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• Mac OSX 10.8 Server DNS Domain Routing

  - by Oldek

  I just cant seem to figure out the logic in how to configure my Mac Server. So I have set up an DNS, which will take the domain and all subdomains and point towards an IP. File: db.mydomain.com (in /var/named/) mydomain.com. 10800 IN SOA mydomain.com. admin.mydomain.com. ( 2012110903 ; serial 3600 ; refresh (1 hour) 900 ; retry (15 minutes) 1209600 ; expire (2 weeks) 86400 ; minimum (1 day) ) 10800 IN NS mydomain.com. 10800 IN A 10.0.1.2 www.mydomain.com. 10800 IN A 10.0.1.2 So I want all of these requests to be requested to the 10.0.1.2 server, as I run 2 servers in my cluster. This one has always handled the requests, and now I want to add a server in between. So the server in between will get all the signals from my router which NAT the trafic coming from outside. So after setting this up and trying to point my port 80 towards my new server which will be the middle point, it doesn't work. Is it even possible to do it this way? First server: Mac Second server: Linux So what I try to achieve once more: 1. User goes to mydomain.com or www.mydomain.com 2. User request gets handled by my first server 3. First server refers to a local server, which is only available locally (it is configured to allow requests on port 80 and handle them) 4. Second server receives signal 5. Second server returns a request (either directly send to user or send through first server, whichever is most secure and configurable) I also want to be able to set up domains that lead to other servers in the future, and some that are only available within the VPN. (If that changes anything) I hope some kind soul could help me with this, it is really cumbersome for my mind to get the logic here. Do I have to configure my other server in any way? /Marcus

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• MVC : Does Code to save data in cache or session belongs in controller?

  - by newbie

  I'm a bit confused if saving the information to session code below, belongs in the controller action as shown below or should it be part of my Model? I would add that I have other controller methods that will read this session value later. public ActionResult AddFriend(FriendsContext viewModel) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) { return View(viewModel); } // Start - Confused if the code block below belongs in Controller? Friend friend = new Friend(); friend.FirstName = viewModel.FirstName; friend.LastName = viewModel.LastName; friend.Email = viewModel.UserEmail; httpContext.Session["latest-friend"] = friend; // End Confusion return RedirectToAction("Home"); } I thought about adding a static utility class in my Model which does something like below, but it just seems stupid to add 2 lines of code in another file. public static void SaveLatestFriend(Friend friend, HttpContextBase httpContext) { httpContext.Session["latest-friend"] = friend; } public static Friend GetLatestFriend(HttpContextBase httpContext) { return httpContext.Session["latest-friend"] as Friend; }

