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  • Convert IEnumerable to EntitySet

    - by Gregorius
    Hey all, Hoping somebody can shed some light, and perhaps a possible solution to this issue I'm having... I have used LINQ to SQL to pull some data from a database into local entities. They are products from a shopping cart system. A product can contain a collection of KitGroups (which are stored in an EntitySet (System.Data.Linq.EntitySet). KitGroups contain collections of KitItems, and KitItems can contain Nested Products (which link back up to the original Product type - so its recursive). From these entities I'm building XML using LINQ to XML - all good here - my XML looks beautiful, calling a "GenerateProductElement" function, which calls itself recursively to generate the nested products. Wonderful stuff. However, here's where i'm stuck.. i'm now trying to deserialize that XML back to the original objects (all autogenerated by Linq to SQL)... and herein lies the problem. Linq tO Sql expects my collections to be EntitySet collections, however Linq to Xml (which i'm tyring to use to deserailise) is returning IEnumerable. I've experimented with a few ways of casting between the 2, but nothing seems to work... I'm starting to think that I should just deserialise manually (with some funky loops and conditionals to determine which KitGroup KitItems belong to, etc)... however its really quite tricky and that code is likely to be quite ugly, so I'd love to find a more elegant solution to this problem. Any suggestions? Here's a code snippet: private Product GenerateProductFromXML(XDocument inDoc) { var prod = from p in inDoc.Descendants("Product") select new Product { ProductID = (int)p.Attribute("ID"), ProductGUID = (Guid)p.Attribute("GUID"), Name = (string)p.Element("Name"), Summary = (string)p.Element("Summary"), Description = (string)p.Element("Description"), SEName = (string)p.Element("SEName"), SETitle = (string)p.Element("SETitle"), XmlPackage = (string)p.Element("XmlPackage"), IsAKit = (byte)(int)p.Element("IsAKit"), ExtensionData = (string)p.Element("ExtensionData"), }; //TODO: UUGGGGGGG Converting b/w IEnumerable & EntitySet var kitGroups = (from kg in inDoc.Descendants("KitGroups").Elements("KitGroup") select new KitGroup { KitGroupID = (int) kg.Attribute("ID"), KitGroupGUID = (Guid) kg.Attribute("GUID"), Name = (string) kg.Element("Name"), KitItems = // THIS IS WHERE IT FAILS - "Cannot convert source type IEnumerable to target type EntitySet..." (from ki in kg.Descendants("KitItems").Elements("KitItem") select new KitItem { KitItemID = (int) ki.Attribute("ID"), KitItemGUID = (Guid) ki.Attribute("GUID") }); }); Product ImportedProduct = prod.First(); ImportedProduct.KitGroups = new EntitySet<KitGroup>(); ImportedProduct.KitGroups.AddRange(kitGroups); return ImportedProduct; }

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  • How do I correctly Re-render a Recaptcha in ASP.NET MVC 2 after an AJAX POST

    - by Eoin Campbell
    Ok... I've downloaded and implemented this Recaptcha implementation for MVC which uses the ModelState to confirm the validity of the captcha control. It works brilliantly... except when I start to use it in an AJAX Form. In a nutshell, when a div is re-rendered with AJAX, the ReCaptcha that it should contain does not appear, even though the relevant <scripts> are in the source after the partial render. Code Below. using (Ajax.BeginForm("CreateComment", "Blog", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "CommentAdd", OnComplete="ReloadRecaptcha", OnSuccess = "ShowComment", OnFailure = "ShowComment", OnBegin = "HideComment" })) {%> <fieldset class="comment"> <legend>Add New Comment</legend> <%= Html.ValidationSummary()%> <table class="postdetails"> <tbody> <tr> <td rowspan="3" id="blahCaptcha"> <%= Html.CreateRecaptcha("recaptcha", "blackglass") %> </td> .... Remainder of Form Omitted for Brevity I've confirmed the Form is perfectly functional when the Recaptcha Control is not present and the Javascript calls in the AjaxOptions are all working fine. The problem is that if the ModelState is Invalid as a result of the Recaptcha or some other validation, then the ActionResult returns the View to reshow the form. [RecaptchaFilter(IgnoreOnMobile = true)] [HttpPost] public ActionResult CreateComment(Comment c) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //Code to insert Comment To DB return Content("Thank You"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(c.GetRuleViolations()); } } else { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(c.GetRuleViolations()); } return View("CreateComment", c); } When it's InValid and the form posts back, for some reason the ReCaptcha Control does not re-render. I've checked the source and the <script> & <noscript> blocks are present in the HTML so the HTML Helper function below is obviously working <%= Html.CreateRecaptcha("recaptcha", "blackglass") %> I assume this has something to do with scripts injected into the DOM by AJAX are not re-executed. As you can see from the HTML snippet above, I've tried to add an OnComplete= javascript function to re-create the Captcha on the client side, but although the script executes with no errors, it doesn't work. OnComplete Function is. function ReloadRecaptcha() { Recaptcha.create("my-pub-key", 'blahCaptcha', { //blahCaptcha is the ID of the <td> where the ReCaptcha should go. theme: 'blackglass' }); } Can anyone shed any light on this ? Thanks, Eoin C

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  • Using MVC2 to update an Entity Framework v4 object with foreign keys fails

    - by jbjon
    With the following simple relational database structure: An Order has one or more OrderItems, and each OrderItem has one OrderItemStatus. Entity Framework v4 is used to communicate with the database and entities have been generated from this schema. The Entities connection happens to be called EnumTestEntities in the example. The trimmed down version of the Order Repository class looks like this: public class OrderRepository { private EnumTestEntities entities = new EnumTestEntities(); // Query Methods public Order Get(int id) { return entities.Orders.SingleOrDefault(d => d.OrderID == id); } // Persistence public void Save() { entities.SaveChanges(); } } An MVC2 app uses Entity Framework models to drive the views. I'm using the EditorFor feature of MVC2 to drive the Edit view. When it comes to POSTing back any changes to the model, the following code is called: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { // Get the current Order out of the database by ID Order order = orderRepository.Get(id); var orderItems = order.OrderItems; try { // Update the Order from the values posted from the View UpdateModel(order, ""); // Without the ValueProvider suffix it does not attempt to update the order items UpdateModel(order.OrderItems, "OrderItems.OrderItems"); // All the Save() does is call SaveChanges() on the database context orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = order.OrderID }); } catch (Exception e) { return View(order); // Inserted while debugging } } The second call to UpdateModel has a ValueProvider suffix which matches the auto-generated HTML input name prefixes that MVC2 has generated for the foreign key collection of OrderItems within the View. The call to SaveChanges() on the database context after updating the OrderItems collection of an Order using UpdateModel generates the following exception: "The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted." When debugging through this code, I can still see that the EntityKeys are not null and seem to be the same value as they should be. This still happens when you are not changing any of the extracted Order details from the database. Also the entity connection to the database doesn't change between the act of Getting and the SaveChanges so it doesn't appear to be a Context issue either. Any ideas what might be causing this problem? I know EF4 has done work on foreign key properties but can anyone shed any light on how to use EF4 and MVC2 to make things easy to update; rather than having to populate each property manually. I had hoped the simplicity of EditorFor and DisplayFor would also extend to Controllers updating data. Thanks

