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  • SFx Server Did Not Reply

    - by user2956426
    have the following problem : For a project I've tentatively created a Silverlight 5 web application and successfully integrated a WCF service. So far so good , in the Visual Studio 2012 environment everything works as intended. The data is processed. Now I wanted to see if it all works well on IIS 7.5 . When I called the test page and spoke to the WCF service Error 405 - Method not allowed occures. After searching I solved the problem with a module allocation for *.svc .                       So, then comes the error 405 although no longer , and the service also reports the status 200 - OK . Unfortunately, the application still does not work . Now this error is reported in Silverlight : The server doenst reply a meaningful response , which may be caused by a non- matching agreement , a premature session shutdown or an internal server error . No idea what I must adjust or change now. Have read on one of the few sites on the topic that is ClientConfig blame, as they would continue as a reference for the *.xap file is valid after publishing , and not used WebConfig ... But according to the error message above, it seems to be problem in the ServiceModel.dll ... Please , can anyone help me resolve this error? Thank you, Roland I uploaded my project. Maybe someone can solve the issues in there or can check my config-files. http://www.file-upload.net/download-8261762/CiFls.zip.html

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  • Entity Framework - adding new items via a navigation property

    - by Robert
    I have come across what appears to be very peculiar behaviour using entity framework 4.0. I have a User entity, which has a Company (A Company has many Users). If I do this, everything works as expected and I get a nice shiny new user in the database: var company = _model.Companies.First(); company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); However, if I do this, then I get nothing new in the database, and no exceptions thrown: var existingUser = _model.Users.First(); var company = existingUser.Company; company.Users.Add(new User(1, "John", "Smith")); _model.SaveChanges(); So it appears that if I add a User to the Company that is pulled directly from the model, then everything works fine. However if the User is added to a Company that is pulled as a navigation property of another object, then it doesn't work. Can someone tell me if this is expected behaviour, or if there is something I can do to make it so that it is? Thanks!

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  • Microsoft Expression Blend 3 - Show / Hide a popup

    - by imayam
    Hi, I'm using this for the very first time to do some quick prototyping (using sketchflow). I have a simple dialog window that I want to show when a button it pressed and then hide when a button (in the dialog, like an "OK" button) is pressed. If someone could just point me in the direction of a simple tutorial on how to do this I'd be happy, or even if you have a simple example you can post here that would be great (I've been trying to google this forever!). I can tell you what I have tried (although obviously it doesn't work) Created a user control, called it "MyDialog". That user control is a simple box which is the bit of gui I want to overlay when the user clicks a button. In that user control I gave it two states "Show" and "Hide". The "Hide" state has all visability to the elements in this user control set to none and "Show" shows everything Created a button in my main screen. That button I gave a it a behaviour "ActivateStateAction". In the properties of that behaviour I set the TargetScreen to be "MyDialog" and the TargetState to be "Show". (I also set the target screen to be MyprojectName.MyProjectNameScreens.MyDialog, that doesn't work either)

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  • viewDidLoad not being called by parent UITabBarController

    - by Adam Bishop
    Sample: I've created a minimal set of files that highlight the issue here: http://uploads.omega.org.uk/Foo3.zip If viewDidLoad/viewInitWithNibName are called, a message box is displayed. The message box is not displayed, therefore, the methods are not being called. Details: I have an application that is attempting to use a UITabBarController to switch between multiple views. The views are linked up to the UITabBarController using interface builder (select the tab page, open Attributes (Option-1), and fill in the NIB Name field), and so are displayed "automatically" with no extra code-behind to make them appear. Is it intended behaviour that views loaded like this do not have their viewDidLoad method executed? If not, how am I doing it wrong, and what do I need to change. If it is intended behaviour, I can think of a few work-arounds, but any suggestions are appreciated: Scrap the UITabBarController and implement the view switching myself (using initWithNibName and add/insert/push/Subview). Call each of the children's viewDidLoad method manually in the UITabBarController's own viewDidLoad method. Thank you in advance for any help you can offer.