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• CQRS - Benefits

  - by Dylan Smith

  Thanks to all the comments and feedback from the last post I think I have a better understanding now of the benefits of CQRS (separate from the benefits of Event Sourcing). I’m going to try and sum it up here, and point out some areas where I could still use some advice: CQRS Benefits Sounds like the primary benefit of CQRS as an architecture is it allows you to create a simpler domain model by sucking out everything related to queries. I can definitely see the benefit to this, in general the domain logic related to commands is the high-value behavior in the software, but the logic required to service the queries would add a lot of low-value “noise” to the domain model that would dilute the high-value (command) behavior – sorting, paging, filtering, pre-fetch paths, etc. Also the most appropriate domain structure for implementing commands might not be the most optimal for implementing queries. To paraphrase Greg, this usually results in a domain model that is mediocre at both, piss-poor at one, or more likely piss-poor at both commands and queries. Not only will you be able to simplify your domain model by pulling out all the query logic, but at least a handful of commands in most systems will probably be “pass-though” type commands with little to no logic that just generate events. If these can be implemented directly in the command-handler and never touch the domain model, this allows you to slim down the domain model even more. Also, if you were to do event sourcing without CQRS, you no longer have a database containing the current state (only the domain model would) which makes it difficult (or impossible) to support ad-hoc querying and/or reporting that is common in most business software. Of course CQRS provides some great scalability benefits, not only scalability but I have to assume that it provides extremely low latency for most operations, especially if you have an asynchronous event bus. I know Greg says that you get a 3x scaling (Commands, Queries, Client) of your ability to perform parallel development, but IMHO, it seems like it only provides 1.5x scaling since even without CQRS you’re going to have your client loosely coupled to your domain - which is still a great benefit to be able to realize. Questions / Concerns If all the queries against an aggregate get pulled out to the Query layer, what if the only commands for that aggregate can be handled in a “pass-through” manner with the command handler directly generating events. Is it possible to have an aggregate that isn’t modeled in the domain model? Are there any issues or downsides to this? I know in the feedback from my previous posts it was suggested that having one domain model handling both commands and queries requires implementing a lot of traversals between objects that wouldn’t be necessary if it was only servicing commands. My question is, do you include traversals in your domain model based on the needs of the code, or based on the conceptual domain model? If none of my Commands require a Customer.Orders traversal, but the conceptual domain includes the concept of a set of orders belonging to a customer – should I model that in my domain model or not? I like the idea of using the Query side of the architecture as a place to put junior devs where the risk of them screwing something up has minimal impact. But I’m not sold on the idea that you can actually outsource it. Like I said in one of my comments on my previous post, the code to handle a query and generate DTO’s is going to be dead simple, but the code to process events and apply them to the tables on the query side is going to require a significant amount of domain knowledge to know which events to listen for to update each of the de-normalized tables (and what changes need to be made when each event is processed). I don’t know about everybody else, but having Indian/Russian/whatever outsourced developers have to do anything that requires significant domain knowledge has never been successful in my experience. And if you need to spec out for each new query which events to listen to and what to do with each one, well that’s probably going to be just as much work to document as it would be to just implement it. Greg made the point in a comment that doing an aggregate query like “Total Sales By Customer” is going to be inefficient if you use event sourcing but not CQRS. I don’t understand why that would be the case. I imagine in that case you’d simply have a method/property on the Customer object that calculated total sales for that customer by enumerating over the Orders collection. Then the application services layer would generate DTO’s off of the Customers collection that included say the CustomerID, CustomerName, TotalSales, or whatever the case may be. As long as you use a snapshotting implementation, I don’t see why that would be anymore inefficient in a DDD+Event Sourcing implementation than in a typical DDD implementation. Like I mentioned in my last post I still have some questions about query logic that haven’t been answered yet, but before I start asking those I want to make sure I have a strong grasp on what benefits CQRS provides.  My main concern with the query logic was that I know I could just toss it all into the query side, but I was concerned that I would be losing the benefits of using CQRS in the first place if I did that.  I want to elaborate more on this though with some example situations in an upcoming post.

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• Redirect Permanent and https

  - by Clem

  I just set up https on my server, and I have an issue with redirect permanent. If I have a link for example http://domain.com/index.html it redirect me on https://www.domain.comindex.html The / is missing and I can't figure out how to fix it. It's work with http://www.domain.com/index.html Here is my httpd.conf <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName domain.com Redirect permanent / https://www.domain.com/ </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.domain.com Redirect permanent / https://www.domain.com/ </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> DocumentRoot /var/www/domain/ ServerName www.domain.com SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile ssl.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile ssl.key </VirtualHost>

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• DHCP and DNS services configuration for VOIP system, windows domain, etc

  - by Stemen

  My company has numerous physical offices (for purposes of this discussion, 15 buildings). Some of them are well-connected to our primary data center via fiber. Others will be connected to the data center by P2P T1. We are in the beginning stages of implementing an Avaya VOIP telephone system, and we will be replacing a significant portion of our network infrastructure in the process. In tandem with the phone system implementation, we are going to be re-addressing some of our networks, and consolidating most of our Windows domains into one (not all domains, just most). We currently have quite a few Windows domains, and they of course each have their own DNS zones. A few of those networks currently use DHCP, but the majority use static IP assignments for every device. I'm tired of managing static assignments -- I want to use DHCP configuration on everything except servers. Printers and etc will have DHCP reservations. The new IP phones will need to get IP addresses from DHCP, though they need to be in a separate VLAN from the computers/printers/etc. The computers and printers need to be registered in DNS. That's currently handled by the Windows DHCP servers on each of the respective domains. We need to place a priority on DHCP and DNS being available on a per-site basis (in case something were to interrupt the WAN connection) for computers and (primarily) phones. Smaller locations (which will have IP phones but not be a member of any Windows domain) will not have any Windows DNS/DHCP server(s) available. We also are looking for the easiest way to replace a part if it were to fail. That is to say, if a server/appliance/router hosting DHCP were to crash hard, and we couldn't extremely quickly recover the DHCP reservations and leases (and subsequently restore them onto a cold spare), we anticipate that bad things could happen. What is the best idea for how to re-implement DNS and DHCP keeping all of the above in mind? Some thoughts that have been raised (by myself or my coworkers): Use Windows DNS and DHCP servers, where they exist, and use IP helpers to route DHCP requests to some other Windows server if necessary. May not be acceptable if the WAN goes down and clients don't get a DHCP response. Use Windows DNS (everywhere, over WAN in some cases) and a mix of Windows DHCP and DHCP provided by Cisco routers. Every site would be covered for DHCP, but from what I've read, Cisco routers can't handle dynamic registration of DHCP clients to Windows DNS servers, which might create a problem where Cisco routers are used for DHCP. Use Windows DNS (everywhere, over WAN in some cases) and a mix of Windows DHCP and DHCP provided by some service running on an extremely low-price linux server. Is there any such software that would allow DHCP leases granted by these linux boxes to be dynamically registered on the Windows DNS servers? Come up with a Linux solution for both DNS and DHCP, and deploy low-price linux servers to every site. Requirements would be that the DNS zone be multi-master (like Windows DNS integrated with Active Directory), that DHCP be able to make dynamic DNS registrations in that zone, for every lease (where a hostname is provided and is thus possible), and that multiple servers be either authoritative for the same DHCP scope or at least receiving a real-time copy / replication / sync of the leases table so that if one server dies, we still know which MAC has what address. Purchase dedicated DNS/DHCP appliances, deploying to all sites. From what I read/see, this solves all of our technical problems. Then come the financial problems... I don't have a ton of money to spend on this. Or, some other solution that we've thus far overlooked and will consider upon recommendation. Can Cisco routers or Windows servers sync DHCP lease tables so that multiple servers can be authoritative (or active/passive for all I care) for the same scope, in case one of the partners were to fail? I've read online (repeatedly) that ISC's DHCP is able to maintain the same lease table across multiple servers, in order to solve this problem. Does anyone have any experience or advice to regarding that?

