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  • Silverlight nested RadGridView SelectedItem DataContext

    - by Ciaran
    Hi, I'm developing a Silverlight 4 app and am using the 2010 Q1 release 1 RadGridView. I'm developing this app using the MVVM pattern and trying to keep my codebehind to a minimum. On my View I have a RadGridView and this binds to a property on my ViewModel. I am setting a property via the SelectedItem. I have a nested RadGridView and I want to set a property on my ViewModel to the SelectedItem but I cannot. I think the DataContext of my nested grid is the element in the parent's bound collection, rather than my ViewModel. I can easily use codebehind to set my ViewModel property from the SelectionChanged event on the nested grid, but I'd rather not do this. I have tried to use my viewModelName in the ElementName in my nested grid to specify that for SelectedItem, the ViewModel is the DataContext, but I cannot get this to work. Any ideas? Here is my Xaml: <grid:RadGridView x:Name="master" ItemsSource="{Binding EntityClassList, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedEntityClass, Mode=TwoWay}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" > <grid:RadGridView.Columns> <grid:GridViewSelectColumn></grid:GridViewSelectColumn> <grid:GridViewDataColumn DataMemberBinding="{Binding Description}" Header="Description"/. </grid:RadGridView.Columns> <grid:RadGridView.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <grid:RadGridView x:Name="child" ItemsSource="{Binding EntityDetails, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedItem="{Binding DataContext.SelectedEntityDetail, ElementName='RequestView', Mode=TwoWay}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" > <grid:RadGridView.Columns> <grid:GridViewSelectColumn></grid:GridViewSelectColumn> <grid:GridViewDataColumn DataMemberBinding="{Binding ServiceItem}" Header="Service Item" /> <grid:GridViewDataColumn DataMemberBinding="{Binding Comment}" Header="Comments" /> </grid:RadGridView.Columns> </grid:RadGridView> </DataTemplate> </grid:RadGridView.RowDetailsTemplate> </grid:RadGridView>

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  • winforms databinding best practices

    - by Kaiser Soze
    Demands / problems: I would like to bind multiple properties of an entity to controls in a form. Some of which are read only from time to time (according to business logic). When using an entity that implements INotifyPropertyChanged as the DataSource, every change notification refreshes all the controls bound to that data source (easy to verify - just bind two properties to two controls and invoke a change notification on one of them, you will see that both properties are hit and reevaluated). There should be user friendly error notifications (the entity implements IDataErrorInfo). (probably using ErrorProvider) Using the entity as the DataSource of the controls leads to performance issues and makes life harder when its time for a control to be read only. I thought of creating some kind of wrapper that holds the entity and a specific property so that each control would be bound to a different DataSource. Moreover, that wrapper could hold the ReadOnly indicator for that property so the control would be bound directly to that value. The wrapper could look like this: interface IPropertyWrapper : INotifyPropertyChanged, IDataErrorInfo { object Value { get; set; } bool IsReadOnly { get; } } But this means also a different ErrorProvider for each property (property wrapper) I feel like I'm trying to reinvent the wheel... What is the 'proper' way of handling complex binding demands like these? Thanks ahead.

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  • EXT-js PropertyGrid best practices to achieve an update ?

    - by Tom
    Hello, I am using EXT-js for a project, usually everything is pretty straight forward with EXT-js, but with the propertyGrid, I am not sure. I'd like some advice about this piece of code. First the store to populate the property grid, on the load event: var configStore = new Ext.data.JsonStore({ // store config autoLoad:true, url: url.remote, baseParams : {xaction : 'read'}, storeId: 'configStore', // reader config idProperty: 'id_config', root: 'config', totalProperty: 'totalcount', fields: [{ name: 'id_config' }, { name: 'email_admin' } , { name: 'default_from_addr' } , { name: 'default_from_name' } , { name: 'default_smtp' } ],listeners: { load: { fn: function(store, records, options){ // get the property grid component var propGrid = Ext.getCmp('propGrid'); // make sure the property grid exists if (propGrid) { // populate the property grid with store data propGrid.setSource(store.getAt(0).data); } } } } }); here is the propertyGrid: var propsGrid = new Ext.grid.PropertyGrid({ renderTo: 'prop-grid', id: 'propGrid', width: 462, autoHeight: true, propertyNames: { tested: 'QA', borderWidth: 'Border Width' }, viewConfig : { forceFit: true, scrollOffset: 2 // the grid will never have scrollbars } }); So far so good, but with the next button, I'll trigger an old school update, and my question : Is that the proper way to update this component ? Or is it better to user an editor ? or something else... for regular grid I use the store methods to do the update, delete,etc... The examples are really scarce on this one! Even in books about ext-js! new Ext.Button({ renderTo: 'button-container', text: 'Update', handler: function(){ var grid = Ext.getCmp("propGrid"); var source = grid.getSource(); var jsonDataStr = null; jsonDataStr = Ext.encode(source); var requestCg = { url : url.update, method : 'post', params : { config : jsonDataStr , xaction : 'update' }, timeout : 120000, callback : function(options, success, response) { alert(success + "\t" + response); } }; Ext.Ajax.request(requestCg); } }); and thanks for reading.