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  • Jquery.Cycle and IE7 including next Div

    - by Aklobem
    Hi All, I'd really appreciate if someone could help me with a strange problem with Jquery.cycle. I've added jquery.cycle (verson 2.72) into a existing application (Prestashop) to slideshow a number of images. On Firefox, Mozilla etc it works brilliantly - on IE7 a bizarre problem occurs. The problem is where I have a and say 6 pictures a couple of to break things up then another content and IE includes the "editorial" into the slideshow. The "editorial" block is removed from the page, and appears as the last slide in the slideshow, located in the top left corner. Additional facts: jquery-1.2.6 is in use for the rest of the application (I've tried to upgrade it and all I get is the same behaviour with lots of other things breaking). I've tried jquery.cycle.lite - same behaviour. css: root { display: block; } .pics { height: 432px; width: 432px; padding: 0; margin: 0; } .pics img { padding: 15px; border: 1px solid #ccc; background-color: #eee; width: 400px; height: 400px; top: 0; left: 0 } div.pics { margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } snippet: $(document).ready(function() { $('.pics').cycle({ fx: 'fade', pause: 100, cleartype: 1 }); }); img source img source img source img source

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  • "Admin module" taking over [Yii framework]

    - by Flavius
    Hi I have an "admin" module and I want it to serve "dynamic controllers", i.e. to provide a default behaviour for controllers which don't really exist ("virtual controllers"). I've invented a lightweight messaging mechanism for loose communication between modules. I'd like to use it such that when e.g. ?r=admin/users/index is requested, it will call the "virtual controller" "UserController" of AdminModule, which would, by default, use this messaging mechanism to notify the real module "UsersModule" it can answer to the request. I thought about simulating this behaviour in AdminModule::init(), but at that point I have no way of deciding whether the action can be processed by a real controller or not, or at least I don't know how to do it. This is because of the way Yii works: bottom-up, the controller is the one that renders the view AND the application layout (or the module's, if it exists), for example. I don't think the module even has a word to say about handling a given controller+action or not. To recap, I'm looking for a kind of CWebModule::missingController($controllerId,$actionId), just like CController::missingAction($actionId), or a workaround to simulate that. That would possibly be in CWebModule::init() or somewhere where I can find out whether the controller actually exists, in which case it's his job to handle it the $actionID and $controllerID whether the module $controllerID exists (I didn't type it wrong, in r=admin/users/index, "users" is the actual module, as specified in the application's config).

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  • Why is my WPF splash screen progress bar out of sync with the execution of the startup steps?

    - by denny_ch
    Hello, I've implemented a simple WPF splash screen window which informs the user about the progress of the application startup. The startup steps are defined this way: var bootSequence = new[] { new {Do = (Action) InitLogging, Message = "Init logging..."}, new {Do = (Action) InitNHibernate, Message = "Init NHibernate..."}, new {Do = (Action) SetupUnityContainer, Message = "Init Unity..."}, new {Do = (Action) UserLogOn, Message = "Logon..."}, new {Do = (Action) PrefetchData, Message = "Caching..."}, }; InitLogging etc. are methods defined elsewhere, which performs some time consuming tasks. The boot sequence gets executed this way: foreach (var step in bootSequence) { _status.Update(step.Message); step.Do(); } _status denotes an instance of my XAML splash screen window containing a progress bar and a label for status information. Its Update() method is defined as follows: public void Update(string status) { int value = ++_updateSteps; Update(status, value); } private void Update(string status, int value) { var dispatcherOperation = Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( DispatcherPriority.Background, (ThreadStart) delegate { lblStatus.Content = status; progressBar.Value = value; }); dispatcherOperation.Wait(); } In the main this works, the steps get executed and the splash screen shows the progress. But I observed that the splash screen for some reasons doesn't update its content for all steps. This is the reason I called the Dispatcher async and wait for its completion. But even this didn't help. Has anyone else experienced this or some similar behaviour and has some advice how to keep the splash screen's update in sync with the execution of the boot sequence steps? I know that the users will unlikely notice this behaviour, since the splash screen is doing something and the application starts after booting is completed. But myself isn't sleeping well, because I don't know why it is not working as expected... Thx for your help, Denny

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  • Equivalent of typedef in C#