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• Problem with Domain delegation...

  - by Lockhead

  Okey I have the subdomain news.247dist.com, if i dig any this domain i get: ; <<>> DiG 9.4.3-P3 <<>> news.247dist.com any ;; global options: printcmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: NOERROR, id: 36179 ;; flags: qr rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 3, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 2 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;news.247dist.com. IN ANY ;; ANSWER SECTION: news.247dist.com. 259018 IN NS b.ns.broadmail.de. news.247dist.com. 259018 IN NS a.ns.broadmail.de. news.247dist.com. 2382 IN SOA a.ns.broadmail.de. hostmaster.news.247dist.com. 1274182332 16384 2048 1048576 2560 ;; ADDITIONAL SECTION: a.ns.broadmail.de. 718 IN A 193.169.180.254 b.ns.broadmail.de. 718 IN A 193.169.181.254 ;; Query time: 0 msec ;; SERVER: 80.67.16.6#53(80.67.16.6) ;; WHEN: Wed May 19 17:21:16 2010 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 160 The Problem is, if I dig any this subdomain and ask one of these NS Servers in the above dig i get: ; <<>> DiG 9.4.3-P3 <<>> any @a.ns.broadmail.de news.247dist.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: printcmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: NOERROR, id: 3887 ;; flags: qr aa rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 6, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 3 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;news.247dist.com. IN ANY ;; ANSWER SECTION: news.247dist.com. 2560 IN SOA a.ns.broadmail.de. hostmaster.news.247dist.com. 1274182332 16384 2048 1048576 2560 news.247dist.com. 900 IN NS a.ns.broadmail.de. news.247dist.com. 900 IN NS b.ns.broadmail.de. news.247dist.com. 900 IN MX 0 mail.srv2.de. news.247dist.com. 900 IN TXT "v=spf1 ip4:213.61.69.122/32 ip4:193.169.180.0/23 -all" news.247dist.com. 900 IN A 193.169.180.252 ;; ADDITIONAL SECTION: a.ns.broadmail.de. 900 IN A 193.169.180.254 b.ns.broadmail.de. 900 IN A 193.169.181.254 mail.srv2.de. 900 IN A 193.169.180.201 ;; Query time: 23 msec ;; SERVER: 193.169.180.254#53(193.169.180.254) ;; WHEN: Wed May 19 17:26:33 2010 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 284 So why I don't get the second result if i simple dig any news.247dist.com?