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  • WPF draw Border on MouseOver

    - by tcables
    Hello, I have a WPF Application where I am trying to make a close button like image. I am trying to draw a border or have a border show up on mouse over... But I cannot seem to make it work. I have tried like 6 different methods of doing so...Images, borders with images, brushes, ect. I am using the following code at the moment: <Canvas Name="cMin" Height="16" Width="16" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1"> <Canvas.Background> <ImageBrush ImageSource="_.png" Stretch="None" /> </Canvas.Background> <Border BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1" Background="Transparent" CornerRadius="0" Height="18" Width="18"> <Border.Style> <Style TargetType="Border"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="LightBlue" /> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="False"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="Transparent" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Border.Style> </Border> </Canvas> Any help would be appreciated, Thanks!

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  • NSString variable out of scope in sub-class (iPhone/Obj-C)

    - by Rich
    I am following along with an example in a book with the code exactly as it is in the example code as well as from the book, and I'm getting an error at runtime. I'll try to describe the life cycle of this variable as good as I can. I have a controller class with a nested array that is populated with string literals (NSArray of NSArrays, the nested NSArrays initialized with arrayWithObjects: where the objects are all string literals - @"some string"). I access these strings with a helper method added via a category on NSArray (to pull strings out of a nested array). My controller gets a reference to this string and assigns it to a NSString property on a child controller using dot notation. The code looks like this (nestedObjectAtIndexPath is my helper method): NSString *rowKey = [rowKeys nestedObjectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; controller.keypath = rowKey; keypath is a synthesized nonatomic, retain property defined in a based class. When I hit a breakpoint in the controller at the above code, the NSString's value is as expected. When I hit the next breakpoint inside the child controller, the object id of the keypath property is the same as before, but instead of showing me the value of the NSString, XCode says that the variable is "out of scope" which is also the error I see in the console. This also happens in another sub-class of the same parent. I tried googling, and I saw slightly similar cases where people were suggesting this had to do with retain counts. I was under the impression that by using dot notation on a synthesized property, my class would be using an "auto generated accessor" that would be increasing my retain count for me so that I wouldn't have this problem. Could there be any implications because I'm accessing it in a sub-class and the prop is defined in the parent? I don't see anything in the book's errata about this, but the book is relatively new (Apress - More iPhone 3 Dev). I also have double checked that my code matches the example 100 times.

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  • ASP.Net MVC2 (RTM) breaks response filtering - "Filtering is not allowed"

    - by womp
    I've just done a test run of upgrading a project to ASP.Net MVC 2 (RTM) in anticipation of the full official .Net 4.0 release coming later this month. Our application is using a minimizer for our CSS and javascript. To do so, it is making use of the HttpResponse.Filter property to set a custom filter. With the upgrade, the setter for this property is throwing an HttpException saying "Filtering is not allowed." Looking that the HttpResponse.Filter property in reflector shows this: set { if (!this.UsingHttpWriter) { throw new HttpException(SR.GetString("Filtering_not_allowed")); } ... private bool UsingHttpWriter { get { return ((this._httpWriter != null) && (this._writer == this._httpWriter)); } } Clearly something has changed in the way the HttpResponse is writing to the output stream in MVC2. Does anyone know what the change is, or at least a workaround for this? EDIT: This seems pretty radical. Some further investigation shows that ASP.Net MVC 2 RTM is using a System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage.SwitchWriter as the Output property of an HttpResponse, whereas MVC 1 was using a plain old HttpWriter. That explains why the exception is being thrown. But that doesn't explain why they've chosen to completely break this functionality. This thread seems to indicate that this is just temporary... but this makes me pretty nervous... this is the RTM after all. Any further comments appreciated on this.

