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  • Passing parameters to telerik asp.net mvc grid

    - by GlobalCompe
    I have a telerik asp.net mvc grid which needs to be populated based on the search criteria the user enters in separate text boxes. The grid is using ajax method to load itself initially as well as do paging. How can one pass the search parameters to the grid so that it sends those parameters "every time" it calls the ajax method in response to the user clicking on another page to go to the data on that page? I read the telerik's user guide but it does not mention this scenario. The only way I have been able to do above is by passing the parameters to the rebind() method on client side using jquery. The issue is that I am not sure if it is the "official" way of passing parameters which will always work even after updates. I found this method on this post on telerik's site: link text I have to pass in multiple parameters. The action method in the controller when called by the telerik grid runs the query again based on the search parameters. Here is a snippet of my code: $("#searchButton").click(function() { var grid = $("#Invoices").data('tGrid'); var startSearchDate = $("#StartDatePicker-input").val(); var endSearchDate = $("#EndDatePicker-input").val(); grid.rebind({ startSearchDate: startSearchDate , endSearchDate: endSearchDate }); } );

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  • How to add custom SOAP-Header element to the generated WSDL in Spring-WS

    - by Petr Macek
    Hi, we are migrating from WebLogic web-services to Spring-WS (1.5.X). There is currently one issue we are facing: We need to pass a context object (on WLS it is passed as SOAP-Header element) to other services that are still running on WLS from the Spring-WS powered service. The header element is still formulated on client side and the newly created WS (Spring-WS) should just pass it to other services. I can imagine how the custom element would be passed: override the doWithMessage(WebServiceMessage message) method... Is there a way to generate the wsdl with the help of DefaultWsdl11Definition to contain that custom header element? See the example: <wsdl:operation name="GetSomeInformation"> <soap:operation soapAction="http://www.dummyservice.com/InformationService/GetSomeInformation" /> <wsdl:input> <soap:body use="literal" /> <soap:header message="ctx:ServiceContextMessage" part="serviceContext" use="literal" /> </wsdl:input> <wsdl:output> <soap:body use="literal" /> </wsdl:output> <wsdl:fault name="Error"> <soap:fault name="Error" use="literal" /> </wsdl:fault> </wsdl:operation> Thanks for help

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  • How to properly test for constraint violation in hibernate?

    - by Cesar
    I'm trying to test Hibernate mappings, specifically a unique constraint. My POJO is mapped as follows: <property name="name" type="string" unique="true" not-null="true" /> What I want to do is to test that I can't persist two entities with the same name: @Test(expected=ConstraintViolationException.class) public void testPersistTwoExpertiseAreasWithTheSameNameIsNotAllowed(){ ExpertiseArea ea = new ExpertiseArea("Design"); ExpertiseArea otherEA = new ExpertiseArea("Design"); ead.setSession(getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession()); ead.getSession().beginTransaction(); ead.makePersistent(ea); ead.makePersistent(otherEA); ead.getSession().getTransaction().commit(); } On commiting the current transaction, I can see in the logs that a ConstraintViolationException is thrown: 16:08:47,571 DEBUG SQL:111 - insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) Hibernate: insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) 16:08:47,571 DEBUG SQL:111 - insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) Hibernate: insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) 16:08:47,572 WARN JDBCExceptionReporter:100 - SQL Error: -104, SQLState: 23505 16:08:47,572 ERROR JDBCExceptionReporter:101 - integrity constraint violation: unique constraint or index violation; SYS_CT_10036 table: EXPERTISEAREA 16:08:47,573 ERROR AbstractFlushingEventListener:324 - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update So I would expect the test to pass, since the expected ConstraintViolationException is thrown. However, the test never completes (neither pass nor fails) and I have to manually kill the test runner. What's the correct way to test this?