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• Email forwarding from my domain to gmail - FAIL

  - by pitosalas

  [There are numerous similar questions on ServerFault but I couldn't find one that was exactly on point] Background: I use Gmail for my email client. My email is [email protected]. However the email that people communicate to me with is [email protected]. I run the server that hosts www.example.com and other domains, at ServerBeach. Up to yesterday, I had SENDMAIL painlessly just forward emails to [email protected] to [email protected] and everything was fine, for several years in fact. Suddenly my email stopped working - that is, my gmail account stopped receiving emails via the forward from my server. Looking into it I found a bunch of emails sitting on my server with content like this: ... while talking to gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com.: RCPT To: <<< 450-4.2.1 The user you are trying to contact is receiving mail at a rate that <<< 450-4.2.1 prevents additional messages from being delivered. Please resend your <<< 450-4.2.1 message at a later time. If the user is able to receive mail at that <<< 450-4.2.1 time, your message will be delivered. For more information, please <<< 450 4.2.1 visit xxxxxx://mail.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?answer=6592 u15si37138086qco.76 [email protected]... Deferred: 450-4.2.1 The user you are trying to contact is receiving mail at a rate that DATA <<< 550-5.7.1 [64.34.168.137 1] Our system has detected an unusual rate of <<< 550-5.7.1 unsolicited mail originating from your IP address. To protect our <<< 550-5.7.1 users from spam, mail sent from your IP address has been blocked. <<< 550-5.7.1 Please visit xxxxx://www.google.com/mail/help/bulk_mail.html to review <<< 550 5.7.1 our Bulk Email Senders Guidelines. u15si37138086qco.76 554 5.0.0 Service unavailable ... while talking to alt1.gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com.: From what I've been researching, I think somehow someone has/is hijacking my domain name or something and this somehow has caused gmail's servers to notice and cut me off. But I don't know really what's going on nor do I see whatever emails might be involved. I've read stuff on zoneedit.com that sounds like they might have a solution in their service for what I am trying to do. I also read a lot about admining DNS and SENDMAIL and tried various things, but nothing works. Can you tell from my description what is going on that caused GMail's server to stop accepting email from my server and is there a way to stop it? What is the 'correct' way to configure things so that emails to [email protected] behave as if they were sent to [email protected]? Thanks so much!

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• Identifying the cause of my DNS failure (domain not propagating)

  - by thejartender

  I have set up a DNS server with the help of two helpful tutorials: http://linuxconfig.org/linux-dns-server-bind-configuration http://ulyssesonline.com/2007/11/07/how-to-setup-a-dns-server-in-ubuntu/ I am using: Ubuntu Bind9 and had issues I tried negating on my own thanks to a question I posted here earlier that pointed out my mistake of using rfc 1918 addresses in my previous SOA record: $TTL 3D @ IN SOA ns.thejarbar.org. email. ( 13112012 28800 3600 604800 38400 ); thejarbar.org. IN A 10.0.0.42 @ IN NS ns.thejarbar,org. yuccalaptop IN A 10.0.0.19 ns IN A 10.0.0.42 gw IN A 10.0.0.138 www IN CNAME thejarbar.org. $TTL 600 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa. IN SOA ns.thejarbar.org. email. ( 13112012 28800 3600 604800 38400 ); 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa. IN NS ns.thejarbar.org. 42 IN PTR thejarbar.org. 19 IN PTR yuccalaptop.thejarbar.org. 138 IN PTR gw.thejarbar.org. I read the ranges that are used under rfc 1918 and modified my routers resource pool to assign LAN devices IP(s) within the 30.0.0.0 range and now modified my SOA to: $TTL 600 @ IN SOA ns.thejarbar.org. email. ( 13112012 28800 3600 604800 38400 ); thejarbar.org. IN A 30.0.0.42 @ IN NS ns.thejarbar,org. yuccalaptop IN A 10.0.0.19 ns IN A 30.0.0.42 gw IN A 30.0.0.138 www IN CNAME thejarbar.org. $TTL600 0.0.10.in-addr.arpa. IN SOA ns.thejarbar.org. email. ( 13112012 28800 3600 604800 38400 ); 0.0.30.in-addr.arpa. IN NS ns.thejarbar.org. 42 IN PTR thejarbar.org. 19 IN PTR yuccalaptop.thejarbar.org. 138 IN PTR gw.thejarbar.org. I can ping my nameserverver ns.thejarbar.organd it gives me the correct isp IP address, but my domain never seems to propagate to my nameserver. I have searched for a concise tutorial that covers setting up a DNS with a nameserver that hosts (my) or the site. I am fully aware that this is not recommended and am using this for my learning purposes. Getting to the question, due to the lack of information in tutorials I looked at (nothing about rfc 1918 and no example of swapping these with ISP IP) is my router modification going to help me as it does not seem to be. I have also tried as recommended using my ISP IP instead of the values I posted. My site never propagated to my nameserver. What could be causing this? I have run dig thejarbar.org @88.89.190.171 and get an authorative response. Can anyone assist me with the final steps I may be missing here?

