK_/; END { exec("subprocess") }' ...end of script...

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• Bi-directional view model syncing with "live" collections and properties (MVVM)

  - by Schneider

  I am getting my knickers in a twist recently about View Models (VM). Just like this guy I have come to the conclusion that the collections I need to expose on my VM typically contain a different type to the collections exposed on my business objects. Hence there must be a bi-directional mapping or transformation between these two types. (Just to complicate things, on my project this data is "Live" such that as soon as you change a property it gets transmitted to other computers) I can just about cope with that concept, using a framework like Truss, although I suspect there will be a nasty surprise somewhere within. Not only must objects be transformed but a synchronization between these two collections is required. (Just to complicate things I can think of cases where the VM collection might be a subset or union of business object collections, not simply a 1:1 synchronization). I can see how to do a one-way "live" sync, using a replicating ObservableCollection or something like CLINQ. The problem then becomes: What is the best way to create/delete items? Bi-directinal sync does not seem to be on the cards - I have found no such examples, and the only class that supports anything remotely like that is the ListCollectionView. Would bi-directional sync even be a sensible way to add back into the business object collection? All the samples I have seen never seem to tackle anything this "complex". So my question is: How do you solve this? Is there some technique to update the model collections from the VM? What is the best general approach to this?

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• Generate an ID via COM interop

  - by Erik van Brakel

  At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

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• Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

  - by layne

  I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

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• What are the best workarounds for known problems with Hibernate's schema validation of floating poin

  - by Jason Novak

  I have several Java classes with double fields that I am persisting via Hibernate. For example, I have @Entity public class Node ... private double value; When Hibernate's org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle10gDialect creates the DDL for the Node table, it maps the value field to a "double precision" type. create table MDB.Node (... value double precision not null, ... It would appear that in Oracle, "double precision" is an alias for "float". So, when I try to verify the database schema using the org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.validateSchema() method, Oracle appears to describe the value column as a "float". This causes Hibernate to throw the following Exception org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in DBO.ACL_RULE for column value. Found: float, expected: double precision A very similar problem is listed in Hibernate's JIRA database as HHH-1961 (http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-1961). I'd like to avoid doing anything that will break MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server support so extending the Oracle10gDialect appears to be the most promising of the workarounds mentioned in HHH-1961. But extending a Dialect is something I've never done before and I'm afraid there may be some nasty gotchas. What is the best workaround for this problem that won't break our compatibility with MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server? Thanks for taking the time to look at this!

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• Java Client .class File Protection

  - by Zac

  I am in the requirements phase of building a JEE application that will most likely run on a GlassFish/JBoss backend (doesn't matter for now). I know I shouldn't be thinking about architecture at requirements time, but one can't help but start to imagine how the components would all snap together :-) Here are some hard, non-flexible requirements on the client-side: (1) The client application will be a Swing box (2) The client is free to download, but will use a subscription model (thus requiring a login mechanism with server-side authentication/authorization, etc.) (3) Yes, Java is the best platform solution for the problem at hand for reasons outside the scope of this post (4) The client-side .class files need safeguarding against decompiling That last (4th) requirement is the basis of this post. I'm not really worried about someone actually decompiling and getting at my source code: in the end, it's just Swing controls driven by some lightweight business logic. I'm worried about a scenario where someone decompiles my code, modifies it to exploit/attack the server, re-compiles, and fires it up. I've envisioned all sorts of nasty solutions, but didn't know if this was a common problem with a common solution for JEE developers. Any thoughts? Not interested in "code obfuscation" techniques! Thanks for any input!

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• Can I interrupt javascript code and then continue on a keystroke?

  - by Brian Ramsay

  I am porting an old game from C to Javascript. I have run into an issue with display code where I would like to have the main game code call display methods without having to worry about how those status messages are displayed. In the original code, if the message is too long, the program just waits for the player to toggle through the messages with the spacebar and then continues. This doesn't work in javascript, because while I wait for an event, all of the other program code continues. I had thought to use a callback so that further code can execute when the player hits the designated key, but I can't see how that will be viable with a lot of calls to display.update(msg) scattered throughout the code. Can I architect things differently so the event-based, asynchronous model works, or is there some other solution that would allow me to implement a more traditional event loop? Am I making sense? Example: // this is what the original code does, but obviously doesn't work in Javascript display = { update : function(msg) { // if msg is too long // wait for user input // ok, we've got input, continue } }; // this is more javascript-y... display = { update : function(msg, when_finished) { // show part of the message $(document).addEvent('keydown', function(e) { // display the rest of the message when_finished(); }); } }; // but makes for amazingly nasty game code do_something(param, function() { // in case do_something calls display I have to // provide a callback for everything afterwards // this happens next, but what if do_the_next_thing needs to call display? // I have to wait again do_the_next_thing(param, function() { // now I have to do this again, ad infinitum } }

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• How to use Data aware controls "correctly"?