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  • How to track deleted self-tracking entities in ObservableCollection without memory leaks

    - by Yannick M.
    In our multi-tier business application we have ObservableCollections of Self-Tracking Entities that are returned from service calls. The idea is we want to be able to get entities, add, update and remove them from the collection client side, and then send these changes to the server side, where they will be persisted to the database. Self-Tracking Entities, as their name might suggest, track their state themselves. When a new STE is created, it has the Added state, when you modify a property, it sets the Modified state, it can also have Deleted state but this state is not set when the entity is removed from an ObservableCollection (obviously). If you want this behavior you need to code it yourself. In my current implementation, when an entity is removed from the ObservableCollection, I keep it in a shadow collection, so that when the ObservableCollection is sent back to the server, I can send the deleted items along, so Entity Framework knows to delete them. Something along the lines of: protected IDictionary<int, IList> DeletedCollections = new Dictionary<int, IList>(); protected void SubscribeDeletionHandler<TEntity>(ObservableCollection<TEntity> collection) { var deletedEntities = new List<TEntity>(); DeletedCollections[collection.GetHashCode()] = deletedEntities; collection.CollectionChanged += (o, a) => { if (a.OldItems != null) { deletedEntities.AddRange(a.OldItems.Cast<TEntity>()); } }; } Now if the user decides to save his changes to the server, I can get the list of removed items, and send them along: ObservableCollection<Customer> customers = MyServiceProxy.GetCustomers(); customers.RemoveAt(0); MyServiceProxy.UpdateCustomers(customers); At this point the UpdateCustomers method will verify my shadow collection if any items were removed, and send them along to the server side. This approach works fine, until you start to think about the life-cycle these shadow collections. Basically, when the ObservableCollection is garbage collected there is no way of knowing that we need to remove the shadow collection from our dictionary. I came up with some complicated solution that basically does manual memory management in this case. I keep a WeakReference to the ObservableCollection and every few seconds I check to see if the reference is inactive, in which case I remove the shadow collection. But this seems like a terrible solution... I hope the collective genius of StackOverflow can shed light on a better solution. Thanks!

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  • Eclipse Galileo won't start after OS X update to 10.6.3

    - by GC
    Hi All, I have just updated os x to 10.6.3 and no Eclipse won't start the logs show the following error, but I can't figure it out. Can anyone shed any light? !SESSION 2010-03-30 10:06:38.244 ----------------------------------------------- eclipse.buildId=M20090917-0800 java.version=1.6.0_17 java.vendor=Apple Inc. BootLoader constants: OS=macosx, ARCH=x86, WS=cocoa, NL=en_US Framework arguments: -product org.eclipse.epp.package.php.product -keyring /Users/gav/.eclipse_keyring -showlocation Command-line arguments: -os macosx -ws cocoa -arch x86 -product org.eclipse.epp.package.php.product -keyring /Users/gav/.eclipse_keyring -showlocation !ENTRY org.eclipse.ui.workbench 2 0 2010-03-30 10:06:40.139 !MESSAGE A handler conflict occurred. This may disable some commands. !SUBENTRY 1 org.eclipse.ui.workbench 2 0 2010-03-30 10:06:40.139 !MESSAGE Conflict for 'com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.actionKeyCommand': HandlerActivation(commandId=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.actionKeyCommand, handler=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.ActionKeyCommandHandler, expression=,sourcePriority=0) HandlerActivation(commandId=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.actionKeyCommand, handler=com.aptana.ide.editors.views.actions.ActionKeyCommandHandler, expression=,sourcePriority=0) !ENTRY org.eclipse.ui 4 0 2010-03-30 10:06:40.964 !MESSAGE Unhandled event loop exception !STACK 0 java.lang.NullPointerException at org.eclipse.swt.graphics.Device.getFontList(Device.java:369) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.filterData(FontRegistry.java:465) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.createFont(FontRegistry.java:499) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.defaultFontRecord(FontRegistry.java:563) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.defaultFontData(FontRegistry.java:575) at org.eclipse.jface.resource.FontRegistry.getFontData(FontRegistry.java:591) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.themes.ThemeElementHelper.installFont(ThemeElementHelper.java:116) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.themes.ThemeElementHelper.populateRegistry(ThemeElementHelper.java:59) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench$33.runWithException(Workbench.java:1482) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.StartupThreading$StartupRunnable.run(StartupThreading.java:31) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.RunnableLock.run(RunnableLock.java:35) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Synchronizer.runAsyncMessages(Synchronizer.java:134) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.runAsyncMessages(Display.java:3405) at org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display.readAndDispatch(Display.java:3102) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.runUI(Workbench.java:2316) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.access$4(Workbench.java:2221) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench$5.run(Workbench.java:500) at org.eclipse.core.databinding.observable.Realm.runWithDefault(Realm.java:332) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.Workbench.createAndRunWorkbench(Workbench.java:493) at org.eclipse.ui.PlatformUI.createAndRunWorkbench(PlatformUI.java:149) at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ide.application.IDEApplication.start(IDEApplication.java:113) at org.eclipse.equinox.internal.app.EclipseAppHandle.run(EclipseAppHandle.java:194) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.internal.adaptor.EclipseAppLauncher.runApplication(EclipseAppLauncher.java:110) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.internal.adaptor.EclipseAppLauncher.start(EclipseAppLauncher.java:79) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.adaptor.EclipseStarter.run(EclipseStarter.java:368) at org.eclipse.core.runtime.adaptor.EclipseStarter.run(EclipseStarter.java:179) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.invokeFramework(Main.java:559) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.basicRun(Main.java:514) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.run(Main.java:1311) It looks like the update may have upgraded the Java version, possibly :S but I don't know if this can be rolled back even if it did update it. java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04-248-10M3025) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01-101, mixed mode) Thanks in advance!