    - by Matthew Scharley
    Is there a typedef equivalent in C#, or someway to get some sort of similar behaviour? I've done some googling, but everywhere I look seems to be negative. Currently I have a situation similar to the following: class GenericClass<T> { public event EventHandler<EventData> MyEvent; public class EventData : EventArgs { /* snip */ } // ... snip } Now, it doesn't take a rocket scientist to figure out that this can very quickly lead to alot of typing (appologies for the horrible pun) when trying to implement a handler for that event. It'd end up being something like this: GenericClass<int> gcInt = new GenericClass<int>; gcInt.MyEvent += new EventHandler<GenericClass<int>.EventData>(gcInt_MyEvent); // ... private void gcInt_MyEvent(object sender, GenericClass<int>.EventData e) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } Except, in my case, I was already using a complex type, not just an int. It'd be nice if it was possible to simplify this a little... Edit: ie. perhaps typedefing the EventHandler instead of needing to redefine it to get similar behaviour.

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  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do DP and CC change in Piet?

    - by Paul Butcher
    According to the specification, Black colour blocks and the edges of the program restrict program flow. If the Piet interpreter attempts to move into a black block or off an edge, it is stopped and the CC is toggled. The interpreter then attempts to move from its current block again. If it fails a second time, the DP is moved clockwise one step. These attempts are repeated, with the CC and DP being changed between alternate attempts. If after eight attempts the interpreter cannot leave its current colour block, there is no way out and the program terminates. Unless I'm reading it incorrectly, this is at odds with the behaviour of the Fibonacci sequence example here: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/fibbig1.gif (from: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/samples.html) Specifically, why does the DP turn left at (0,3) ((0,0) being (top, left)) when it hits the left edge? At this point, both DP and CC are LEFT, so, by my reading, the sequence should then be: Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,4), Toggle CC to RIGHT, Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,2). Rotate DP to UP, Attempt (and succeed) to leave the block at (1,2) by entering the white block at (1,1) The behaviour indicated by the trace seems to be that DP gets rotated all the way, leaving CC at LEFT. What have I misunderstood?

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  • deserialize Json using JavaScriptSerializer Custom Types

    - by Dave
    I have a RESTFUL WCF service returning a .NET custom type as json string. I am using .NET 3.5 framework and I am using JavaScriptSerializer for deserializing it in to my custom type. Serialization to json is handled by WCF. using (WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse()) { using (System.IO.StreamReader sreader = new System.IO.StreamReader(resp.GetResponseStream())) { string jsonString = sreader.ReadToEnd(); CustomType myType = new CustomType(); System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); myType = serializer.Deserialize<CustomType>(jsonString); return myType; } } The problem is that, I have a property (or element) of the CustomType which is generic list of another custom type ChildObject. They are in different namespaces. When I deserialize using the code above, I get all the properties of the CustomType myType including a list of ChildObject. But all the properties of the ChildObject is null. The string returned from the stream reader has all the values for the ChildObject. the values are lost when deserializing. Can anyone help me with this please?

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  • Blackberry: How to properly handle focus traversal in custom field?

    - by DaveJohnston
    I am writing an app for Blackberry and I have the following problem: I have implemented a custom field by extending the Manager class. The field is quite simple, it consists of a label and two check boxes, yes and no. The fields are laid out so that the label is on the left and uses as much space as it can while still allowing room for the check boxes which are positioned next to each other at the right and vertically centred compared to the label (if it spans more than one line). So it looks like this: This is a question? O Yes O No Everything is fine so far in terms of laying out the fields. But now I am trying to handle focus traversal. First of all the default behaviour when the user scrolls up or down is to move between the yes and no options. I want to move to the next field above or below when up or down is pressed, so I did this: protected int moveFocus(int amount, int status, int time) { if (status == 537001984 || status == -1610481664) { // Up or down was pressed // Don't move focus between yes and no when up or down is pressed. return amount; } return super.moveFocus(amount, status, time); } And that seems to work. The next thing I would like to do is to remember which option last had the focus when the field loses focus, then on gaining focus again (regardless of which direction the focus comes from) set this field to have the focus. I tried overriding onUnfocus and onFocus so that onUnfocus I note which field was focussed then onFocus setFocus to that field. But I get a StackOverflowError, I guess because the call to setFocus on a field within the manager actually calls onFocus for the manager itself again?? So does anyone know how I should be doing this? I checked the DateField and it has the exact behaviour I am looking for, i.e. it remembers if you were last on the day, month or year field and sets this field to focus when the field itself gets the focus.