  - by lyborko

  Hi, I would like to ask experienced users, if you prefer to use data aware controls to add, insert, delete and edit data in DB or you favor to do it manualy. I developed some DB applications, in which for the sake of "user friendly policy" I run into complicated web of table events (afterinsert, afteredit, after... and beforeedit, beforeinsert, before...). After that it was a quite nasty work to debug the application. Aware of this risk (later by another application) I tried to avoid this problem, so I paid increased attention to write code well, readable and comprehensive. It seemed everything all right from the beginning, but as I needed to handle some preprocessing stuff before sending and loading data etc, I run into the same problems again, "slowly and inevitably". Sometime I could not use dataaware controls anyway, and what seemed to be a "cool" feature of DAControl at the beginning it turned to an obstacle on the end. I "had to" write special routine for non-dataaware controls, in order to behave as dataaware. Then I asked myself, why on earth should I use dataaware controls? Is it better to found application architecture on non-dataaware controls? It requires more time to write bug-proof code, of course, but does it worth of it? I do not know... I happened to me several times, like jinxed : paradise on the beginning hell on the end... I do not know, if I use wrong method to write DB program, if there is some standard common practice how to proceed. Or if it is common problem to everybody? Thanx for advices and your experiences

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• Why are references compacted inside Perl lists?

  - by parkan

  Putting a precompiled regex inside two different hashes referenced in a list: my @list = (); my $regex = qr/ABC/; push @list, { 'one' => $regex }; push @list, { 'two' => $regex }; use Data::Dumper; print Dumper(\@list); I'd expect: $VAR1 = [ { 'one' => qr/(?-xism:ABC)/ }, { 'two' => qr/(?-xism:ABC)/ } ]; But instead we get a circular reference: $VAR1 = [ { 'one' => qr/(?-xism:ABC)/ }, { 'two' => $VAR1->[0]{'one'} } ]; This will happen with indefinitely nested hash references and shallowly copied $regex. I'm assuming the basic reason is that precompiled regexes are actually references, and references inside the same list structure are compacted as an optimization (\$scalar behaves the same way). I don't entirely see the utility of doing this (presumably a reference to a reference has the same memory footprint), but maybe there's a reason based on the internal representation Is this the correct behavior? Can I stop it from happening? Aside from probably making GC more difficult, these circular structures create pretty serious headaches. For example, iterating over a list of queries that may sometimes contain the same regular expression will crash the MongoDB driver with a nasty segfault (see https://rt.cpan.org/Public/Bug/Display.html?id=58500)

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• C# DynamicMethod prelink

  - by soywiz

  I'm the author of a psp emulator made in C#. I'm generating lots of "DynamicMethod" using ILGenerator. I'm converting assembly code into an AST, and then generating IL code and building that DynamicMethod. I'm doing this in another thread, so I can generate new methods while the program is executing others so it can run smoothly. My problem is that the native code generation is lazy, so the machine code is generated when the function is called, not when the IL is generated. So it generates in the program executing thread, native code generation is prettly slow as it is the asm-ast-il step. I have tried the Marshal.Prelink method that it is suposed to generate the machine code before executing the function. It does work on Mono, but it doesn't work on MS .NET. Marshal.Prelink(MethodInfo); Is there a way of prelinking a DynamicMethod on MS .NET? I thought adding a boolean parameter to the function that if set, exits the function immediately so no code is actually executed. I could "prelink" that way, but I think that's a nasty solution I want to avoid. Any idea?

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• OpenGL pixels drawn with each horizontal pair swapped

  - by Tim Kane

  I'm somewhat new to OpenGL though I'm fairly sure my problem lies in the pixel format being used, or how my texture is being generated... I'm drawing a texture onto a flat 2D quad using a 16bit RGB5_A1 pixel format, though I don't make use of any alpha at this stage. The problem I'm having is that each pair of horizontal pixel values have been swapped. That is... if the pixels positions should be in this order (assume 8x2 image) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 they are instead drawn as 1 0 3 2 5 4 7 6 Or, more clearly from this image (below). Left is what I get... Right is what I should get. . The question is... How have I ended up with this? Is there something wrong with the pixel format? Unlikely since the colours all appear correct, and I would expect all kinds of nasty if it were down to endian-ness. Suggestions greatly appreciated. Update: Turns out the problem was in my source renderer. Interestingly, I've avoided the problem entirely by using 32-bit textures (haven't tried 24-bit at this point).

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• How to calculate the height of the text rectangle from an NSString?

  - by mystify

  I know there is this one: sizeWithFont:minFontSize:actualFontSize:forWidth:lineBreakMode: But since the CGSize always has the same height and doesn't adjust to any shrinked text or whatsoever, the CGSize is not telling how heigh the text is. Example: Make a UILabel with 320 x 55 points and put a loooooooooooooong text in there. Let the label shrink the text down. Surprise: CGSize.height remains the same height even if the text is so tiny that you need a microscope. Ok so after banging my head against my macbook pro which is half way broken now, the only think that can help is that nasty actualFontSize. But the font size is in pica I think, it's not really what you get on the screen, isn't it? When that font size is 10, is my text really 10 points heigh at maximum? Once in a while I tried exactly that, and as soon as the text had a y or some character that extends to below (like that tail of an y does), it is out of bounds and the whole text is bigger than 10 points. So how would you calculate the real text height for a single line uilabel without getting a long beard and some hospital experience?

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