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  • Resizing QT's QTextEdit to Match Text Height: maximumViewportSize()

    - by Aaron
    I am trying to use a QTextEdit widget inside of a form containing several QT widgets. The form itself sits inside a QScrollArea that is the central widget for a window. My intent is that any necessary scrolling will take place in the main QScrollArea (rather than inside any widgets), and any widgets inside will automatically resize their height to hold their contents. I have tried to implement the automatic resizing of height with a QTextEdit, but have run into an odd issue. I created a sub-class of QTextEdit and reimplemented sizeHint() like this: QSize OperationEditor::sizeHint() const { QSize sizehint = QTextBrowser::sizeHint(); sizehint.setHeight(this->fitted_height); return sizehint; } this-fitted_height is kept up-to-date via this slot that is wired to the QTextEdit's "contentsChanged()" signal: void OperationEditor::fitHeightToDocument() { this->document()->setTextWidth(this->viewport()->width()); QSize document_size(this->document()->size().toSize()); this->fitted_height = document_size.height(); this->updateGeometry(); } The size policy of the QTextEdit sub-class is: this->setSizePolicy(QSizePolicy::MinimumExpanding, QSizePolicy::Preferred); I took this approach after reading this post. Here is my problem: As the QTextEdit gradually resizes to fill the window, it stops getting larger and starts scrolling within the QTextEdit, no matter what height is returned from sizeHint(). If I initially have sizeHint() return some large constant number, then the QTextEdit is very big and is contained nicely within the outer QScrollArea, as one would expect. However, if sizeHint gradually adjusts the size of the QTextEdit rather than just making it really big to start, then it tops out when it fills the current window and starts scrolling instead of growing. I have traced this problem to be that, no matter what my sizeHint() returns, it will never resize the QTextEdit larger than the value returned from maximumViewportSize(), which is inherited from QAbstractScrollArea. Note that this is not the same number as viewport()-maximumSize(). I am unable to figure out how to set that value. Looking at QT's source code, maximumViewportSize() is returning "the size of the viewport as if the scroll bars had no valid scrolling range." This value is basically computed as the current size of the widget minus (2 * frameWidth + margins) plus any scrollbar widths/heights. This does not make a lot of sense to me, and it's not clear to me why that number would be used anywhere in a way that supercede's the sub-class's sizeHint() implementation. Also, it does seem odd that the single "frameWidth" integer is used in computing both the width and the height. Can anyone please shed some light on this? I suspect that my poor understanding of QT's layout engine is to blame here.

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  • Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

    - by Wayne M
    After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

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  • Single Sign On for a Web App

    - by Jeremy Goodell
    I have been trying to understand how this problem is solved for over a month now. I really need to come up with a general approach that works -- I'm basically the only resource who can do it. I have a theory, but I'm just not sure it's the easiest (or correct) approach and I haven't been able to find any information to support my ideas. Here's the scenario: 1) You have a complex web application that offers secure content on a subscription basis. 2) Users are required to log in to your application with user name and password. 3) You sell to large corporations, which already have a corporate authentication technology (for example, Active Directory). 4) You would like to integrate with the corporate authentication mechanism to allow their users to log onto your Web App without having to enter their user name and password. Now, any solution you come up with will have to provide a mechanism for: adding new users removing users changing user information allowing users to log in Ideally, all these would happen "automagically" when the corporate customer made the corresponding changes to their own authentication. Now, I have a theory that the way to do this (at least for Active Directory) would be for me to write a client-side app that integrates with the customer's Active Directory to track the targeted changes, and then communicate those changes to my Web App. I think that if this communication were done via Web Services offered by my web app, then it would maintain an unhackable level of security, which would obviously be a requirement for these corporate customers. I've found some information about a Microsoft product called Active Directory Federation Service (ADFS) which may or may not be the right approach for me. It seems to be a bit bulky and have some requirements that might not work for all customers. For other existing ID scenarios (like Athens and Shibboleth), I don't think a client application is necessary. It's probably just a matter of tying into the existing ID services. I would appreciate any advice anyone has on anything I've mentioned here. In particular, if you can tell me if my theory is correct about providing a client-side app that communicates with server-side Web Services, or if I'm totally going in the wrong direction. Also, if you could point me at any web sites or articles that explain how to do this, I'd really appreciate it. My research has not turned up much so far. Finally, if you could let me know of any Web applications that currently offer this service (particularly as tied to a corporate Active Directory), I would be very grateful. I am wondering if other B2B Web app's like salesforce.com, or hoovers.com offer a similar service for their corporate customers. I hate being in the dark and would greatly appreciate any light you can shed ... Jeremy

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  • How do I backup and restore the system clipboard in C#?

    - by gtaborga
    Hey everyone, I will do my best to explain in detail what I'm trying to achieve. I'm using C# with IntPtr window handles to perform a CTRL-C copy operation on an external application from my own C# application. I had to do this because there was no way of accessing the text directly using GET_TEXT. I'm then using the text content of that copy within my application. The problem here is that I have now overwritten the clipboard. What I would like to be able to do is: Backup the original contents of the clipboard which could have been set by any application other than my own. Then perform the copy and store the value into my application. Then restore the original contents of the clipboard so that the user still has access to his/her original clipboard data. This is the code I have tried so far: private void GetClipboardText() { text = ""; IDataObject backupClipboad = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); KeyboardInput input = new KeyboardInput(this); input.Copy(dialogHandle); // Performs a CTRL-C (copy) operation IDataObject clipboard = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); if (clipboard.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text)) { // Retrieves the text from the clipboard text = clipboard.GetData(DataFormats.Text) as string; } if (backupClipboad != null) { Clipboard.SetDataObject(backupClipboad, true); // throws exception } } I am using the System.Windows.Clipboard and not the System.Windows.Forms.Clipboard. The reason for this was that when I performed the CTRL-C, the Clipboard class from System.Windows.Forms did not return any data, but the system clipboard did. I looked into some of the low level user32 calls like OpenClipboard, EmptyClipboard, and CloseClipboard hoping that they would help my do this but so far I keep getting COM exceptions when trying to restore. I thought perhaps this had to do with the OpenClipboard parameter which is expecting an IntPtr window handle of the application which wants to take control of the clipboard. Since I mentioned that my application does not have a GUI this is a challenge. I wasn't sure what to pass here. Maybe someone can shed some light on that? Am I using the Clipboard class incorrectly? Is there a clear way to obtain the IntPtr window handle of an application with no GUI? Does anyone know of a better way to backup and restore the system clipboard?