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  • WPF RibbonTextBox Width problem

    - by morsanu
    Hey guys, It seems to me that the Ribbon control has a problem with textboxes. I was expecting a common TextBox control behaviour: a fixed width and a visible caret when the text exceeds the width. But the RibbonTextBox control changes its width and when the text exceeds the right limit, the overflow is not visible. I found a hack on a blog that does something like this: var img = SearchButton.Template.FindName("image", SearchButton); if (img != null && img is Image) (img as Image).Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; var lbl = FindTemplateControl<Label>(SearchText); var border = SearchText.Template.FindName("Bd", SearchText); if (border != null && border is Border && img != null && lbl != null) { (border as Border).Width = SearchText.ActualWidth - (((Image)img).ActualWidth + lbl.ActualWidth); } but I reallly don't want to do such a workaround. Is there any other simpler way to achieve simple TextBox behaviour?

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  • Problem retrieving multiple instances of the same asp.net session variable

    - by sw1sh
    I'm having problems with retrieving multiple instances of a session variable from an InProc session state. In the following code I persist a simple BusinessObject into a session variable on the Page_Load event. On the click of a button I try to retrieve the object back into 2 new declared instances of the same BusinessObject. All works great until I change one of the properties in the first instance, it changes the second instance as well. Is this normal behaviour? I would have thought as these were new instances they wouldn’t demonstrate static behaviour? Any ideas where I'm going wrong? Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then ' create a new instance of a business object and set a containg variable Dim BO As New BusinessObject BO.SomeVariable = "test" ' persist to inproc session Session("BO") = BO End If End Sub Protected Sub btnRetrieveSessionVariable_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnRetrieveSessionVariable.Click ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO1 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO1 = Session("BO") ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO2 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO2 = Session("BO") ' change the property value on the first instance BO1.SomeVariable = "test2" ' why has this changed on both instances? Dim strBO1Property As String = BO1.SomeVariable Dim strBO2Property As String = BO2.SomeVariable End Sub ' simple BusinessObject class Public Class BusinessObject Private _SomeVariable As String Public Property SomeVariable() As String Get Return _SomeVariable End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _SomeVariable = value End Set End Property End Class

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  • UIImagePickerController shows last picture taken instead of camera input

    - by jules
    I'm having a strange behaviour within my app. For taking pictures i'm using the following pretty standard code for displaying the UIImagePickerController: UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsEditing = NO; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentViewController:picker animated:YES completion:nil]; It works perfectly fine the first time I tap the button which calls this action. The strange behaviour starts when I tap that button again. The UIImagePickerController starts again BUT it doesnt show the input from the camera anymore. It shows the last picture I've taken. More Details of this state: Tapping on the image shows the yellow square of the auto focus. (which it actually uses to focus the camera correctly) When I tap on the ImageCapture button - the correct image is taken and presented on the screen. If I take a picture and press 'Retake' the regular camera image is presented as input. More weirdness: It has nothing to do with the iPad I'm using. Creating a new example app which only has button which calls the code from above everything works perfectly fine. I assume it has something to do with the configuration of the app. Therefore I checked everything but could not find any differences which may cause this issue. Thanks in advance for any advice! Update: I do implement the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in order to dismiss the UIImagePickerController.

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  • General N-Tier Architecture Question