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• UITabbar without controller

  - by Etienne

  Hello. I have a simple app where the only view controller has an outlet to a UITabBar. It also implements UITabBarDelegate and is set as the delegate for the UITabBar: @interface TheMainViewController : UIViewController <UITabBarDelegate> { IBOutlet UITabBar *theTabBar; } I implemented the following method Which gets called whenever any of my 4 UITabBarItems get tapped. I tried just doing something really simple: - (void)tabBar:(UITabBar *)tabBar didSelectItem:(UITabBarItem *)item { tabBar.selectedItem = [tabBar.items objectAtIndex:0]; return; } In theory, it should always stay selected on my first tab and it works perfectly when I just tap any UITabBarItem (nothing happens, the first one always stays selected). But when I touch a UITabBarItem and hold it (not taking my finger off) the selection changes anyway ! Debugging, everything gets called properly. It's like changing the selectedItem property doesn't have any effect is the user still has the item "down" (with his finger on it). What would be a good workaround? I tried overloading UITabBar and messing with touchesBegan and touchesEnd but they don't even get called. Same with UITabBarItem. Oh and please don't suggest using a UITabBarController as it is not flexible enough for my application. So frustrating....thanks!

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• Android custom media controller using vidtry

  - by Mathias Lin

  I want to use a custom media controller in my Android app and therefore looking at the vidtry code (http://github.com/commonsguy/vidtry), especially Player.java: The sample works fine as it comes. But I want the sample to play the fixed video automatically on app startup (so I don't want to enter a URL). I added: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); address.setText("/sdcard/mydata/category/1/video_agkkr6me.mp4"); go.setEnabled(true); onGo.onClick(go); } Strange thing here is that if I run the app, the audio of the video plays but the image doesn't show. Everything else works fine (progress bar, etc.). I can't figure out the difference between the manual click on the go-button and the programmatic one. I looked at the code and didn't see any difference that might occur between manual and programmatic click. I checked if any elements (esp. surface) might be hidden, but it's not. I even tried a surface.setVisibility(View.INVISIBLE); surface.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); in case some issue with the redrawing, but no difference. The video image does show when I manually hit the go button, but just not on start up automatically.

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• How Can i reload data in tableview in view controller in iphone

  - by Pugal Devan

  Hi, I am new to iphone development. I have created 5 buttons in the view. On clicking the buttons it navigates to the corresponding views. On clicking the "News" button it navigates and displayed the parsing details in the table view.(This table view, I have created View controller and added table view using Interface Builder and i have set all the properties.) and i go to another button and comes back to the "News" button, every time parsing will happened.How to avoid the multiple parsing when i come back to the button. i have tried this one and my code is, - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; static int i; if(i == 0) { NSString * path = @"http://www.AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA.com"; [self parseXMLFileAtURL:path]; i++; } [self.newsTable reloadData]; } } Now the parsing is happened only time but the datas are doesnt displayed. My problem is the tableview doesnot reload. newsTable is the instance of the Tableview. How can i achieve this. Please help me out. Thanks.

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• Implement System.Web.Caching.Cache Object in a controller to cache specific query

  - by Julien

  Hello World! I'm Julien and I have a question is it correct to implement my caching object like this in my controller : public class HomeController : BaseController { public static Cache cachingControl = new Cache(); ... And I Use it like this : public ActionResult Home() { IndexViewData view = new IndexViewData(); view.UserId = UserId; if (cachingControl.Get("viewHome") != null) { view = (IndexViewData)cachingControl.Get("viewHome"); } else { view.allAdsList = AllAds(5000, 0); if (Request.QueryString["voirTous"] != null) view.loadGeneral(true); else view.loadGeneral(false); cachingControl.Insert("viewHome", view); } view.adsList = SetupSearch(5, false, 0); return View(view); } But When I Call this line : if (cachingControl.Get("viewHome") != null) { They trow me the error NullErrorException But I know it can be null this is why i'm put this condition to Do you have an alternative or a tips for me thank you! P.S.: I Know that the code is weird :P but I must to support it ... Julien

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• iphone cannot rotate views in TabBar controller

  - by Luc

  Hello, I am working on an application that consists of a TabBar controller. Within on of its tab, I have a subclass of UITableViewController, within this list I have a Core-plot graph in the first cell and some other data in the 4 following cells. When I return YES in the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation method, I would expect the autoresizing of the list view to happen, but... nothing. When I add some log in the willRotateToInterfaceOrientation method, they are not displayed. Is there something I missed ? Thanks a lot, Luc // Override to allow orientations other than the default portrait orientation. - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations //return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); NSLog(@"Orientation"); return YES; } - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration { [super willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:toInterfaceOrientation duration:duration]; NSLog(@"Rotating"); if (toInterfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) { NSLog(@"view land:%@", self.view); } if (toInterfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { NSLog(@"view portrait:%@", self.view); } }

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• Nav Controller, UITableViewController, UITextField to become firstResponder?