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  • Not your usual "The multi-part identifier could not be bound" error

    - by Eugene Niemand
    I have the following query, now the strange thing is if I run this query on my development and pre-prod server it runs fine. If I run it on production it fails. I have figured out that if I run just the Select statement its happy but as soon as I try insert into the table variable it complains. DECLARE @RESULTS TABLE ( [Parent] VARCHAR(255) ,[client] VARCHAR(255) ,[ComponentName] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealName] VARCHAR(255) ,[Purchase Date] DATETIME ,[Start Date] DATETIME ,[End Date] DATETIME ,[Value] INT ,[Currency] VARCHAR(255) ,[Brand] VARCHAR(255) ,[Business Unit] VARCHAR(255) ,[Region] VARCHAR(255) ,[DealID] INT ) INSERT INTO @RESULTS SELECT DISTINCT ClientName 'Parent' ,F.ClientID 'client' ,ComponentName ,A.DealName ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(PurchaseDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Purchase Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(StartDate , '1900-01-01')) 'Start Date' ,CONVERT(SMALLDATETIME , ISNULL(EndDate , '1900-01-01')) 'End Date' ,DealValue 'Value' ,D.Currency 'Currency' ,ShortBrand 'Brand' ,G.BU 'Business Unit' ,C.DMRegion 'Region' ,DealID FROM LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deals A INNER JOIN dbo_DM_Brand B ON A.BrandID = B.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_Region C ON A.Region = C.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Currency D ON A.Currency = D.ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Clients E ON A.DealID = E.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Clients F ON E.Client_ID = F.ClientID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_DM_BU G ON G.ID = A.BU INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Components I ON I.ComponentID = H.Component_ID WHERE EndDate != '1899-12-30T00:00:00.000' AND StartDate < EndDate AND B.ID IN ( 1 , 2 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 10 , 12 ) AND C.SalesRegionID IN ( 1 , 3 , 4 , 11 , 16 ) AND A.BU IN ( 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 8 , 9 , 11 , 12 , 15 , 16 , 19 , 20 , 22 , 23 , 24 , 26 , 28 , 30 ) AND ClientID = 16128 SELECT ... FROM @Results I get the following error Msg 8180, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Statement(s) could not be prepared. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1021.ComponentName" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 The multi-part identifier "Tbl1011.Currency" could not be bound. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2454'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2461'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2491'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2490'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2482'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2478'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2477'. Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'Col2475'. EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT - EDIT through a process of elimination I have found that following and wondered if anyone can shed some light on this. If I remove only the DISTINCT the query runs fine, add the DISTINCT and I get strange errors. Also I have found that if I comment the following lines then the query runs with the DISTINCT what is strange is that none of the columns in the table LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components is referenced so I don't see how the distinct will affect that. INNER JOIN LTCDB_admin_tbl_Deal_Components H ON A.DealID = H.Deal_ID

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  • Jquery tools Overlay CSS Conflict, Image positioned under the overlay

    - by Ami Mahloof
    First here's what I'm usingh and trying to do: the minimal setup for this effect: flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/index.html then the Apple Leopard Preview Effect: flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/apple.html Now here's the page I'm having the issue with http://gentle-mist-64.heroku.com/pictures My Issue: when I click on an image the picture shows under the overlay and to the right side, This has to be a conflict between my CSS positioning to the the plugin positioning. when I try this on a blank page with no layout, it works just fine. my layout css: body{ background: url('/images/background.jpg'); } #image_stage{ position: relative; top: 30px; margin: auto; margin-top: 75px; background-color: white; width: 900px; height: 520px; } #image_inside_stage { float: left; margin-top: 7px; margin-left: 27px; } #logo{ position: absolute; left: 725px; top: 4px; } #see_through_box { position: absolute; background-color: black; opacity: 0.66; -moz-opacity: 0.66; filter:alpha(opacity=66); width: 665px; height: 432px; margin: 45px; z-index: 99; -moz-border-radius-topleft: 15px; -moz-border-radius-topright: 0; -moz-border-radius-bottomleft: 0; -moz-border-radius-bottomright: 15px; -webkit-border-top-left-radius: 15px; -webkit-border-top-right-radius: 0; -webkit-border-bottom-left-radius: 0; -webkit-border-bottom-right-radius: 15px; } .inner_content{ position: absolute; top: 75px; left: 75px; z-index: 99; color: whitesmoke; } Anyone Please Help, I want this plugin to work, this is so much better then just a light box plugin, I have used the plugin acros my entire website and would like to keep on using it. I Appreciate any input Thanks Ami

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  • Handling Model Inheritance in ASP.NET MVC2 & NHibernate

    - by enth
    I've gotten myself stuck on how to handle inheritance in my model when it comes to my controllers/views. Basic Model: public class Procedure : Entity { public Procedure() { } public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime ProcedureDate { get; set; } public ProcedureType Type { get; set; } } public ProcedureA : Procedure { public double VariableA { get; set; } public int VariableB { get; set; } public int Total { get; set; } } public ProcedureB : Procedure { public int Score { get; set; } } etc... many of different procedures eventually. So, I do things like list all the procedures: public class ProcedureController : Controller { public virtual ActionResult List() { IEnumerable<Procedure> procedures = _repository.GetAll(); return View(procedures); } } but now I'm kinda stuck. Basically, from the list page, I need to link to pages where the specific subclass details can be viewed/edited and I'm not sure what the best strategy is. I thought I could add an action on the ProcedureController that would conjure up the right subclass by dynamically figuring out what repository to use and loading the subclass to pass to the view. I had to store the class in the ProcedureType object. I had to create/implement a non-generic IRepository since I can't dynamically cast to a generic one. public virtual ActionResult Details(int procedureID) { Procedure procedure = _repository.GetById(procedureID, false); string className = procedure.Type.Class; Type type = Type.GetType(className, true); Type repositoryType = typeof (IRepository<>).MakeGenericType(type); var repository = (IRepository)DependencyRegistrar.Resolve(repositoryType); Entity procedure = repository.GetById(procedureID, false); return View(procedure); } I haven't even started sorting out how the view is going to determine which partial to load to display the subclass details. I'm wondering if this is a good approach? This makes determining the URL easy. It makes reusing the Procedure display code easy. Another approach is specific controllers for each subclass. It simplifies the controller code, but also means many simple controllers for the many procedure subclasses. Can work out the shared Procedure details with a partial view. How to get to construct the URL to get to the controller/action in the first place? Time to not think about it. Hopefully someone can show me the light. Thanks in advance.