    - by whatispunk
    In an N-Tier app you're supposed to have a business logic layer and a data access layer. Is it bad to simply have two assemblies: BusinessLogicLayer.dll and DataAccessLayer.dll to handle all this logic? How do you actually represent these layers. It seems silly, the way I've seen it, to have a BusinessLogic class library containing classes like: CustomerBusinessLogic.cs, OrderBusinessLogic.cs, etc. each calling their appropriately named cousin in the DataAccessLayer class library, i.e. CustomerDataAccess.cs, OrderDataAccess.cs. I want to create a web app using MVP and it doesn't seem so cut and dry as this. There are lots of opinions about where the business logic is supposed to be put in MVP and I'm not sure I've found a really great answer yet. I want this project to be easily testable, and I am trying to adhere to TDD methodologies as best I can. I intend to use MSTest and Rhino Mocks for testing. I was thinking of something like the following for my architecture: I'd use LINQ-To-SQL to talk to the database. WCF services to define data contract interfaces for the business logic layer. Then use MVP with ASP.NET Forms for the UI/BLL. Now, this isn't the start of this project, most of the LINQ stuff is already done, so its stuck. The WCF service would replace the existing DataAccessLayer assembly and the UI/BLL would replace the BusinessLogicLayer assembly etc. This sort of makes sense in my head, but its getting really late. Anyone that's traveled down this path have any guidance? Good links? Warnings? Thanks!

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • video calling (center)

    - by rrejc
    We are starting to develop a new application and I'm searching for information/tips/guides on application architecture. Application should: read the data from an external (USB) device send the data to the remote server (through internet) receive the data from the remote server perform a video call with to the calling (support) center receive a video call call from the calling (support) center support touch screens In addition: some of the data should also be visible through the web page. So I was thinking about: On the server side: use the database (probably MS SQL) use ORM (nHibernate) to map the data from the DB to the domain objects create a layer with business logic in C# create a web (WCF) services (for client application) create an asp.net mvc application (for item 7.) to enable data view through the browser On the client side I would use WPF 4 application which will communicate with external device and the wcf services on the server. So far so good. Now the problem begins. I have no idea how to create a video call (outgoing or incoming) part of the application. I believe that there is no problem to communicate with microphone, speaker, camera with WPF/C#. But how to communicate with the call center? What protocol and encoding should be used? I think that I will need to create some kind of server which will: have a list of operators in the calling center and track which operator is occupied and which operator is free have a list of connected end users receive incoming calls from end users and delegate call to free operator delegate calls from calling center to the end user Any info, link, anything on where to start would be much appreciated. Many thanks!

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  • How to emulate "-lib foo.jar" from _within_ build.xml

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    By specifying "-lib foo.jar" to ant I get the behaviour that the classes in foo.jar is added to the ant classloader and are available for various tasks taking a class name argument. I'd like to be able to specify the same behaviour but only from inside build.xml (so we can do this on a vanilla ant). For taskdefs we have functioning code looking like: <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antlib.xml" description="for/foreach tasks"> <classpath> <pathelement location="${active.workspace}/ant-contrib-1.X/lib/ant-contrib.jar" /> </classpath> </taskdef> where the definition is completely provided from the ant-contrib.jar listed. What is the equivalent mechanism for the "global" ant classpath? (I have thought out that this is the way to get <javac> use ecj-3.5.jar to compile with on a JRE - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2364006/specifying-the-eclipse-compiler-completely-from-within-build-xml - in a way compatible with ant 1.7. Better suggestions are welcome :) EDIT: It appears that the about-to-be-released version 1.0 of ant4eclipse includes ecj. This does not answer the question, but may solve my basic problem.

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  • ASP.net dynamic controls issue when trying to reverse them

    - by Mattias Sandsäter
    I add some DropDownList dynamically to my form. It seems to work as it should when I use ...Controls.Add(dropdownlist), but in an attempt to turn them around and show them in reversed order I have tried to use ....Controls.AddAt(0, dropdownlist) However, this causes some strange behaviour. Before we dig in to the code, is there something I should know about dynamic adding, and more specific the AddAt()-method that usually causes trouble? Short description about what I do I start with a DropDownList (level1), when I choose something there, a new list should be added (level2) and so on. You can say you go your way down in a menu structure. Whenever you want you can change your choice at whatever level you want (of course not on later levels that you dont see yet). So lets say you are down to level 4 (You then have four boxes) and change your choice at level1, when the page reloads you are back to two boxes. http://forums.asp.net/p/885886/927411.aspx It seems that my problem was discussed here, but I didn´t see any solution about how I can acheive my intended behaviour.

