Search Results

Search found 22192 results on 888 pages for 'unique key'.

Page 13/888 | < Previous Page | 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20  | Next Page >

  • jQuery Event Keypress: Which key was pressed?

    - by BlaM
    With jQuery, how do I find out which key was pressed when I bind to the keypress event? $('#searchbox input').bind('keypress', function(e) {}); I want to trigger an submit when ENTER is pressed. [Update] Even though I found the (or better: one) answer myself, there seems to be some room for variation ;) Is there a difference between keyCode and which - especially if I'm just looking for ENTER, which will never be a unicode key? Do some browsers provide one property and others provide the other one?

    Read the article

  • C# Processing Enter Key on Custom Container

    - by tycobb
    I am currently building a custom container control. Everything was going along smoothly until I hit a snag during testing. I noticed that the Enter key is not getting processed to the control that has focus inside the container. Everything else works as expected though. I am able to click the button with either the mouse or space bar, but enter does not want to get processed. After doing endless searches on container controls and processing the enter key I have come up with no solution. I tried returning Enter as true in IsInputKey(Keys keyData) and that didn't work. Neither did setting KeyPreview on the form. I have tried it with my custom button and .NET's standard button. Like I mentioned earlier, spacebar will trigger the desired effect. Please tell me what I am missing. There has to be an easy / stupid simple way to get Enter to process over to the active child control.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate/JPA and PostgreSQL - Primary Key?

    - by Shadowman
    I'm trying to implement some basic entities using Hibernate/JPA. Initially the code was deployed on MySQL and was working fine. Now, I'm porting it over to use PostgreSQL. In MySQL, my entity class defines its primary key as an auto-incrementing long value with the following syntax: @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; However, I've found that I get errors with PostgreSQL when I try and insert numerous records at a time. What do I need to annotate my primary key with to get the same auto-incrementing behavior in PostgreSQL as I have with MySQL? Thanks for any help you can provide!

    Read the article

  • Multiple foreign keys from one table linking to single primary key in second table

    - by croker10
    Hi all, I have a database with three tables, a household table, an adults table and a users table. The Household table contains two foreign keys, iAdult1ID and iAdult2ID. The Users table has a iUserID primary key and the Adult table has a corresponding iUserID foreign key. One of the columns in the Users table is strUsername, an e-mail address. I am trying to write a query that will allow me to search for an e-mail address for either adult that has a relation to the household. So I have two questions, assuming that all the values are not null, how can I do this? And two, in reality, iAdult2ID can be null, is it still possible to write a query to do this? Thanks for your help. Let me know if you need any more information.

    Read the article

  • Multiple Foriegn Keys from One Table linking to single Primary Key in second Table

    - by croker10
    Hi all, I have a database with three tables, a household table, an adults table and a users table. The Household table contains two foreign keys, iAdult1ID and iAdult2ID. The Users table has a iUserID primary key and the Adult table has a corresponding iUserID foreign key. One of the columns in the Users table is strUsername, an e-mail address. I am trying to write a query that will allow me to search for an e-mail address for either adult that has a relation to the household. So I have two questions, assuming that all the values are not null, how can I do this? And two, in reality, iAdult2ID can be null, is it still possible to write a query to do this? Thanks for your help. Let me know if you need any more information.

    Read the article

  • Unexpected key-value behavior in a Core Data Context

    - by ????
    If I create an array of strings (via key-value coding) containing the names of a Managed Object entity's attributes which are stored in the App Delegate the first time, I get an array of NSStrings without any problems. If I subsequently make the same call later from the same entry point in code, that same collection becomes an array of NULL objects- even though nothing in the Core Data Context has changed. One unappealing work-around involves re-creating the string array every time, but I'm wondering if anyone has a guess as to what's happening behind the scenes. // Return an array of strings with the names of attributes the Activity entity - (NSArray *)activityAttributeNames { #pragma mark ALWAYS REFRESH THE ENTITY NAMES? //if (activityAttributeNames == nil) { // Create an entity pointer for Activity NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Activity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSArray *entityAttributeArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:[[entity attributesByName] allValues]]; // Extract the names of the attributes with Key-Value Coding activityAttributeNames = [entityAttributeArray valueForKeyPath:@"name"]; [entityAttributeArray release]; //} return activityAttributeNames; }

    Read the article

  • How to handle Foreign key for optional field in .NET

    - by brz dot net
    What is the best way to handle following situation? A dropdown(for master table) is optional in a particular form. But, In database table the field is constrained with foreign key. If user don't select from dropdown then It creates problem because of foreign key. One solution is to create default option in master table and use it in case of blank selection. but in dropdown, we need to handle this to show on top. Is it perfect solution? Is there any other optimized solution for this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I bind a key to "the function represented by the following key sequence"?