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  • Using 32 bit g++ to build 64bit binaries on AIX

    - by Thumbeti
    I am trying to build a 64 bit binary from C++ code using 32bit g++ compiler. I am getting the following errors while building: ============================================================================= => /usr/local/bin/g++ -shared -maix64 -fPIC -Wl,-bM:SRE -Wl,-bnoentry -Wl,-bE:gcc_shr_lib.so.exp -o gcc_shr_lib.so gcc_shr_lib.o -L/usr/local/lib ld: 0711-319 WARNING: Exported symbol not defined: gcc_whereAmI ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: typeinfo for std::bad_alloc ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: __gxx_personality_v0 ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: vtable for std::exception ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: vtable for std::bad_alloc ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .std::ios_base::Init::Init() ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .std::ios_base::Init::~Init() ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .operator new(unsigned long) ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .operator delete(void*) ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: ._Unwind_Resume ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .__cxa_get_exception_ptr ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .__cxa_begin_catch ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: std::cout ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >& std::operator<< <std::char_traits<char> >(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&, char const*) ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >& std::endl<char, std::char_traits<char> >(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&) ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >::operator<<(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >& (*)(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&)) ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .std::bad_alloc::~bad_alloc() ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .__cxa_end_catch ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .__register_frame_info_table ld: 0711-317 ERROR: Undefined symbol: .__deregister_frame_info ld: 0711-345 Use the -bloadmap or -bnoquiet option to obtain more information. collect2: ld returned 8 exit status ============================================================================= It seems I need 64bit libstdc++ available on my build system. Could you please throw some light to solve this. Q1) Is it ok to build 64 bit binaries using 32 bit g++ compiler on AIX 5.2 Q2) Where should I get 64 bit libstdc++? Will this 64 bit libstdc++ work with 32bit g++ compiler?

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  • How to fix "could not find a base address that matches schema http"... in WCF

    - by Craig Shearer
    I'm trying to deploy a WCF service to my server, hosted in IIS. Naturally it works on my machine :) But when I deploy it, I get the following error: This collection already contains an address with scheme http. There can be at most one address per scheme in this collection. Googling on this, I find that I have to put a serviceHostingEnvironment element into the web.config file: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://mywebsiteurl"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> But once I have done this, I get the following: Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding BasicHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]. It seems it doesn't know what the base address is, but how do I specify it? Here's the relevant section of my web.config file: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://mywebsiteurl"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WcfPortalBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IWcfPortal" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:10:00" openTimeout="00:10:00" closeTimeout="00:10:00"> <readerQuotas maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647"/> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="WcfPortalBehavior" name="Csla.Server.Hosts.Silverlight.WcfPortal"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="Csla.Server.Hosts.Silverlight.IWcfPortal" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IWcfPortal"> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Can anybody shed some light on what's going on and how to fix it? Thanks! Craig

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  • OpenGL FrameBuffer Objects weird behavior

    - by Ben Jones
    My algorithm is this: Render the scene to a FBO with shadow mapping from multiple locations Render the scene to the screen with shadow mapping ...black magic that I still have to imlement... Combine the samples from step 1 with the image from step 2 I'm trying to debug steps 1 and 2 and am coming across STRANGE behavior. My algorithm for each shadow mapped pass is: render the scene to a FBO connected to a depth array texture from the POV of each light render the scene from the viewpoint and use vertex/frag shaders to compare the depths When I run my algorithm this way: render from point to FBO render from point to screen glutSwapBuffers() The normal vectors in the screen pass appear to be incorrect (inverted possibly). I'm pretty sure that's the issue because my diffuse lighting calculation is incorrect, but the material colors are correct, and the shadows appear in the correct places. So, it seems like the only thing that could be the culprit is the normals. However if I do render from point to FBO render from point to Screen glutSwapBuffers() //wrong here render from point to Screen glutSwapBuffers() the second pass is correct. I assume there's a problem with my framebuffer calls. Can anyone see what the problem is from the log below? Its from a bugle trace grepped for 'buffer' with a few edits to make it a little more clear. Thanks! [INFO] trace.call: glGenFramebuffersEXT(1, 0xdfeb90 - { 1 }) [INFO] trace.call: glGenFramebuffersEXT(1, 0xdfebac - { 2 }) [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glDrawBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glReadBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) //start render to FBO [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 2) [INFO] trace.call: glReadBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0, GL_TEXTURE_2D, 2, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, GL_TEXTURE_2D, 3, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glDrawBuffer(GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0) //bind to the FBO attached to a depth tex array for shadows [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //bind to the FBO I want the shadow mapped image rendered to [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 2) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //draw to screen pass //again shadow mapping FBO [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //bind to the screen [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //finished, swap buffers [INFO] trace.call: glXSwapBuffers(0xd5fc10, 0x05800002) //INCORRECT OUTPUT //second try at render to screen: [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) draw geometry [INFO] trace.call: glXSwapBuffers(0xd5fc10, 0x05800002) //correct output

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  • Need help implementing simple socket server using GIOService (GLib, Glib-GIO)