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  • Passing List of Strings or Array of strings into Unity Injection Constructor (Config-Based)

    - by miguel
    I cannot seem to get unity working when attempting to pass in an array of strings into a constructor parameter list, while using XML configuration. When I try the following: <typeConfig ...> <constructor ...> <param ... parameterType="System.String[]"> <array> <value.../> <value.../> </array> </param> </constructor> </typeConfig> for a c'tor which looks like this: void Foo(string[] inputParams_){ ... } It always fails in Unity's FindConstructor(...) method stating that it cannot find a c'tor mathcing the parameter type of String.String Does anyone know how to pass an array of stings successfully into this type of c'tor? If not, how can I do so with a list of strings, if the c'tor were to accept an IList? Thanks!

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  • Test run errors with MSTest in VS2010

    - by Tomas Lycken
    When I run my Unit Tests, all tests pass, but instead of "Test run succeeded" or whatever the success message is, I get "Test run error" in the little bar that tells me how many of my tests pass, even though all my tests passed. When i click the text, I'm taken to a page that tells me the following two things happened: Warning: conflict during test run deployment: deployment item '[...]\Booking.Web.dll' directly or indirectly referenced by the test container [...]\Booking.Web.Tests.dll cannot be deployed to 'Booking.Web.dll' because otherwise the file '[...]\Booking.Web.dll' would override deployment item '[...]\Booking.Web.dll' directly or indirectly referenced by '[...]\Booking.Web.Tests.dll' Error: Cannot initialize the ASP.NET project 'Booking.Web' Exception was thrown: The website could not be configured correctly; getting ASP.NET proccess information failed. Requesting 'http://localhost:54131/VSEnterpriseHelper.axd' returned an error: The remote server returned an error: (500) Internal Server Error. I don't understand half of what it's complaining about. How do I get rid of these errors? (And for reference: Booking.Web is an ASP.NET MVC 2 project, Booking.Web.Tests is a Test project, [...] is the full local path to the projects in my environment, in most of the cases above to the /bin/debug/ folder inside the Booking.Web project)

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  • Merge method in MergeSort Algorithm .

    - by Tony
    I've seen many mergeSort implementations .Here is the version in Data Structures and Algorithms in Java (2nd Edition) by Robert Lafore : private void recMergeSort(long[] workSpace, int lowerBound,int upperBound) { if(lowerBound == upperBound) // if range is 1, return; // no use sorting else { // find midpoint int mid = (lowerBound+upperBound) / 2; // sort low half recMergeSort(workSpace, lowerBound, mid); // sort high half recMergeSort(workSpace, mid+1, upperBound); // merge them merge(workSpace, lowerBound, mid+1, upperBound); } // end else } // end recMergeSort() private void merge(long[] workSpace, int lowPtr, int highPtr, int upperBound) { int j = 0; // workspace index int lowerBound = lowPtr; int mid = highPtr-1; int n = upperBound-lowerBound+1; // # of items while(lowPtr <= mid && highPtr <= upperBound) if( theArray[lowPtr] < theArray[highPtr] ) workSpace[j++] = theArray[lowPtr++]; else workSpace[j++] = theArray[highPtr++]; while(lowPtr <= mid) workSpace[j++] = theArray[lowPtr++]; while(highPtr <= upperBound) workSpace[j++] = theArray[highPtr++]; for(j=0; j<n; j++) theArray[lowerBound+j] = workSpace[j]; } // end merge() One interesting thing about merge method is that , almost all the implementations didn't pass the lowerBound parameter to merge method . lowerBound is calculated in the merge . This is strange , since lowerPtr = mid + 1 ; lowerBound = lowerPtr -1 ; that means lowerBound = mid ; Why the author didn't pass mid to merge like merge(workSpace, lowerBound,mid, mid+1, upperBound); ? I think there must be a reason , otherwise I can't understand why an algorithm older than half a center ,and have all coincident in the such little detail.

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  • UIWebView is ignoring cookies?!