    - by katrielalex
    I'm just starting to learn emacs (woohoo!) and I've been mucking around in my .emacs quite happily. Unfortunately, I don't know Lisp yet, so I'm having issues with the basics. I've already remapped a few keys until I fix my muscle memory: (global-set-key (kbd "<f9>") 'recompile) That's fine. But how can I tell a key to 'simulate pressing several keys'? For instance, I don't know, make <f1> do the same as C-u 2 C-x } (widen buffer by two chars). One way is to look up that C-x } calls shrink-window-horizontally, and do some sort of lambda thing. This is of course the neat and elegant way (how do you do this?). But surely there's a way to define <f1> to send the keystrokes C-u 2 C-x }?

    Read the article

  • How to detect tab key pressing in C#?

    - by user342325
    I want to detect when tab key is pressed in a textBox and focus the next textbox in the panel. I have tried out keyPressed method and keyDown method. But when I run the program and debug those methods are not calling when the tab key is pressed. Here is my code. private void textBoxName_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Tab) { textBoxUsername.Focus(); } } private void textBoxName_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar==(char)Keys.Tab) { textBoxUsername.Focus(); } } Please correct me.Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Python raises a KeyError (for an out of dictionary key) even though the key IS in the dictionary

    - by ignorantslut
    I'm getting a KeyError for an out of dictionary key, even though I know the key IS in fact in the dictionary. Any ideas as to what might be causing this? print G.keys() returns the following: ['24', '25', '20', '21', '22', '23', '1', '3', '2', '5', '4', '7', '6', '9', '8', '11', '10', '13', '12', '15', '14', '17', '16', '19', '18'] but when I try to access a value in the dictionary on the next line of code... for w in G[v]: #note that in this example, v = 17 I get the following error message: KeyError: 17 Any help, tips, or advice are all appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Multi-Column Primary Key in MySQL 5

    - by Kaji
    I'm trying to learn how to use keys and to break the habit of necessarily having SERIAL type IDs for all rows in all my tables. At the same time, I'm also doing many-to-many relationships, and so requiring unique values on either column of the tables that coordinate the relationships would hamper that. How can I define a primary key on a table such that any given value can be repeated in any column, so long as the combination of values across all columns is never repeated exactly?

    Read the article

  • How do I name an array key with a key inside the array

    - by Confused
    I have some data, yes, data. This data came from a MySQL query and it will always contain 4 items, always. I want to cache that data in an array table for use later within a web page but I want to keep the keys from the query and separate out each grouping within a multidimensional array. However to save time iterating through the array each time I want to find a given group of data, I want to call the keys of the first array the same as the ID key which is always the first key within each four items. At the minute I'm using this code: function mysql_fetch_full_result_array($result) { $table_result=array(); $r=0; while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)){ $arr_row=array(); $c=0; while ($c < mysql_num_fields($result)) { $col = mysql_fetch_field($result, $c); $arr_row[$col -> name] = $row[$col -> name]; $c++; } $table_result[$r] = $arr_row; $r++; } return $table_result; } I'm currently testing this using 3 unique users, so I'm getting three rows back from the query and the data from this function ends up in the format: [0]=> . . [id] => 1 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [1]=> . . [id] => 34 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [2]=> . . [id] => 56 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data So how do I alter the code to instead of the keys [0], [1], [2] give me the output: [1]=> . . [id] => 1 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [34]=> . . [id] => 34 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data [56]=> . . [id] => 56 . . [name] => random name . . [tel] => random tel . . [post] => post code data I don't mind if the main array keys are strings of numbers rather than numbers but I'm a bit stuck, I tried changing the $table_result[$r] = $arr_row; part to read $table_result[$result['id']] = $arr_row; but that just outputs an array of one person. I know I need another loop but I'm struggling to work out how to write it.