    - by Mark Renouf
    I'm learning the basics of writing a simple, efficient socket server using GLib. I'm experimenting with GSocketService. So far I can only seem to accept connections but then they are immediately closed. From the docs I can't figure out what step I am missing. I'm hoping someone can shed some light on this for me. When running the following: # telnet localhost 4000 Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. Connection closed by foreign host. # telnet localhost 4000 Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. Connection closed by foreign host. # telnet localhost 4000 Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. Connection closed by foreign host. Output from the server: # ./server New Connection from 127.0.0.1:36962 New Connection from 127.0.0.1:36963 New Connection from 127.0.0.1:36965 Current code: /* * server.c * * Created on: Mar 10, 2010 * Author: mark */ #include <glib.h> #include <gio/gio.h> gchar *buffer; gboolean network_read(GIOChannel *source, GIOCondition cond, gpointer data) { GString *s = g_string_new(NULL); GError *error; GIOStatus ret = g_io_channel_read_line_string(source, s, NULL, &error); if (ret == G_IO_STATUS_ERROR) g_error ("Error reading: %s\n", error->message); else g_print("Got: %s\n", s->str); } gboolean new_connection(GSocketService *service, GSocketConnection *connection, GObject *source_object, gpointer user_data) { GSocketAddress *sockaddr = g_socket_connection_get_remote_address(connection, NULL); GInetAddress *addr = g_inet_socket_address_get_address(G_INET_SOCKET_ADDRESS(sockaddr)); guint16 port = g_inet_socket_address_get_port(G_INET_SOCKET_ADDRESS(sockaddr)); g_print("New Connection from %s:%d\n", g_inet_address_to_string(addr), port); GSocket *socket = g_socket_connection_get_socket(connection); gint fd = g_socket_get_fd(socket); GIOChannel *channel = g_io_channel_unix_new(fd); g_io_add_watch(channel, G_IO_IN, (GIOFunc) network_read, NULL); return TRUE; } int main(int argc, char **argv) { g_type_init(); GSocketService *service = g_socket_service_new(); GInetAddress *address = g_inet_address_new_from_string("127.0.0.1"); GSocketAddress *socket_address = g_inet_socket_address_new(address, 4000); g_socket_listener_add_address(G_SOCKET_LISTENER(service), socket_address, G_SOCKET_TYPE_STREAM, G_SOCKET_PROTOCOL_TCP, NULL, NULL, NULL); g_object_unref(socket_address); g_object_unref(address); g_socket_service_start(service); g_signal_connect(service, "incoming", G_CALLBACK(new_connection), NULL); GMainLoop *loop = g_main_loop_new(NULL, FALSE); g_main_loop_run(loop); }

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  • How does one paint the entire row's background in a QStyledItemDelegate ?

    - by Casey Link
    I have a QTableView which I am setting a custom QStyledItemDelegate on. In addition to the custom item painting, I want to style the row's background color for the selection/hovered states. The look I am going for is something like this KGet screenshot: Here is my code: void MyDelegate::paint( QPainter* painter, const QStyleOptionViewItem& opt, const QModelIndex& index ) const { QBrush backBrush; QColor foreColor; bool hover = false; if ( opt.state & QStyle::State_MouseOver ) { backBrush = opt.palette.color( QPalette::Highlight ).light( 115 ); foreColor = opt.palette.color( QPalette::HighlightedText ); hover = true; } QStyleOptionViewItemV4 option(opt); initStyleOption(&option, index); painter->save(); const QStyle *style = option.widget ? option.widget->style() : QApplication::style(); const QWidget* widget = option.widget; if( hover ) { option.backgroundBrush = backBrush; } painter->save(); style->drawPrimitive(QStyle::PE_PanelItemViewItem, &option, painter, widget); painter->restore(); switch( index.column() ) { case 0: // we want default behavior style->drawControl(QStyle::CE_ItemViewItem, &option, painter, widget); break; case 1: // some custom drawText break; case 2: // draw a QStyleOptionProgressBar break; } painter->restore(); } The result is that each individual cell receives the mousedover background only when the mouse is over it, and not the entire row. It is hard to describe so here is a screenshot: In that picture the mouse was over the left most cell, hence the highlighted background.. but I want the background to be drawn over the entire row. How can I achieve this? Edit: With some more thought I've realized that the QStyle::State_MouseOver state is only being passed for actual cell which the mouse is over, and when the paint method is called for the other cells in the row QStyle::State_MouseOver is not set. So the question becomes is there a QStyle::State_MouseOver_Row state (answer: no), so how do I go about achieving that?

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  • Plane projection and scale causing bluring in silverlight

    - by Andy
    Ok, So I've tried to make an application which relies on images being scaled by an individual factor. These images are then able to be turned over, but the use of an animation working on the ProjectionPlane rotation. The problem comes around when an image is both scaled and rotated. For some reason it starts bluring, where a non scaled image doesn't blur. Also, if you look at the example image below (top is scaled and rotated, bottom is rotated) the projection of the top one doesn't even seem right. Its too horizontal. This this the code for the test app: <UserControl x:Class="SilverlightApplication1.Page" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Width="400" Height="300"> <Canvas x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Border Canvas.Top="25" Canvas.Left="50"> <Border.RenderTransform> <TransformGroup> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="3" ScaleY="3" /> </TransformGroup> </Border.RenderTransform> <Border.Projection> <PlaneProjection RotationY="45"/> </Border.Projection> <Image Source="bw-test-pattern.jpg" Width="50" Height="40"/> </Border> <Border Canvas.Top="150" Canvas.Left="50"> <Border.RenderTransform> <TransformGroup> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="1" /> </TransformGroup> </Border.RenderTransform> <Border.Projection> <PlaneProjection RotationY="45"/> </Border.Projection> <Image Source="bw-test-pattern.jpg" Width="150" Height="120"/> </Border> </Canvas> </UserControl> So if anyone could possible shed any light on why this may be happening, I'd very much appreciate it. Suggestions also welcome! :)

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  • Authorizing a computer to access a web application

    - by HackedByChinese
    I have a web application, and am tasked with adding secure sign-on to bolster security, akin to what Google has added to Google accounts. Use Case Essentially, when a user logs in, we want to detect if the user has previously authorized this computer. If the computer has not been authorized, the user is sent a one-time password (via email, SMS, or phone call) that they must enter, where the user may choose to remember this computer. In the web application, we will track authorized devices, allowing users to see when/where they logged in from that device last, and deauthorize any devices if they so choose. We require a solution that is very light touch (meaning, requiring no client-side software installation), and works with Safari, Chrome, Firefox, and IE 7+ (unfortunately). We will offer x509 security, which provides adequate security, but we still need a solution for customers that can't or won't use x509. My intention is to store authorization information using cookies (or, potentially, using local storage, degrading to flash cookies, and then normal cookies). At First Blush Track two separate values (local data or cookies): a hash representing a secure sign-on token, as well as a device token. Both values are driven (and recorded) by the web application, and dictated to the client. The SSO token is dependent on the device as well as a sequence number. This effectively allows devices to be deauthorized (all SSO tokens become invalid) and mitigates replay (not effectively, though, which is why I'm asking this question) through the use of a sequence number, and uses a nonce. Problem With this solution, it's possible for someone to just copy the SSO and device tokens and use in another request. While the sequence number will help me detect such an abuse and thus deauthorize the device, the detection and response can only happen after the valid device and malicious request both attempt access, which is ample time for damage to be done. I feel like using HMAC would be better. Track the device, the sequence, create a nonce, timestamp, and hash with a private key, then send the hash plus those values as plain text. Server does the same (in addition to validating the device and sequence) and compares. That seems much easier, and much more reliable.... assuming we can securely negotiate, exchange, and store private keys. Question So then, how can I securely negotiate a private key for authorized device, and then securely store that key? Is it more possible, at least, if I settle for storing the private key using local storage or flash cookies and just say it's "good enough"? Or, is there something I can do to my original draft to mitigate the vulnerability I describe?