    - by A. Miladinovic
    Hello everybody, I am creating an app for the iPhone that fetches a specific page from a website, but to be able to view this site you need to log in with a username and a password. I've created this code: NSString *urlAddress = @"http://www.wdg-hamburg.de"; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSString *post = @"name=loginname&pass=pass&form_id=user_login&op=Anmelden"; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postData length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod: @"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; [vPlan loadRequest:request]; But I am not logged in at the UIWebView! I am logging NSHTTPCookieStorage to the console and it shows me the necessary cookie, but I dont get logged in. Does anybody knows how I can fix that? Kind regards, A. Miladinovic

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  • Logging in worker threads spawned from a pylons application does not seem to work

    - by TimM
    I have a pylons application where, under certain cirumstances I want to spawn multiple worker threads to process items in a queue. Right now we aren't making use of a ThreadPool (would be ideal, but we'll add that in later). The main problem is that the worker threads logging does not get written to the log files. When I run the code outside of the pylons application the logging works fine. So I think its something to do with the pylons log handler but not sure what. Here is a basic example of the code (trimmed down): import logging log = logging.getLogger(__name__) import sys from Queue import Queue from threading import Thread, activeCount def run(input, worker, args = None, simulteneousWorkerLimit = None): queue = Queue() threads = [] if args is not None: if len(args) > 0: args = list(args) args = [worker, queue] + args args = tuple(args) else: args = (worker, queue) # start threads for i in range(4): t = Thread(target = __thread, args = args) t.daemon = True t.start() threads.append(t) # add ThreadTermSignal inputData = list(input) inputData.extend([ThreadTermSignal] * 4) # put in the queue for data in inputData: queue.put(data) # block until all contents are downloaded queue.join() log.critical("** A log line that appears fine **") del queue for thread in threads: del thread del threads class ThreadTermSignal(object): pass def __thread(worker, queue, *args): try: while True: data = queue.get() if data is ThreadTermSignal: sys.exit() try: log.critical("** I don't appear when run under pylons **") finally: queue.task_done() except SystemExit: queue.task_done() pass Take note, that the log lin within the RUN method will show up in the log files, but the log line within the worker method (which is run in a spawned thread), does not appear. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks ** EDIT: I should mention that I tried passing in the "log" variable to the worker thread as well as redefining a new "log" variable within the thread and neither worked. ** EDIT: Adding the configuration used for the pylons application (which comes out of the INI file). So the snippet below is from the INI file. [loggers] keys = root [handlers] keys = wsgierrors [formatters] keys = generic [logger_root] level = WARNING handlers = wsgierrors [handler_console] class = StreamHandler args = (sys.stderr,) level = WARNING formatter = generic [handler_wsgierrors] class = pylons.log.WSGIErrorsHandler args = () level = WARNING format = generic

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  • OCR: How to improve accuracy - existing libraries for removing non-text 'furniture', shapes, etc to

    - by Rob
    I want to remove rectangles etc that enclose text in a screenshot image, so that I can perform optical character recognition to get accurate text from the screenshot. Background: I doing this to extract data from a legacy application for use with other applications. This is the only way to get at this data as associated files are in a closed, proprietary, binary format. I will be using AutoItScript to drive the application to show data in its UI, then I will screenshot this and feed this to tesseract. I've already had some success in automating the UI, and have been able to use tesseract to get plain ascii text out of the bitmap. There are several AutoItScripr forum articles discussing its use with tesseract/OCR but not specifically for my question. http://www.autoitscript.com/forum/index.php?s=6c32c3ece12756e635a619cdf175eff9&showforum=2 What I need to do There are thin, 1-pixel wide rectangles that closely enclose some text, when fed to tesseract, it sees them as I for example for a verticle line of the rectangle. Any thoughts on how to remove the rectangles, or best practices? I'm asking if there is a generic command line based toolset to overwrite rectangles, for example, in .png files. I could then pass the .png through this, then pass it to tesseract. Details on the tesseract release/setup I've used are as follows: Go here: http://code.google.com/p/tesseract-ocr/downloads/list - For the basic english generic character set to get Tesseract up and running and recognising your bitmapped text into ascii text, use tesseract-2.00.eng.tar.gz (current version at time of writing is: "English language data for Tesseract (2.00 and up) Jul 2007 989 KB 84845") Related questions I have already looked at on Stack Overflow http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1335581/how-to-give-best-chance-of-success-to-an-ocr-software http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2296568/analysis-and-transformation-of-the-image-on-the-basis-of-this-analysis-for-better http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2268028/reading-characters-off-of-the-screen In these, my question is not completely answered or a commercial solution is being sold. I do not want to consider a commercial solution at this stage.