    Read the article

  • Rejuvenated: Script Creates and Drops for Candidate Keys and Referencing Foreign Keys

    - by Adam Machanic
    Once upon a time it was 2004, and I wrote what I have to say was a pretty cool little script . (Yes, I know the post is dated 2006, but that's because I dropped the ball and failed to back-date the posts when I moved them over here from my prior blog space.) The impetus for creating this script was (and is) simple: Changing keys can be a painful experience. Sometimes you want to make a clustered key nonclustered, or a nonclustered key clustered. Or maybe you want to add a column to the key. Or remove...(read more)

    Read the article

  • Retail windows xp prof sp 2 Lost key but have the genuine cd , what to do?

    - by AdityaGameProgrammer
    I had recently formatted my system only to find out i have lost the cd key to my original cd. i had used the option to enter the product key later. Yes, i know its a stupid thing to do but i bought the cd in 2008 from a retail store and i lost the original packaging. the actual label on the cd is includes service pack version 2002 .@2004 microsoft corporation reserved. There are some numbers on the back side of the cd in the inner ring. i cant for the life of me figure out how what is the use of the genuine cd i have with me when i cant seem to activate it. what exactly is the advantage of having the original cd in your possession in situations like this?. i have tried the unattend.txt and it doesnt contain the correct key. and there does not exist any winnnt.sif file in the cd. where on the cd or in it can i find the product id information i stay in india . and my attempts at trying the microsoft support site keeps getting me directed to page which says they had stopped support for windows xp in 2011. lets say by some miracle i do contact microsoft. what information would i have to provide them? and would they be giving me the product key for my cd key from their database? or a new key?

    Read the article

  • How To Map Fn+Key (Multiple Keys) To Other Key in Windows?

    - by Mohamed Meligy
    I've got a ThinkPad W530 laptop, which replaces the Application Key (also known as Menu Key or Mouse Right Click key, usually between Right Alt and Right Ctrl) with the Print Screen key. So, I need to replace Prt/Scr with Application key. That's easy, all key mapping software like SharpKeys or whatever can do that. There are even a few threads in SuperUser about dozen of those. But then, the different part to this question from the others (which is why it's not a duplicate, I think) is that I also don't want to completely lose the Prt/Scr key. I'm thinking about replacing it with either: Fn + Prt/Scr Fn + F2 These seemed to have no special meaning, so, I'm not overriding anything, just adding functionality to either of them (one of them, not both), to be the new Prt/Scr key. I couldn't find any key mapping software that can detect or let me select more than one key to map, even when the other key is something like Fn key (although they all can map Fn key itself, without combination). I know it may make sense why this restriction exists, but it'll be really useful if I can override it though. Do you know any program that can do that? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • dynamically horizontal scalable key value store

    - by Zubair
    Hi, Is there a key value store that will give me the following: Allow me to simply add and remove nodes and will redstribute the data automatically Allow me to remove nodes and still have 2 extra data nodes to provide redundancy Allow me to store text or images up to 1GB in size Can store small size data up to 100TB of data Fast (so will allow queries to be performed on top of it) Make all this transparent to the client Works on Ubuntu/FreeBSD or Mac Free or open source I basically want something I can use a "single", and not have to worry about having memcached, a db, and several storage components so yes, I do want a database "silver bullet" you could say. Thanks Zubair Answers so far: MogileFS on top of BackBlaze - As far as I can see this is just a filesystem, and after some research it only seems to be appropriate for large image files Tokyo Tyrant - Needs lightcloud. This doesn't auto scale as you add new nodes. I did look into this and it seems it is very fast for queries which fit onto a single node though Riak - This is one I am looking into myself, but I don't have any results yet Amazon S3 - Is anyone using this as their sole persistance layer in production? From what I have seen it seems to be used for storage of images as complex queries are too expensive @shaman suggested Cassandra - definitely one I am looking into So far it seems that there is no database or key value store that fulfills the criteria I mentioned, not even after offering a bounty of 100 points did the question get answered!