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  • WPF Databound RadioButton ListBox

    - by Mark
    I am having problems getting a databound radiobutton listbox in WPF to respond to user input and reflect changes to the data it's bound to (i.e., to making changes in the code). The user input side works fine (i.e., I can select a radiobutton and the list behaves as expected). But every attempt to change the selection in code fails. Silently (i.e., no exception). Here's the relevant section of the XAML (I think): <Setter Property="ItemContainerStyle"> <Setter.Value> <Style TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}" > <Setter Property="Margin" Value="2" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Border Name="theBorder" Background="Transparent"> <RadioButton Focusable="False" IsHitTestVisible="False" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Mode=TwoWay}" > <ContentPresenter /> </RadioButton> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </Setter.Value> I bind the listbox to a List of SchoolInfo objects. SchoolInfo contains a property called IsSelected: public bool IsSelected { get { return isSelected; } set { if( value != isSelected ) { isSelected = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("IsSelected"); } } } The OnPropertyChanged() stuff was something I put in during my experimentation. It doesn't solve the problem. Things like the following fail: ((SchoolInfo) lbxSchool.Items[1]).IsSelected = true; lbxSchool.SelectedIndex = 1; They fail silently -- no exception is thrown, but the UI doesn't show the item being selected. Mark

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  • Suppress Null Value Types from Being Emitted by XmlSerializer

    - by Ben Griswold
    Please consider the following Amount value type property which is marked as a nullable XmlElement: [XmlElement(IsNullable=true)] public double? Amount { get ; set ; } When a nullable value type is set to null, the C# XmlSerializer result looks like the following: <amount xsi:nil="true" /> Rather than emitting this element, I would like the XmlSerializer to suppress the element completely. Why? We're using Authorize.NET for online payments and Authorize.NET rejects the request if this null element exists. The current solution/workaround is to not serialize the Amount value type property at all. Instead we have created a complementary property, SerializableAmount, which is based on Amount and is serialized instead. Since SerializableAmount is of type String, which like reference types are suppressed by the XmlSerializer if null by default, everything works great. /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the amount. /// </summary> [XmlIgnore] public double? Amount { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the amount for serialization purposes only. /// This had to be done because setting value types to null /// does not prevent them from being included when a class /// is being serialized. When a nullable value type is set /// to null, such as with the Amount property, the result /// looks like: &gt;amount xsi:nil="true" /&lt; which will /// cause the Authorize.NET to reject the request. Strings /// when set to null will be removed as they are a /// reference type. /// </summary> [XmlElement("amount", IsNullable = false)] public string SerializableAmount { get { return this.Amount == null ? null : this.Amount.ToString(); } set { this.Amount = Convert.ToDouble(value); } } Of course, this is just a workaround. Is there a cleaner way to suppress null value type elements from being emitted?

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  • Serializing java objects with respect to xml schema loaded at runtime

    - by kohomologie
    I call an XML document three-layered if its structure is laid out as following: the root element contains some container elements (I'll call them entities), each of them has some simpleType elements inside (I'll call them properties). Something like that: <data> <spaceship> <number>1024</number> <name>KTHX</name> </spaceship> <spaceship> <number>1624</number> <name>LEXX</name> </spaceship> <knife> <length>10</length> </knife> </data> where spaceship is an entity, and number is a property. My problem is stated below: Given schema: an arbitrary xsd file describing a three-layered document, loaded at runtime. xmlDocument: an xml document conforming to the schema. Create A Map<String, Map <String, Object>> containing data from the xmlDocument, where first key corresponds to entity, second key correponds to this entity's property, and the value corresponds to this property's value, after casting it to a proper java type (for example, if the schema sets the property value to be xs:int, then it should be cast to Integer). What is the easiest way to achieve this result with existing libraries? P. S. JAXB is not really an option here. The schema might be arbitrary and unknown at compile-time. Also I wish to avoid an excessive use of reflection (associated with converting the beans to maps). I'm looking for something that would allow me to make the typecasts while xml is being parsed.

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  • WPF RelativeSource FindAncestor doesn't work outside of the Control.Resources context?