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  • Pop-up modal with UITableView on iPhone

    - by Meltemi
    I need to pop up a quick dialog for the user to select one option in a UITableView from a list of roughly 2-5 items. Dialog will be modal and only take up about 1/2 of screen. I go back and forth between how to handle this. Should I subclass UIView and make it a UITableViewDelegate & DataSource? I'd also prefer to lay out this view in IB. So to display I'd do something like this from my view controller (assume I have a property in my view controller for DialogView *myDialog;) NSArray* nibViews = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"DialogView" owner:myDialog options:nil]; myDialog = [nibViews objectAtIndex:0]; [self.view addSubview:myDialog]; problem is i'm trying to pass owner:myDialog which is nil as it hasn't been instantiated...i could pass owner:self but that would make my view controller the File's Owner and that's not how that dialog view is wired in IB. So that leads me to think this dialog wants to be another full blown UIViewController... But, from all I've read you should only have ONE UIViewController per screen so this confuses me because I could benefit from viewDidLoad, etc. that come along with view controllers... Can someone please straighten this out for me?

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  • Shouldn't prepared statements be much more fsater?

    - by silversky
    $s = explode (" ", microtime()); $s = $s[0]+$s[1]; $con = mysqli_connect ('localhost', 'test', 'pass', 'db') or die('Err'); for ($i=0; $i<1000; $i++) { $stmt = $con -> prepare( " SELECT MAX(id) AS max_id , MIN(id) AS min_id FROM tb "); $stmt -> execute(); $stmt->bind_result($M,$m); $stmt->free_result(); $rand = mt_rand( $m , $M ).'<br/>'; $res = $con -> prepare( " SELECT * FROM tb WHERE id >= ? LIMIT 0,1 "); $res -> bind_param("s", $rand); $res -> execute(); $res->free_result(); } $e = explode (" ", microtime()); $e = $e[0]+$e[1]; echo number_format($e-$s, 4, '.', ''); // and: $link = mysql_connect ("localhost", "test", "pass") or die (); mysql_select_db ("db") or die ("Unable to select database".mysql_error()); for ($i=0; $i<1000; $i++) { $range_result = mysql_query( " SELECT MAX(`id`) AS max_id , MIN(`id`) AS min_id FROM tb "); $range_row = mysql_fetch_object( $range_result ); $random = mt_rand( $range_row->min_id , $range_row->max_id ); $result = mysql_query( " SELECT * FROM tb WHERE id >= $random LIMIT 0,1 "); } defenitly prepared statements are much more safer but also every where it says that they are much faster BUT in my test on the above code I have: - 2.45 sec for prepared statements - 5.05 sec for the secon example What do you think I'm doing wrong? Should I use the second solution or I should try to optimize the prep stmt?

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  • ASP MVC2 model binding issue on POST

    - by Brandon Linton
    So I'm looking at moving from MVC 1.0 to MVC 2.0 RTM. One of the conventions I'd like to start following is using the strongly-typed HTML helpers for generating controls like text boxes. However, it looks like it won't be an easy jump. I tried migrating my first form, replacing lines like this: <%= Html.TextBox("FirstName", Model.Data.FirstName, new {maxlength = 30}) %> ...for lines like this: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.Data.FirstName, new {maxlength = 30}) %> Previously, this would map into its appropriate view model on a POST, using the following method signature: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Registration(AccountViewInfo viewInfo) Instead, it currently gets an empty object back. I believe the disconnect is in the fact that we pass the view model into a larger aggregate object that has some page metadata and other fun stuff along with it (hence x.Data.FirstName instead of x.FirstName). So my question is: what is the best way to use the strongly-typed helpers while still allowing the MVC framework to appropriately cast the form collection to my view-model as it does in the original line? Is there any way to do it without changing the aggregate type we pass to the view? Thanks!