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  • Control third check box based on the state of the first two using jquery

    - by Moj
    I have three check boxes and need to disable the third if either and/or of the other two are checked. I'm sure there's a easier way than what I have currently. It's turning into what I believe is a mess and I'm hoping that someone with more jquery knowledge can shine the light here. Here's my simple html form: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script src="custom.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" class="class" id="1">First <input type="checkbox" class="class" id="2">Second <input type="checkbox" class="class" id="3">Third </body> </html> Here's the javascript I'm using with jquery v1.4.2 jQuery(document).ready(function() { // watches the events of all checkboxes $(":checkbox").click(function(){ if( // if both 1 and 2 are checked we don't want to enable Third until both are unchecked. (($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))&&($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked')))|| ((($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))&&($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked')))&&($('#3:checkbox').attr('disabled')))|| ((($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))||($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked')))&&($('#3:checkbox').attr('disabled'))) ){ // we don't want to do anything in the above events } else if( // handles the First check box (($('#1:checkbox').attr('checked'))||(!$('#1:checkbox').attr('checked')))|| // handles the Second check box (($('#2:checkbox').attr('checked'))||(!$('#2:checkbox').attr('checked'))) ){ // call the disableThird function disableThird(); } }); // handles enabling and disabling the Third checkbox function disableThird(){ var $checkbox = $('#3:checkbox'); $checkbox.attr('disabled', !$checkbox.attr('disabled')); }; }); For some reason checking #3 will disable it's self. I don't understand why. This works, but one of the requirements is that a non programmer should be able to edit and maintain this. Ideally it'd be great if he could just add new check boxes to the html and it would work. The class for these are define and as far as I know can't be changed. The last check box in the list of check boxes will disable if any of the ones above are selected. Like wise if the last check box is selected, it will disable all the ones above it. I haven't even begun writing and testing that portion as this is quickly becoming too complicated for a non programmer to handle. I myself am more of a PHP coder than a js, let alone jquery, coder. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • .NET SerialPort DataReceived event thread interference with main thread

    - by Kiran
    I am writing a serial communication program using the SerialPort class in C# to interact with a strip machine connected via a RS232 cable. When i send the command to the machine it responds with some bytes depending on the command. Like when i send a "\D" command, i am expecting to download the machine program data of 180 bytes as a continous string. As per the machine's manual, it suggests as a best practice to send an unreognized characters like comma (,) character to make sure the machine is initialized before sending the first command in the cycle. My serial communication code is as follows: public class SerialHelper { SerialPort commPort = null; string currentReceived = string.Empty; string receivedStr = string.Empty; private bool CommInitialized() { try { commPort = new SerialPort(); commPort.PortName = "COM1"; if (!commPort.IsOpen) commPort.Open(); commPort.BaudRate = 9600; commPort.Parity = System.IO.Ports.Parity.None; commPort.StopBits = StopBits.One; commPort.DataBits = 8; commPort.RtsEnable = true; commPort.DtrEnable = true; commPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(commPort_DataReceived); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { return false; } } void commPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { SerialPort currentPort = (SerialPort)sender; currentReceived = currentPort.ReadExisting(); receivedStr += currentReceived; } internal int CommIO(string outString, int outLen, ref string inBuffer, int inLen) { receivedStr = string.Empty; inBuffer = string.Empty; if (CommInitialized()) { commPort.Write(outString); } System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500); int i = 0; while ((receivedStr.Length < inLen) && i < 10) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); i += 1; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(receivedStr)) { inBuffer = receivedStr; } commPort.Close(); return inBuffer.Length; } } I am calling this code from a windows form as follows: len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) If(inBuffer == "!?*O") { len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO("\D",2,ref inBuffer, 180) } A valid return value from the serial port looks like this: \D00000010000000000010 550 3250 0000256000 and so on ... I am getting some thing like this: \D00000010D,, 000 550 D,, and so on... I feel that my comm calls are getting interferred with the one when i send commands. But i am trying to make sure the result of the comma command then initiating the actual command. but the received thread is inserting the bytes from the previous communication cycle. Can any one please shed some light into this...? I lost quite some hair just trying to get this work. I am not sure where i am doing wrong

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  • List of objects sent over WCF, but null list received?

    - by GONeale
    Hey there, I have an object containing a list of custom objects which I am returning over a response in WCF, however on the receiving end, the list is null? But it contains 112 objects just prior to stepping out of the service on the server. This wasn't always the case, I have seen it return a list. I've just recently upgraded it to use NET TCP bindings, but I can't confirm when I started losing the data or if it was since the conversion from wsHttpBinding to netTcpBinding as it moved along with about four other services. I have looked on the WCF Service messages and trace file and also the WCF client's messages and trace file, no exceptions reported, and both message logs indicate they are sending the List<T> and for client, receiving the list - very frustrating! It's not a super light array, but not huge either, around 100KB. it has about 12 properties each and as stated 112 items are being sent. I have tried everything I can think of on client and server, note: Client: this.binding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.None) { MaxReceivedMessageSize = int.MaxValue, ReaderQuotas = { MaxStringContentLength = int.MaxValue, MaxArrayLength = int.MaxValue } }; ... Server app.config (sorry I have no idea if the quota settings have any bearing on net tcp? I only just added it similar to what I use for wsHttpBinding to test, but still list is null): <netTcpBinding> <binding name="SecurityByNetTcpTransportBinding" sendTimeout="00:03:00" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> and something else I tried in my net tcp binding behavior: <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> <serviceTimeouts transactionTimeout="05:05:00" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="400" maxConcurrentInstances="400" maxConcurrentCalls="400"/> I hope somebody can help, I hate 5 steps forward 3 steps backward which always seems to be the case with WCF :P In the interim until I [hopefully] get a response I will now try reducing this array just to see if it's a sizing issue.. Ok, It seems I have bigger problems. Because the list was the only thing I was sending, I thought it was an array issue. I am even setting an int to "25" and it's coming back as 0 - Anybody? I know I must have done something obviously stupid.

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  • Efficiency of Java "Double Brace Initialization"?