    Read the article

  • Get the current array key in a multi dimensional array

    - by johlton
    Hi *, I have a session array *$_SESSION['cart']* with some items in it. The structure ist like this (via *print_r*): Array ( [2-1] => Array ( [color] => 7 [articlenumber] => WRG70 10 [quantity] => 1 [price] => 17.50 ) [3-8] => Array ( [color] => 2 [articlenumber] => QRG50 02 [quantity] => 1 [price] => 13.50 ) ) Looping over the values for display is fine ... foreach($_SESSION['cart'] as $item_array) { foreach($item_array as $item => $value) { echo $value . ' | '; } } ... since it results in something like this: 7 | WRG70 10 | 1 | 17.50 | 2 | QRG50 02 | 1 | 13.50 | But Now: How can I output the matching key (e.g. '2-1') as well? I tried some array functions like key() & current but couldn't get it to work (one of these days). Any quick hint on this? Thanks a lot and best from Berlin Fabian

    Read the article

  • Encrypt a file base upon a pregenerated "key" C#

    - by Anubis
    Hello everyone. I'm trying to determine the best course of action to implement a simple "licensing" system with a partner of mine. The concept is: Generate an encrypted value based upon several internal hardware components. Have the customer send this value to us which we will implement into our key generator. Once we have that, we add any other restrictions on the license (user, expires, etc.). From there we generate a file which we send to the customer they can add to their installation and voila, happy people about. I have the first part all done. My next part is trying to figure out which encryption methodology I would need to use. I already know Symmetric Encryption is pretty much the only route I can take. Most of the information I have found involves .NET already creating a key from its own internal methods. That's a bit of background, my question is: "Which encryption method could I use which would allow me to encrypt the restrictions based upon the "id" I was given from the customer's computer?" I'm writing this in C# by the way. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! Take Care!

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

    Read the article

  • NSArrayController that is sorted and unique (no duplicates) for use in a pop-up in a core-data app

    - by Douglas Weaver
    I have core data app with an entity OBSERVATION that has as one of its attributes DEALNAME. I want to reference through Interface Builder or by making custom modifications to an NSArrayController a list of unique sorted dealnames so that I can use them in a pop-up. I have attempted to use @distinctUnionOfSets (and @distinctUnionOfArrays) but am unable to locate the proper key sequence. I can sort the ArrayController by providing a sort descriptor, but do not know how to eliminate duplicates. Are the @distinct... keys the right methodology? It would seem to provide the easiest way to optimize the use of IB. Is there a predicate form for removing duplicates? Or do I need to use my custom controller to extract an NSSet of the specific dealnames, put them back in an array and sort it and reference the custom array from IB? Any help would be appreciated. I am astounded that other have not tried to create a sorted-unique pop-up in tableviews.