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  • IP address spoofing using Source Routing

    - by iamrohitbanga
    With IP options we can specify the route we want an IP packet to take while connecting to a server. If we know that a particular server provides some extra functionality based on the IP address can we not utilize this by spoofing an IP packet so that the source IP address is the privileged IP address and one of the hosts on the Source Routing is our own. So if the privileged IP address is x1 and server IP address is x2 and my own IP address is x3. I send a packet from x1 to x2 which is supposed to pass through x3. x1 does not actually send the packet. It is just that x2 thinks the packet came from x1 via x3. Now in response if x2 uses the same routing policy (as a matter of courtesy to x1) then all packets would be received by x3. Will the destination typically use the same IP address sequences as specified in the routing header so that packets coming from the server pass through my IP where I can get the required information? Can we not spoof a TCP connection in the above case? Is this attack used in practice?

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  • Codeigniter + TankAuth + Swfupload not able to get the logger user id

    - by Manny Calavera
    Hello. I am using Codeigniter with the TankAuth library installed and trying to upload to index.php/reuqests/doUpload from swfupload but can't access the page as authenticated. I have read many posts around the net about similar problem and tried to set $config['sess_match_useragent'] = FALSE; but still no difference. I have ended up skipping the login check in my controller for testing purposes. But now I need to access tankAuth library from my controller to get the current logged in user ID. It is requested in my application and cannot skip it, I really need to pass the logged in user id to that doUpload model. I have setup controller like this: function doUploadFileFn() { if (!$this->tank_auth->is_logged_in()) { return; } else { $user_id = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $this->load->model('requests/doUploadFile'); $this->doUploadFile->uploadData($user_id); } } Now, it does not pass the is_logged_in() check, as I learned from other posts, CI deletes the session but I have setup the config not to match the user agent but still not working. Is there any solution to this out there ? Thank you.

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  • How countdown get Synchronise with jquery using "jquery.countdown.js" plugin?

    - by ricky roy
    unable to get the correct Ans as i am getting from the Jquery I am using jquery.countdown.js ref. site http://keith-wood.name/countdown.html here is my code [WebMethod] public static String GetTime() { DateTime dt = new DateTime(); dt = Convert.ToDateTime("April 9, 2010 22:38:10"); return dt.ToString("dddd, dd MMMM yyyy HH:mm:ss"); } html file <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery.countdown.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 22:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 22:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; } function watchCountdown() { } function liftOff() { } </script>

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  • Is it possible to store ObjectContext on the client when using WCF and Entity Framework?

    - by Sergey
    Hello, I have a WCF service which performs CRUD operation on my data model: Add, Get, Update and Delete. And I'm using Entity Framework for my data model. On the other side there is a client application which calls methods of the WCF service. For example I have a Customer class: [DataContract] public class Customer { public Guid CustomerId {get; set;} public string CustomerName {get; set;} } and WCF service defines this method: public void AddCustomer(Customer c) { MyEntities _entities = new MyEntities(); _entities.AddToCustomers(c); _entities.SaveChanges(); } and the client application passes objects to the WCF service: var customer = new Customer(){CustomerId = Guid.NewGuid, CustomerName="SomeName"}; MyService svc = new MyService(); svc.Add(customer); // or svc.Update(customer) for example But when I need to pass a great amount of objects to the WCF it could be a perfomance issue because of I need to create ObjectContext each time when I'm doing Add(), Update(), Get() or Delete(). What I'm thinking on is to keep ObjectContext on the client and pass ObjectContext to the wcf methods as additional parameter. Is it possible to create and keep ObjectContext on the client and don't recreate it for each operation? If it is not, how could speed up the passing of huge amount of data to the wcf service? Sergey

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  • Can a masterpage reference another masterpage with the same content and contentplaceholder tags?