    - by Jim Ferrans
    In Hidden Features of Java the top answer mentions Double Brace Initialization, with a very enticing syntax: Set<String> flavors = new HashSet<String>() {{ add("vanilla"); add("strawberry"); add("chocolate"); add("butter pecan"); }}; This idiom creates an anonymous inner class with just an instance initializer in it, which "can use any [...] methods in the containing scope". Main question: Is this as inefficient as it sounds? Should its use be limited to one-off initializations? (And of course showing off!) Second question: The new HashSet must be the "this" used in the instance initializer ... can anyone shed light on the mechanism? Third question: Is this idiom too obscure to use in production code? Summary: Very, very nice answers, thanks everyone. On question (3), people felt the syntax should be clear (though I'd recommend an occasional comment, especially if your code will pass on to developers who may not be familiar with it). On question (1), The generated code should run quickly. The extra .class files do cause jar file clutter, and slow program startup slightly (thanks to coobird for measuring that). Thilo pointed out that garbage collection can be affected, and the memory cost for the extra loaded classes may be a factor in some cases. Question (2) turned out to be most interesting to me. If I understand the answers, what's happening in DBI is that the anonymous inner class extends the class of the object being constructed by the new operator, and hence has a "this" value referencing the instance being constructed. Very neat. Overall, DBI strikes me as something of an intellectual curiousity. Coobird and others point out you can achieve the same effect with Arrays.asList, varargs methods, Google Collections, and the proposed Java 7 Collection literals. Newer JVM languages like Scala, JRuby, and Groovy also offer concise notations for list construction, and interoperate well with Java. Given that DBI clutters up the classpath, slows down class loading a bit, and makes the code a tad more obscure, I'd probably shy away from it. However, I plan to spring this on a friend who's just gotten his SCJP and loves good natured jousts about Java semantics! ;-) Thanks everyone!

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  • Geolocation SQL query not finding exact location

    - by Iridium52
    I have been testing my geolocation query for some time now and I haven't found any issues with it until now. I am trying to search for all cities within a given radius, often times I'm searching for cities surrounding a city using that city's coords, but recently I tried searching around a city and found that the city itself was not returned. I have these cities as an excerpt in my database: city latitude longitude Saint-Mathieu 45.316708 -73.516253 Saint-Édouard 45.233374 -73.516254 Saint-Michel 45.233374 -73.566256 Saint-Rémi 45.266708 -73.616257 But when I run my query around the city of Saint-Rémi, with the following query... SELECT tblcity.city, tblcity.latitude, tblcity.longitude, truncate((degrees(acos( sin(radians(tblcity.latitude)) * sin(radians(45.266708)) + cos(radians(tblcity.latitude)) * cos(radians(45.266708)) * cos(radians(tblcity.longitude - -73.616257) ) ) ) * 69.09*1.6),1) as distance FROM tblcity HAVING distance < 10 ORDER BY distance desc I get these results: city latitude longitude distance Saint-Mathieu 45.316708 -73.516253 9.5 Saint-Édouard 45.233374 -73.516254 8.6 Saint-Michel 45.233374 -73.566256 5.3 The town of Saint-Rémi is missing from the search. So I tried a modified query hoping to get a better result: SELECT tblcity.city, tblcity.latitude, tblcity.longitude, truncate(( 6371 * acos( cos( radians( 45.266708 ) ) * cos( radians( tblcity.latitude ) ) * cos( radians( tblcity.longitude ) - radians( -73.616257 ) ) + sin( radians( 45.266708 ) ) * sin( radians( tblcity.latitude ) ) ) ),1) AS distance FROM tblcity HAVING distance < 10 ORDER BY distance desc But I get the same result... However, if I modify Saint-Rémi's coords slighly by changing the last digit of the lat or long by 1, both queries will return Saint-Rémi. Also, if I center the query on any of the other cities above, the searched city is returned in the results. Can anyone shed some light on what may be causing my queries above to not display the searched city of Saint-Rémi? I have added a sample of the table (with extra fields removed) below. I'm using MySQL 5.0.45, thanks in advance. CREATE TABLE `tblcity` ( `IDCity` int(1) NOT NULL auto_increment, `City` varchar(155) NOT NULL default '', `Latitude` decimal(9,6) NOT NULL default '0.000000', `Longitude` decimal(9,6) NOT NULL default '0.000000', PRIMARY KEY (`IDCity`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=52743 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=52743; INSERT INTO `tblcity` (`city`, `latitude`, `longitude`) VALUES ('Saint-Mathieu', 45.316708, -73.516253), ('Saint-Édouard', 45.233374, -73.516254), ('Saint-Michel', 45.233374, -73.566256), ('Saint-Rémi', 45.266708, -73.616257);

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  • Git for Websites / post-receive / Separation of Test and Production Sites

    - by Walt W
    Hi all, I'm using Git to manage my website's source code and deployment, and currently have the test and live sites running on the same box. Following this resource http://toroid.org/ams/git-website-howto originally, I came up with the following post-receive hook script to differentiate between pushes to my live site and pushes to my test site: while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH checkout -f master echo "Updated master" ;; refs/heads/testbranch ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH2 checkout -f testbranch echo "Updated testbranch" ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" However, I have doubts that this is actually safe :) I'm by no means a Git expert, but I am guessing that Git probably keeps track of the current checked-out branch head, and this approach probably has the potential to confuse it to no end. So a few questions: IS this safe? Would a better approach be to have my base repository be the test site repository (with corresponding working directory), and then have that repository push changes to a new live site repository, which has a corresponding working directory to the live site base? This would also allow me to move the production to a different server and keep the deployment chain intact. Is there something I'm missing? Is there a different, clean way to differentiate between test and production deployments when using Git for managing websites? As an additional note in light of Vi's answer, is there a good way to do this that would handle deletions without mucking with the file system much? Thank you, -Walt PS - The script I came up with for the multiple repos (and am using unless I hear better) is as follows: sitename=`basename \`pwd\`` while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git checkout -q -f master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Test Site checked out properly" else echo "Failed to checkout test site!" fi ;; refs/heads/live-site ) git push -q ../Live/$sitename live-site:master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live Site received updates properly" else echo "Failed to push updates to Live Site" fi ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" And then the repo in ../Live/$sitename (these are "bare" repos with working trees added after init) has the basic post-receive: git checkout -f if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live site `basename \`pwd\`` checked out successfully" else echo "Live site failed to checkout" fi

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