  - by Daniel Granger

  I have a core data application which uses a navigation controller to drill down to a detail view and then if you edit one of the rows of data in the detail view you get taken to an Edit View for the that single line, like in Apples CoreDataBooks example! The edit view is a UITableviewController which creates its table with a single section single row and a UITextfield in the cell, programatically. What I want to happen is when you select a row to edit and the edit view is pushed onto the nav stack and the edit view is animated moving across the screen, I want the textfield to be selected as firstResponder so that the keyboard is already showing as the view moves across the screen to take position. Like in the Contacts app or in the CoreDataBooks App. I currently have the following code in my app which causes the view to load and then you see the keyboard appear (which isn't what I want, I want the keyboard to already be there) - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; [theTextField becomeFirstResponder]; } You can't put this in -viewWillAppear as the textfield hasn't been created yet so theTextField is nil. In the CoreDataBooks App where they achieve what i want they load there tableview from a nib so they use the same code but in -viewWillAppear as the textfield has already been created! Is there anyway of getting around this without creating a nib, I want to keep the implementation programatic to enable greater flexibility. Many Thanks

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• Cascading persist and existing object

  - by user322061

  Hello, I am working with JPA and I would like to persist an object (Action) composed of an object (Domain). There is the Action class code: @Entity(name="action") @Table(name="action") public class Action { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="num") private int num; @OneToOne(cascade= { CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.MERGE, CascadeType.REFRESH }) @JoinColumn(name="domain_num") private Domain domain; @Column(name="name") private String name; @Column(name="description") private String description; public Action() { } public Action(Domain domain, String name, String description) { super(); this.domain=domain; this.name=name; this.description=description; } public int getNum() { return num; } public Domain getDomain() { return domain; } public String getName() { return name; } public String getDescription() { return description; } } When I persist an action with a new Domain, it works. Action and Domain are persisted. But if I try to persist an Action with an existing Domain, I get this error: javax.persistence.EntityExistsException: Exception Description: Cannot persist detached object [isd.pacepersistence.common.Domain@1716286]. Class> isd.pacepersistence.common.Domain Primary Key> [8] How can I persist my Action and automatically persist a Domain if it does not exist? If it exists, how can I just persist the Action and link it with the existing Domain. Best Regards, FF

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• .net mvc pass dictionary data from view to controller

  - by Wei Ma

  A while ago, I was trying to pass a dictionary data from my view to my controller. And I was able to do so after googling on the net(remember it was one of scott hanselman's posts). The solution I had was something like <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Key"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Value"%>"/> <%}%> public ActionResult Process(IDictionary<string,string> properties) { doSomething(); return View(); } The code worked for awhile and then I did some refactoring and got rid of this chunk of code. Today, I ran into a situation in which I would like to pass a dictionary again. But no matter how hard I try, the properties parameter received by the action was always null. I tried the above code and <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Keys["+index+"]"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Values["+index+"]"%>"/> <%}%> Neither code worked. I googled again but couldn't find the post that helped me before. Can someone point out what I did wrong? thanks a million.

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• Backbone Model fetched from Lithium controller is not loaded properly in bb Model

  - by Nilesh Kale

  I'm using backbone.js and Lithium. I'm fetching a model from the server by passing in a _id that is received as a hidden parameter on the page. The database MongoDB has stored the data correctly and can be viewed from console as: { "_id" : ObjectId("50bb82694fbe3de417000001"), "holiday_name" : "SHREE15", "description": "", "star_rating" : "3", "holiday_type" : "family", "rooms" : "1", "adults" : "2", "child" :"0", "emails" : "" } The Lithium Model class is so: class Holidays extends \lithium\data\Model { public $validates = array( 'holiday_name' => array( array( 'notEmpty', 'required' => true, 'message' => 'Please key-in a holiday name! (eg. Family trip for summer holidays)' ))); } The backbone Holiday model is so: window.app.IHoliday = Backbone.Model.extend({ urlRoot: HOLIDAY_URL, idAttribute: "_id", id: "_id", // Default attributes for the holiday. defaults: { }, // Ensure that each todo created has `title`. initialize: function(props) { }, The code for backbone/fetch is: var Holiday = new window.app.IHoliday({ _id: holiday_id }); Holiday.fetch( { success: function(){ alert('Holiday fetched:' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('HOLIDAY Fetched: \n' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('Holiday name:' + Holiday.get('holiday_name')); } } ); Lithium Controller Code is: public function load($holiday_id) { $Holiday = Holidays::find($holiday_id); return compact('Holiday'); } PROBLEM: The output of the backbone model fetched from server is as below and the Holiday model is not correctly 'formed' when data returns into backbone Model: HOLIDAY Fetched: {"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","Holiday":{"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","holiday_name":"SHREE15","description":"","star_rating":"3","holiday_type":"family","rooms":"1","adults":"2","child":"0","emails":""}} iplann...view.js (line 68) Holiday name:undefined Clearly there is some issue when the data is passed/translated from Lithium and loaded up as a model into backbone Holiday model. Is there something very obviously wrong in my code?