    - by Peach
    Current Setup I currently have three masterpages and content pages in the following hierarchy : One root-level masterpage that displays the final result. Call this "A" Two sibling pages that don't reference each other but contain all the same contentplaceholder elements, just in a different order with different <div>'s surrounding them. Both reference the root-level masterpage. Call these "B1" and "B2". Several content pages that reference one or the other sibling master pages above (not both). Call these "C1" through "C-whatever". Basically I have: Cn = B1 = A Cm = B2 = A This hierarchy works fine. Desired Setup What I want to do is add in a new level to this hierarchy (a new master page) between the content pages and the sibling masterpages. Basically so it's like this: One root-level masterpage that displays the final result. Two sibling pages plus a third sibling. Call it B3 A new middle masterpage that dynamically 'chooses' one of the sibling masterpages. The desired behaviour is to pass through the content given by C directly to Bn without modifying it. The only thing D actively does is choose which Bn. Call this new masterpage D. Several content pages that reference the new middle master page instead of the old siblings. The challenge to this is, I'm working within the confines of a rather complex product and I cannot change the original two sibling masterpages (B1 and B2) or content pages (C) in any meaningful way. I want: Cn = D = B1 = A Cm = D = B2 = A Ck = D = B3 = A Essentially, D should "pass through" all it's content to whichever B-level masterpage it chooses. I can't put this logic in the C-level pages. Additional Details All B-level pages have the same content/contentplaceholder tags, just ordered and styled differently. D can be as convoluted as it has to be, so long as it doesn't require modifying C or B. I'm using ASP.Net 2.0 Is this possible?

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  • validate that URI is valid http URI

    - by Alfred
    Hi all, My problem: First of hopefully this is not a duplicate, but I could not find the right answer(right away). I would like to validate that an URI(http) is valid in Java. I came up with the following tests but I can't get them to pass. First I used getPort(), but then http://www.google.nl will return -1 on getPort(). This are the test I want to have passed Test: @Test public void testURI_Isvalid() throws Exception { assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("ttp://localhost:8080")); assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("ftp://localhost:8080")); assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("http://localhost:8a80")); assertTrue(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("http://localhost:8080")); final String justWrong = "/schedule/get?uri=http://localhost:8080&time=1000000"; assertFalse(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI(justWrong)); assertTrue(HttpUtils.validateHTTP_URI("http://www.google.nl")); } This is what I came up with after I removed the getPort() part but this does not pass all my unit tests. Production code: public static boolean validateHTTP_URI(String uri) { final URI u; try { u = URI.create(uri); } catch (Exception e1) { return false; } return "http".equals(u.getScheme()); } This is the first test that is failing because I am no longer validating the getPort() part. Hopefully somebody can help me out. I think I am not using the right class to validate url's?? P.S: I don't want to connect to the server to validate the URI is correct. At least not yet in this step. I only want to validate scheme.

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  • Storing UTF8 string in a UnicodeString

    - by Mick
    In Delphi 2007 you can store a UTF8 string in a WideString and then pass that onto a Win32 function, e.g. var UnicodeStr: WideString; UTF8Str: WideString; begin UnicodeStr:='some unicode text'; UTF8Str:=UTF8Encode(UnicodeStr); Windows.SomeFunction(PWideChar(UTF8Str), ...) end; Delphi 2007 does not interfere with the contents of UTF8Str, i.e. it is left as a UTF8 encoded string stored in a WideString. But in Delphi 2010 I'm struggling to find a way to do the same thing, i.e. store a UTF8 encoded string in a WideString without it being automatically converted from UTF8. I cannot pass a pointer to UTF8 string (or RawByteString), e.g. the following will obviously not work: var UnicodeStr: WideString; UTF8Str: UTF8String; begin UnicodeStr:='some unicode text'; UTF8Str:=UTF8Encode(UnicodeStr); Windows.SomeFunction(PWideChar(UTF8Str), ...) end; Any help appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Gmail: How to send an email programmatically