    Read the article

  • Synergy 1.4.2 Linux server, OSX client, Media/Function key mapping issues

    - by at165dB
    I'm using an Apple bluetooth keybord to control my Linux synergy server. SSH tunneling, Mouse, Keyboard, and Copy&Paste all work. Linux sees all the media/app keys that are on top of the F# keys correctly. However if I press any of those keys while controlling my OSX client, nothing happens on the client. Running synergys with -d DEBUG1 I can see the following keycode info: Pressing the "dim monitor" key that also serves as F1 generates: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=232, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 If I press "fn" and the same key, I can see it sending what I'm assuming is an F1: event: KeyPress code=67, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=61374 mask=0x2000 button=0x0043 send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=61374, mask=0x2000, button=0x0043 new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=67, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=61374 mask=0x2000 button=0x0043 send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=61374, mask=0x2000, button=0x0043 I'm guessing I need to tweak my synergy.conf so that the server sends keys that it currently isn't. I'm also not sure what I need to do to tweak the keys that it is sending, but are not working. Below are all the other keys I'm having issues with. Does anyone have any idea how I can enable their functionality? brighten monitor: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=233, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 expose: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=128, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 dashboard: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=212, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 dim keyboard: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=237, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 brighten keyboard: new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyPress code=238, state=0x0010 new mask: 0x2000 rewind: event: KeyPress code=173, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57521 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ad send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57521, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ad new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=173, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57521 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ad send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57521, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ad play/pause: event: KeyPress code=172, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57523 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ac send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57523, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ac new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=172, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57523 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ac send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57523, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ac fastforward: event: KeyPress code=171, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57520 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ab send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57520, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ab new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=171, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57520 mask=0x2000 button=0x00ab send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57520, mask=0x2000, button=0x00ab mute: event: KeyPress code=121, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57517 mask=0x2000 button=0x0079 send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57517, mask=0x2000, button=0x0079 new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=121, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57517 mask=0x2000 button=0x0079 send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57517, mask=0x2000, button=0x0079 volume down: onKeyDown id=57518 mask=0x2000 button=0x007a send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57518, mask=0x2000, button=0x007a new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=122, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57518 mask=0x2000 button=0x007a send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57518, mask=0x2000, button=0x007a volume up: event: KeyPress code=123, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57519 mask=0x2000 button=0x007b send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57519, mask=0x2000, button=0x007b new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=123, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57519 mask=0x2000 button=0x007b send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57519, mask=0x2000, button=0x007b eject: event: KeyPress code=169, state=0x0010 onKeyDown id=57345 mask=0x2000 button=0x00a9 send key down to "foo.cisco.com" id=57345, mask=0x2000, button=0x00a9 new mask: 0x2000 event: KeyRelease code=169, state=0x0010 onKeyUp id=57345 mask=0x2000 button=0x00a9 send key up to "foo.cisco.com" id=57345, mask=0x2000, button=0x00a9

    Read the article

  • Does ssh key need to be named id_rsa?

    - by dustyprogrammer
    I have come across this problem a couple of times when creating build servers with keyed authentication. I was wondering if anyone else has experience this. I have a couple of keys for my current user that may connect to different machines. Let say machine1 and machine2. I have pasted my public key into their respective authorized_keys file. The first one I have named the first key id_rsa and the second key bender. When I try to connect to bender I get the following output with my verbose ssh connection debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /home/bozo/.ssh/.ssh/identity debug1: Trying private key: /home/bozo/.ssh/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Trying private key: /home/bozo/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). It only offers the id_rsa key, as you can see above. Is this correct? If so why? How do I get it to offer more keys? I know it is a problem I see intermittently, because I at home I have multiple keys without much trouble. I would also appreciate a overview on how the pub and private keys interact with the client and server. I thought I had a pretty decent idea, but apparently I am missing something. Please and thank you.

    Read the article

  • OpenSSL without prompt

    - by JP19
    Hi, I am using following code to generate keys: apt-get -qq -y install openssl; mkdir -p /etc/apache2/ssl; openssl genrsa -des3 -out server.key 1024; openssl req -new -key server.key -out server.csr; cp server.key server.key.org; openssl rsa -in server.key.org -out server.key; openssl x509 -req -days 12000 -in server.csr -signkey server.key -out server.crt; mv server.crt /etc/apache2/ssl/cert.pem; mv server.key /etc/apache2/ssl/cert.key; rm -f server.key.orig; rm -f server.csr How can I skip the passphrase prompting? thanks JP

    Read the article

  • Creating deterministic key pairs in javascript for use in encrypting/decrypting/signing messages

    - by SlickTheNick
    So I have been searching everywhere and havn't been able to find anything with the sufficient information I need.. so Im a bit stumped on this one at the moment What I am trying to do is create a public/private key pair (like PGP) upon a users account creation, based on their passphrase and a random seed. The public key would be saved on the server, and ideally the private key would never be seen by the server whatsoever. The user could then sign in, and send a message to another user. Before the message is sent, the senders key pair would be re-generated on the fly based on their credentials (and maybe a password prompt) and used to encrypt the message. The receiver would then use their own re-generated private key to decrypt said message. The server itself should never see any plaintext passwords, private keys or readable messages. Bit unsure how on how I could go about implementing this. Iv been looking into PGP, specifically openPGP.js. The main trouble I am having is being able to regenerate the key-pair based off a specific seed. PGP seems to have a random output even if the inputs are the same. Storing the private key in a cookie or in HTML5 storage or something also isnt really an option, too unreliable. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20  | Next Page >