    - by sker
    I have this VisualBrush resource I took from some site and I apply it with triggers to a TextBox. <VisualBrush x:Key="HelpBrush" TileMode="None" Opacity="0.4" Stretch="None" AlignmentX="Left"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <TextBlock FontStyle="Italic" Text="{Binding Path=Tag, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Control}, AncestorLevel=1}}"/> </VisualBrush.Visual> </VisualBrush> <Style x:Key="DefaultText" TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Text" Value="{x:Null}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource HelpBrush}"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="Text" Value=""> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource HelpBrush}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> If I place both the VisualBrush and the Style inside the TextBox.Resources tag in XAML, it works fine. But if I take it out and place it in the Window.Resources or a merged dictionary, it stops working. The problem is the Binding, it doesn't find the ancestor TextBox for some reason. I already tried removing AncestorLevel and using AncestorType={x:Type TextBox} - it doesn't work. Any ideas?

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  • UpdateModel() fails after migration from MVC 1.0 to MVC 2.0

    - by Alastair Pitts
    We are in the process of migrating our ASP.NET MVC 1.0 web app to MVC 2.0 but we have run into a small snag. In our report creation wizard, it is possible leave the Title text box empty and have it be populated with a generic title (in the post action). The code that does the update on the model of the Title is: if (TryUpdateModel(reportToEdit, new[] { "Title" })) { //all ok here try to create (custom validation and attach to graph to follow) //if title is empty get config subject if (reportToEdit.Title.Trim().Length <= 0) reportToEdit.Title = reportConfiguration.Subject; if (!_service.CreateReport(1, reportToEdit, SelectedUser.ID, reportConfigID, reportCategoryID, reportTypeID, deviceUnitID)) return RedirectToAction("Index"); } In MVC 1.0, this works correctly,the reportToEdit has an empty title if the textbox is empty, which is then populated with the Subject property. In MVC 2.0 this fails/returns false. If I add the line above: UpdateModel(reportToEdit, new[] { "Title" }); it throws System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message="The model of type 'Footprint.Web.Models.Reports' could not be updated." Source="System.Web.Mvc" StackTrace: at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.UpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.UpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String[] includeProperties) at Footprint.Web.Controllers.ReportsController.Step1(FormCollection form) in C:\TFS Workspace\ExtBusiness_Footprint\Branches\apitts_uioverhaul\Footprint\Footprint.Web\Controllers\ReportsController.cs:line 398 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassd.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__a() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: Reading the MVC2 Release notes I see this breaking change: Every property for model objects that use IDataErrorInfo to perform validation is validated, regardless of whether a new value was set. In ASP.NET MVC 1.0, only properties that had new values set would be validated. In ASP.NET MVC 2, the Error property of IDataErrorInfo is called only if all the property validators were successful. but I'm confused how this is affecting me. I'm using the entity framework generated classes. Can anyone pinpoint why this is failing?

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  • WPF - How to bind a DataGridTemplateColumn

    - by Andy T
    Hi, I am trying to get the name of the property associated with a particular DataGridColumn, so that I can then do some stuff based on that. This function is called when the user clicks context menu item on the column's header... This is fine for the out-of-the-box ready-rolled column types like DataGridTextColumn, since they are bound, but the problem is that some of my columns are DataGridTemplateColumns, which are not bound. private void GroupByField_Click (object sender, RoutedEventArgs e){ MenuItem mi = (MenuItem)sender; ContextMenu cm = (ContextMenu) mi.Parent; DataGridColumnHeader dgch = (DataGridColumnHeader) cm.PlacementTarget; DataGridBoundColumn dgbc = (DataGridBoundColumn) dgch.Column; Binding binding = (Binding) dgbc.Binding; string BoundPropName = binding.Path.Path; //Do stuff based on bound property name here... } So, take for example my 'Name' column... it's a DataGridTemplateColumn (since it has an image and some other stuff in there). Therefore, it is not actually bound to the 'Name' property... but I would like to be, so that the above code will work. My question is two-part, really: 1) Is it possible to make a DataGridTemplateColumn be BOUND, so that the above code would work? Can I bind it somehow to a property? 2) Or do I need to something entirely different, and change the code above? Thanks in advance! AT

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  • No Persistence provider for EntityManager named ...