    - by Clint
    Possible Exact Duplicate: Sending Email in C#.NET Through Gmail Hi, I'm trying to send an email using gmail: I tried various examples that I found on this site and other sites but I always get the same error: Unable to connect to the remote server -- System.net.Sockets.SocketException: No connection could be made because the target actively refused it 209.85.147.109:587 public static void Attempt1() { var client = new SmtpClient("smtp.gmail.com", 587) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "MyPassWord"), EnableSsl = true }; client.Send("[email protected]", "[email protected]", "test", "testbody"); } Any ideas? UPDATE More details. Maybe I should say what other attempts I made that gave me the same error: (Note when i didn't specify a port it tryed port 25) public static void Attempt2() { var fromAddress = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "From Name"); var toAddress = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "To Name"); const string fromPassword = "pass"; const string subject = "Subject"; const string body = "Body"; var smtp = new SmtpClient { Host = "smtp.gmail.com", Port = 587, EnableSsl = true, DeliveryMethod = SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network, UseDefaultCredentials = false, Credentials = new NetworkCredential(fromAddress.Address, fromPassword) }; using (var message = new MailMessage(fromAddress, toAddress) { Subject = subject, Body = body } ) { smtp.Send(message); } } public static void Attempt3() { MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "Email using Gmail"; string Body = "Hi, this mail is to test sending mail" + "using Gmail in ASP.NET"; mail.Body = Body; mail.IsBodyHtml = true; SmtpClient smtp = new SmtpClient(); smtp.Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; smtp.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential ("[email protected]", "pass"); smtp.EnableSsl = true; smtp.Send(mail); }

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  • Looping Redirect with PyFacebook and Google App Engine

    - by Nick Gotch
    I have a Python Facebook project hosted on Google App Engine and use the following code to handle initialization of the Facebook API using PyFacebook. # Facebook Initialization def initialize_facebook(f): # Redirection handler def redirect(self, url): logger.info('Redirecting the user to: ' + url) self.response.headers.add_header("Cache-Control", "max-age=0") self.response.headers.add_header("Pragma", "no-cache") self.response.out.write('<html><head><script>parent.location.replace(\'' + url + '\');</script></head></html>') return 'Moved temporarily' auth_token = request.params.get('auth_token', None) fbapi = Facebook(settings['FACEBOOK_API_KEY'], settings['FACEBOOK_SECRET_KEY'], auth_token=auth_token) if not fbapi: logger.error('Facebook failed to initialize') if fbapi.check_session(request) or auth_token: pass else: logger.info('User not logged into Facebook') return lambda a: redirect(a, fbapi.get_login_url()) if fbapi.added: pass else: logger.info('User does not have ' + settings['FACEBOOK_APP_NAME'] + ' added') return lambda a: redirect(a, fbapi.get_add_url()) # Return the validated API logger.info('Facebook successfully initialized') return lambda a: f(a, fbapi=fbapi) I'm trying to set it up so that I can drop this decorator on any page handler method and verify that the user has everything set up correctly. The issue is that when the redirect handler gets called, it starts an infinite loop of redirection. I tried using an HTTP 302 redirection in place of the JavaScript but that kept failing too. Does anyone know what I can do to fix this? I saw this similar question but there are no answers.

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  • UITouch Event Propagation To Background UIViews

    - by drewww
    I'm having troubles getting any UIView that's not the foreground UIView to receive UITouch events. I'm building an all-Core Graphics-app, so I'm not using any built in UIViews or IB or anything - everything is programmatically constructed and drawn into. Here's my view hierarchy: Root View Type A Container Type A View Type A View Type A View Type B Container Type B View Type B View Type B View The containers are just vanilla UIView objects that I create programmatically and add instances of Type A and B to when they're created. I did this originally to make hitTesting easier—Type A objects can be drag-and-dropped onto Type B objects. Type A objects receive touch events fine, but Type B objects (which are contained by Type B Container which is behind Type A Container) don't receive touch events. Both containers occupy the entire screen; they're basically just convenience containers. If I pull Type B Container to the front (eg [self.view bringSubviewToFront:Type B Container]) it receives events properly, but then the Type A Container doesn't get events. How do I propagate events from the view that's on top? Both views occupy the entire screen, so it makes sense that the top-most view is catching the events, but how should I get it to pass those events on to Type B Container? I could inject some code in the container that passes the touch events back to the main ViewController which can pass them on to Type B Container but that feels really messy to me. Is there a nicer way to not have the Type A Container stop propagation? What's the best practice here?