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• Getting a "No default module defined for this application" exception while running controller unit t

  - by Doron

  I have an application with the default directory structure, for an application without custom modules (see structure figure at the end). I have written a ControllerTestCase.php file as instructed in many tutorials, and I've created the appropriate bootstrap file as well (once again, see figures at the end). I've written some model tests which run just fine, but when I started writing the index controller test file, with only one test in it, with only one line in it ("$this-dispatch('/');"), I'm getting the following exception when running phpunit (but navigating with the browser to the same location - all is good and working): 1) IndexControllerTest::test_indexAction_noParams Zend_Controller_Exception: No default module defined for this application Why is this ? What have I done wrong ? Appendixes: Directory structure: -proj/ -application/ -controllers/ -IndexController.php -ErrorController.php -config/ -layouts/ -models/ -views/ -helpers/ -scripts/ -error/ -error.phtml -index/ -index.phtml -Bootstrap.php -library/ -tests/ -application/ -controllers/ -IndexControllerTest.php -models/ -bootstrap.php -ControllerTestCase.php -library/ -phpunit.xml -public/ -index.php (Basically I have some more files in the models directory, but that's not relevant to this question.) application.ini file: [production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 0 phpSettings.display_errors = 0 includePaths.library = APPLICATION_PATH "/../library" bootstrap.path = APPLICATION_PATH "/Bootstrap.php" bootstrap.class = "Bootstrap" appnamespace = "My" resources.frontController.controllerDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/controllers" resources.frontController.params.displayExceptions = 0 resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts/" resources.view[] = phpSettings.date.timezone = "America/Los_Angeles" [staging : production] [testing : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 [development : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 resources.frontController.params.displayExceptions = 1 tests/application/bootstrap.php file <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), // this project' library get_include_path(), ))); /** Zend_Application */ require_once 'Zend/Application.php'; require_once 'ControllerTestCase.php';

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• Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

  - by NoozNooz42

  I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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• How to get error text in controller from BindingResult

  - by Mike

  I have an controller that returns JSON. It takes a form, which validates itself via spring annotations. I can get FieldError list from BindingResult, but they don't contain the text that a JSP would display in the tag. How can I get the error text to send back in JSON? @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public @ResponseBody JSONResponse submit(@Valid AnswerForm answerForm, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) { if (result.hasErrors()) { response.setStatus(HttpServletResponse.SC_BAD_REQUEST); JSONResponse r = new JSONResponse(); r.setStatus(JSONResponseStatus.ERROR); //HOW DO I GET ERROR MESSAGES OUT OF BindingResult??? } else { JSONResponse r = new JSONResponse(); r.setStatus(JSONResponseStatus.OK); return r; } } JSONREsponse class is just a POJO public class JSONResponse implements Serializable { private JSONResponseStatus status; private String error; private Map<String,String> errors; private Map<String,Object> data; ...getters and setters... } Calling BindingResult.getAllErrors() returns an array of FieldError objects, but it doesn't have the actual errors.

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• Optimizing C# code in MVC controller

  - by cc0

  I am making a number of distinct controllers, one relating to each stored procedure in a database. These are only used to read data and making them available in JSON format for javascripts. My code so far looks like this, and I'm wondering if I have missed any opportunities to re-use code, maybe make some help classes. I have way too little experience doing OOP, so any help and suggestions here would be really appreciated. Here is my generalized code so far (tested and works); using System; using System.Configuration; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Data; using System.Text; using System.Data.SqlClient; using Prototype.Models; namespace Prototype.Controllers { public class NameOfStoredProcedureController : Controller { char[] lastComma = { ',' }; String oldChar = "\""; String newChar = "&quot;"; StringBuilder json = new StringBuilder(); private String strCon = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SomeConnectionString"].ConnectionString; private SqlConnection con; public StoredProcedureController() { con = new SqlConnection(strCon); } public string do_NameOfStoredProcedure(int parameter) { con.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("NameOfStoredProcedure", con)) { cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@parameter", parameter); using (SqlDataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (reader.Read()) { json.AppendFormat("[{0},\"{1}\"],", reader["column1"], reader["column2"]); } } con.Close(); } if (json.Length.ToString().Equals("0")) { return "[]"; } else { return "[" + json.ToString().TrimEnd(lastComma) + "]"; } } //http://host.com/NameOfStoredProcedure?parameter=value public ActionResult Index(int parameter) { return new ContentResult { ContentType = "application/json", Content = do_NameOfStoredProcedure(parameter) }; } } }