    - by Robert A Henru
    I have my persistence.xml with the same name, using toplink, under META-INF directory. Then I have my code calling it with... EntityManagerFactory emfdb = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("agisdb"); Yet, I got the following error message 2009-07-21 09:22:41,018 [main] ERROR - No Persistence provider for EntityManager named agisdb javax.persistence.PersistenceException: No Persistence provider for EntityManager named agisdb at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:89) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:60) Here is the persistence.xml... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="agisdb"> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.AddressEntity</class> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.TrafficCameraEntity</class> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.TrafficPhotoEntity</class> <class>com.agis.livedb.domain.TrafficReportEntity</class> <properties> <property name="toplink.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/agisdb"/> <property name="toplink.jdbc.driver" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> <property name="toplink.jdbc.user" value="root"/> <property name="toplink.jdbc.password" value="password"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> It should have been in the classpath... Yet, I got the above error... Really appreciate any help... Thanks

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  • How to force multiple Interfaces to include certain the same properties?

    - by Jed
    I am trying to figure out a way to force all of my Interfaces to include properties of the same name/type. For example: I have two Interfaces; IGetAlarms and IGetDiagnostics. Each of the Interfaces will contain properties that are specific to the Interface itself, however I want to force the two Interfaces (and all other Interfaces that may be added later) to include properties of the same name. So, the result may look something like the this: interface IGetAlarms { string GetAlarms(); DateTime LastRuntime { get; set; } } interface IGetDiagnostics { string GetDiagnostics(); DateTime LastRuntime { get; set; } } Notice that both Interfaces include a DateTime property named LastRuntime. I would like to know if there is some way I can force other Interfaces that will be added later to include the DateTime LastRuntime property. I have naively attempted to have all my Interfaces implement another Interface (IService) - which includes the LastRuntime property. However, that doesn't solve my problem as that simply forces the class to implement the property - not all the Interfaces. Thanks.

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  • How can I set PivotField.Calculation in Excel/VSTO?

    - by Kang Su
    I'm trying to set the Calculation property on an OLAP PivotField with VSTO 3.0. For example: pivotField.Calculation = XlPivotFieldCalculation.PercentOf; If I do the above, the value I assign does not stay (Excel appears to revert the change). I suspect the reason is that the BaseField property of the PivotField also needs to be populated (as PercentOf needs a BaseField). But it appears to me that you can't set the BaseField property until you've set the Calculation property (otherwise you get a COMException). I've tried to set ManualUpdate on the PivotTable to true, but with VSTO this rarely works, as this gets reverted immediately back to false. Note, that this seems to work fine in VBA as you can assign multiple values in a single statement, like this: With ActiveSheet.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("[Measures].[Reseller Sales Amount]") .Calculation = xlPercentOf .BaseField = "[Geography].[Geography].[Country]" .BaseItem = "[Geography].[Geography].[Country].&[France]" .NumberFormat = "0.00%" End With But with C#/VSTO there's no construct like this (that I know of) and I'm stuck not able to do something like the above. Further note, Calculation values that don't require a BaseField, e.g., XlPivotFieldCalculation.xlPercentOfTotal, get set just fine. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated!

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  • EF4 querying from parent to grandchildren

    - by Hans Kesting
    I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select all data of it's grandchildren. That's a lot of separate queries! Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing methods I need, like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the navigation property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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  • Which pattern should be used for editing properties with modal view controller on iPhone?

    - by Matthew Daugherty
    I am looking for a good pattern for performing basic property editing via a modal view on the iPhone. Assume I am putting together an application that works like the Contacts application. The "detail" view controller displays all of the contact's properties in a UITableView. When the UITableView goes into edit mode a disclosure icon is displayed in the cells. Clicking a cell causes a modal "editor" view controller to display a view that allows the user to modify the selected property. This view will often contain only a single text box or picker. The user clicks Cancel/Save and the "editor" view is dismissed and the "detail" view is updated. In this scenario, which view is responsible for updating the model? The "editor" view could update the property directly using Key-Value Coding. This appears in the CoreDataBooks example. This makes sense to me on some level because it treats the property as the model for the editor view controller. However, this is not the pattern suggested by the View Controller Programming Guide. It suggests that the "editor" view controller should define a protocol that the "detail" controller adopts. When the user indicates they are done with the edit, the "detail" view controller is called back with the entered value and it dismisses the "editor" view. Using this approach the "detail" controller updates the model. This approach seems problematic if you are using the same "editor" view for multiple properties since there is only a single call-back method. Would love to get some feedback on what approach works best.