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  • using indexer to retrieve Linq to SQL object from datastore

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    class UserDatastore : IUserDatastore { ... public IUser this[Guid userId] { get { User user = (from u in _dataContext.Users where u.Id == userId select u).FirstOrDefault(); return user; } } ... } One of the developers in our team is arguing that an indexer in the above situation is not appropriate and that a GetUser(Guid id) method should be prefered. The arguments being that: 1) We aren't indexing into an in-memory collection, the indexer is basically performing a hidden SQL query 2) Using a Guid in an indexer is bad (FxCop flagged this also) 3) Returning null from an indexer isn't normal behaviour 4) An API user generally wouldn't expect any of this behaviour I agree to an extent with (most of) these points. But I'm also inclined to argue that one of the characteristics of Linq is to abstract the database access to make it appear that you're simply working with a bunch of collections, even though the lazy evaluation paradigm means those collections aren't evaluated until you run a query over them. It doesn't seem inconsistent to me to access the datastore in the same manner as if it was a concrete in-memory collection here. Also bearing in mind this is an inherited codebase which uses this pattern extensively and consistently, is it worth the refactoring? I accept that it might have been better to use a Get method from the start, but I'm not yet convinced that it's completely incorrect to be using an indexer. I'd be interested to hear all opinions, thanks.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication

    - by theaviator
    ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication Hello Guys, I have a managed DLL which communicates with the devices attached on COM/Serial ports. The desktop Winforms application sends requests on ports and receives/stores data in memory. In Winforms app I have added a reference to DLL and I am using the methods. This works well. Now, there is a situation where I need to show this data from serial/com port on a web-page. And also users should be able to send requests to the ports using this DLL. I have made a web app in ASP.NET (2.0). Added a reference to the DLL. I am able to use this DLL, the DLL communicates on the COM upon button click on web-page and also the response is shown on web page. However I am not happy with the approach and strongly feel that this is a bad approach. Also the development server crashes after 3 -4 requests. What is the best approach in this scenario. If I use a windows service then how would my ASP.net app will communicate with the Weindows service. Or can this be easily done using WCF. I have not used WCF any time nor any of .net remoting technique. Please suggest me the best architecture in this scenario. Thank you

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  • Erlang OTP application design

    - by Toby Hede
    I am struggling a little coming to grips with the OTP development model as I convert some code into an OTP app. I am essentially making a web crawler and I just don't quite know where to put the code that does the actual work. I have a supervisor which starts my worker: -behaviour(supervisor). -define(CHILD(I, Type), {I, {I, start_link, []}, permanent, 5000, Type, [I]}). init(_Args) -> Children = [ ?CHILD(crawler, worker) ], RestartStrategy = {one_for_one, 0, 1}, {ok, {RestartStrategy, Children}}. In this design, the Crawler Worker is then responsible for doing the actual work: -behaviour(gen_server). start_link() -> gen_server:start_link(?MODULE, [], []). init([]) -> inets:start(), httpc:set_options([{verbose_mode,true}]), % gen_server:cast(?MODULE, crawl), % ok = do_crawl(), {ok, #state{}}. do_crawl() -> % crawl! ok. handle_cast(crawl}, State) -> ok = do_crawl(), {noreply, State}; do_crawl spawns a fairly large number of processes and requests that handle the work of crawling via http. Question, ultimately is: where should the actual crawl happen? As can be seen above I have been experimenting with different ways of triggering the actual work, but still missing some concept essential for grokering the way things fit together. Note: some of the OTP plumbing is left out for brevity - the plumbing is all there and the system all hangs together

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • Dependency injection with web services?

    - by John K.
    I've recently discovered a possible candidate for dependency injection in a .Net application I've designed. Due to a recent organizational policy, it is no longer possible to call smtp mail services from client machines on our network. So I'm going to have to refactor all the code in my application where it was previously calling the smtp object to send out mail. I created a new WCF web service on an authorized web server that does allow for smtp mail messaging. This seems to be a great candidate for dependency injection. I will create a new INotification interface that will have a method like 'void SendNotification(MailMessage msg)' and create a new property in my application where you can set this property to any class that implements this interface. My question tho, is whether it's possible, through dependency injection, to encapsulate the instantiation of a .NET WCF web service? I am fairly new at IoC and Dependency injection frameworks, so I am not quite sure if it can handle web service dependencies? I'm hoping someone else out there has come across this situation or has knowledge regarding this subject? cheers, John

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