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• Custom back button click event on pushed view controller

  - by TechFusion

  Hello, I have pushed view controller and load WebView and Custom rectangular rounded button on right down left corner into view using programmatic way. -(void)loadView { CGRect frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); WebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; WebView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; WebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; WebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleLeftMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleTopMargin); WebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; WebView.exclusiveTouch = YES; WebView.clearsContextBeforeDrawing = YES; self.roundedButtonType = [[UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect] retain]; self.roundedButtonType.frame = CGRectMake(416.0, 270.0, 44, 19); [self.roundedButtonType setTitle:@"Back" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.roundedButtonType.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.roundedButtonType addTarget:self action:@selector(back:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; self.view = WebView; [self.view addSubview: self.roundedButtonType ]; [WebView release]; } This is action that I have added as back button of navigation. -(void)back:(id)sender{ [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } -(void)viewDidUnload{ self.WebView = nil; self.roundedButtonType = nil; } -(void)dealloc{ [roundedButtonType release]; [super dealloc]; } Here, When Back button click then it is showing previous view but application got stuck in that view and GDB shows Program received signal :EXC_BAD_ACCESS message. how resolve this issue? Thanks,

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• Problem pushing multiple view controllers onto navigation controller stack

  - by Jim

  Hi, I am trying to push three view controllers onto the navigation controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:one animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:two animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:three animated:YES]; The desired behavior is that view three will show, and when the back button is pressed it will go to view two and then to view one... What actually happens is that view one is visible and pressing back goes to view two and then back again it goes to view one. Which is to say that view one is shown instead of view three. Very strangely, looking at the viewController array of the navigationController after the calls above show the right entries, and looking at the visibleViewController property shows that it has view three in it... even though view one is visible. If i navigate to a sub view from the visible view one (that shows in the place of view three) and press back from that sub view... it goes to view three. It looks like it is showing view one, but knows it is on view three... I am completely confused... any ideas? Jim

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• Controller with unknown number of parameters?

  - by StackPointer

  Greetings! I'm doing a Form on ASP.NET MVC 2, in my view I have a TextBox for the name, and two buttons. One of the buttons is for submit, and the other one have a function in JS, that add's another textbox, and a drop down list. In the post controller action method, how do I get all the parameters? Here is the View Code: <body> <div> <%using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> New Insurance Type Name: <%=Html.TextBox("InsuranceName") %> <div id="InsuranceDetails"/> </div> <div id="Buttons"> <input type="button" onclick="AddFieldForm()" value="Add Field" /> <p /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%} %> </div> </body>

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• Formatting Parameters for Ajax POST request to Rails Controller - for jQuery-UI sortable list

  - by Hung Luu

  I'm using the jQuery-UI Sortable Connected Lists. I'm saving the order of the connected lists to a Rails server. My approach is to grab the list ID, column ID and index position of each list item. I want to then wrap this into an object that can be passed as a parameter back to the Rails Controller to be saved into the database. So ideally i'm looking to format the parameter like this: Parameters: {"Activity"=>[{id:1,column:2,position:1},{id:2,column:2,position:2} ,...]} How do I properly format my parameters to be passed in this Ajax POST request? Right now, with the approach below, I'm passing on Parameters: {"undefined"=>""} This is my current jQuery code (Coffeescript) which doesn't work: jQuery -> $('[id*="day"]').sortable( connectWith: ".day" placeholder: "ui-state-highlight" update: (event, ui) -> neworder = new Array() $('[id*="day"] > li').each -> column = $(this).attr("id") index = ui.item.index() + 1 id = $("#" + column + " li:nth-child(" + index + ") ").attr('id') passObject={} passObject.id = id passObject.column = column passObject.index = index neworder.push(passObject) alert neworder $.ajax url: "sort" type: "POST" data: neworder ).disableSelection() My apologies because this seems like a really amateur question but I'm just getting started with programming jQuery and Javascript.

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