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  • not able to Deserialize xml into object

    - by Ravisha
    I am having following peice of code ,where in i am trying to serialize and deserailize object of StringResource class. Please note Resource1.stringXml = its coming from resource file.If i pass strelemet.outerXMl i get the object from Deserialize object ,but if i pass Resource1.stringXml i am getting following exception {"< STRING xmlns='' was not expected."} System.Exception {System.InvalidOperationException} class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { StringResource str = new StringResource(); str.DELETE = "CanDelete"; str.ID= "23342"; XmlElement strelemet = SerializeObjectToXmlNode (str); StringResource strResourceObject = DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<StringResource>(Resource1.stringXml); Console.ReadLine(); } public static T DeSerializeXmlNodeToObject<T>(string objectNodeOuterXml) { try { TextReader objStringsTextReader = new StringReader(objectNodeOuterXml); XmlSerializer stringResourceSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T),string.Empty); return (T)stringResourceSerializer.Deserialize(objStringsTextReader); } catch (Exception excep) { return default(T); } } public static XmlElement SerializeObjectToXmlNode(object obj) { using (MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream()) { try { XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlNameSpace = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlNameSpace.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlWriterSettings writerSettings = new XmlWriterSettings(); writerSettings.CloseOutput = false; writerSettings.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; writerSettings.Indent = false; writerSettings.OmitXmlDeclaration = true; XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(memoryStream, writerSettings); XmlSerializer xmlserializer = new XmlSerializer(obj.GetType()); xmlserializer.Serialize(writer, obj, xmlNameSpace); writer.Close(); memoryStream.Position = 0; XmlDocument serializeObjectDoc = new XmlDocument(); serializeObjectDoc.Load(memoryStream); return serializeObjectDoc.DocumentElement; } catch (Exception excep) { return null; } } } } public class StringResource { [XmlAttribute] public string DELETE; [XmlAttribute] public string ID; } < STRING ID="1" DELETE="True" /

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  • Reading a POP3 server with only TcpClient and StreamWriter/StreamReader

    - by WebDevHobo
    I'm trying to read mails from my live.com account, via the POP3 protocol. I've found the the server is pop3.live.com and the port if 587. I'm not planning on using a pre-made library, I'm using NetworkStream and StreamReader/StreamWriter for the job. I need to figure this out. So, any of the answers given here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/44383/reading-email-using-pop3-in-c are not usefull. It's part of a larger program, but I made a small test to see if it works. Eitherway, i'm not getting anything. Here's the code I'm using, which I think should be correct. public Program() { string temp = ""; using(TcpClient tc = new TcpClient(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"),8000))) { tc.Connect("pop3.live.com",587); using(NetworkStream nws = tc.GetStream()) { using(StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(nws)) { using(StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(nws)) { sw.WriteLine("USER " + user); sw.Flush(); sw.WriteLine("PASS " + pass); sw.Flush(); sw.WriteLine("LIST"); sw.Flush(); while(temp != ".") { temp += sr.ReadLine(); } } } } } Console.WriteLine(temp); } So, I'm sending from port 8000 on my machine to port 587, the hotmail pop3 port. And I'm getting nothing, and I'm out of ideas.

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  • Passing a string in Html.ActionLink in MVC 2

    - by 109221793
    I have completed the MVC Music Store application, and now am making my own modifications for practice, and also to prepare me to do similar tasks in my job. What I have done, is create a view that displays the current list of users. I have done this as I want to be able to change the passwords of users should they forget them. Here is a snippet from my view: <% foreach (MembershipUser user in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%: Html.ActionLink(user.UserName, "changeUserPassword", "StoreManager", new { username = user.UserName }) %></td> <td><%: user.LastActivityDate %></td> <td><%: user.IsLockedOut %></td> </tr> <% }%> What I want to know, is it possible to pass the username through the actionlink as I have done above. I have registered the following route in the global.asax.cs file, however I am unsure if I have done it correctly: routes.MapRoute( "AdminPassword", //Route name "{controller}/{action}/{username}", //URL with parameters new { controller = "StoreManager", action = "changeUserPassword", username = UrlParameter.Optional }); Here is my GET action: public ActionResult changeUserPassword(string username) { ViewData["username"] = username; return View(); } I have debugged through the code to find that ViewData["username"] = username doesn't populate so it looks like either I have not registered the routes properly, or I simply cannot pass the username using the actionlink like I have. I'd be grateful if someone could point me in the right direction.

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