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  • C# to find JobId, Owner, TotalPages from Printer

    - by tanthiamhuat
    My below code works when the Form loads and I can get a list of Network Printers in listBox1. I am also able to see a specific printer's property name and value in listBox2. private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (String printer in PrinterSettings.InstalledPrinters) { listBox1.Items.Add(printer.ToString()); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string printerName = "Ricoh-L4-1"; string query = string.Format("SELECT * from Win32_Printer WHERE Name LIKE '%{0}'", printerName); ManagementObjectSearcher searcher = new ManagementObjectSearcher(query); ManagementObjectCollection coll = searcher.Get(); foreach (ManagementObject printer in coll) { foreach (PropertyData property in printer.Properties) { listBox2.Items.Add(string.Format("{0}: {1}", property.Name, property.Value)); } } } But when I try to find JobId, Owner, TotalPages for a particular printer (when I actually send jobs to print to that printer), those values do not display at all. private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { listBox2.Items.Clear(); string printerName = "Ricoh-L4-1"; string query = string.Format("SELECT * from Win32_PrintJob WHERE Name LIKE '%{0}'", printerName); ManagementObjectSearcher SearchPrintJobs = new ManagementObjectSearcher(query); ManagementObjectCollection PrntJobCollection = SearchPrintJobs.Get(); foreach (ManagementObject PrntJob in PrntJobCollection) { string m_JobID = PrntJob.Properties["JobId"].Value.ToString(); string m_Owner = PrntJob.Properties["Owner"].Value.ToString(); string m_TotalPages = PrntJob.Properties["TotalPages"].Value.ToString(); listBox2.Items.Add(string.Format("{0}:{1}:{2}", m_JobID,m_Owner,m_TotalPages)); } } Do you have any idea how to get above to work? thanks in advance.

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  • Mapping parent-child relationships with iBatis

    - by agnul
    I have the classic setup public class Parent { Integer id; ... // No generics Collection someCollectionAttribute; ... public void setChildren(Collection c) { ... } } public class Child { Integer id; ... } and I'm trying to map this on the usual table setup using iBatis (version 2.30... don't ask). create table parents ( ID integer primary key ... ) create table children ( ID integer primary key PARENT_ID integer references parents(id) ... ) My mapping file looks like this <resultMap id="ParentResult" groupBy="id"> <result property="id" column="ID" /> ... <result property="children" resultMap="ChildResult" /> </resultMap> <resultMap id="ChildResult"> <result property="id" column="ID" /> <result property="parentId" column="PARENT_ID" /> ... </result> <sql id="loadParent" resultMap="ParentResult"> select P.ID as p1, ..., C.ID as c1, C.PARENT_ID as c2 ... from parents P join children C on (P.ID = C.PARENT_ID) where P.ID = #id# order by P.ID </sql> Doing the usual sqlMap.queryForObject("loadParent", new Integer(42)) at first caused a NullPointerException inside the setChildren setter which apparently is called with a null argument (my bad). Fixing the setter everything works fine, but the logs show that setChildren is called only once before even running a single SQL statement, still with a null argument, so I'm wondering what's going on here. Anyone has any clues?

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  • TDD - testing business rules/validation in ASP.NET MVC

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, I am using the sharp architecture so I can easily use mocks etc. in my unit tests and/or during TDD. I have quite complicated business rules and would like to test them at the controller level. I am just wondering how other people do this? For me validation tests business rules at three levels: (1) Property level (e.g. property is required) (2) Intra property level (e.g. start date < end date) (3) Persistence level (e.g. name is unique, parent cannot be child of child) My validation framework also assigns errors to properties. I am just wondering what other people do? Do you write a test for each business rule and check whether the correct error message is assigned to the correct property (i.e. looking at the ASP.MVC ModelState)? I hope my question makes sense. Thanks a lot! Best wishes, Christian

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  • WPF Usercontrol interaction with parent view / viewmodel

    - by obaylis
    Hi I have a mainView window which has its dataContext set to it's own viewModel. On that viewModel is a DateTime property which in turn is bound to a datepicker on my main view using 2 way binding. <toolkit:DatePicker DateSelected="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" /> This is all fine so far. On the change of my datetime property I create a list which is then bound to a datagrid elsewhere on the mainview. This all works fine. My question is to do with a usercontrol I want to add to the main view. I want this usercontrol to be self contained so have created it with it's own viewmodel but it does also need access to mainDateTimeProperty I thought that best way to go would be to create a dependencyProperty on the usercontrol and when I create my control in the main view I bind the dp to the datetime as follows. <uc:MyNewUserControl DateProperty="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty}" /> Trouble is how do I have the usercontrol maintain datacontext with it's viewmodel and yet still have the dependency property bound to a property on the main view model? Hope this is clear. Can post some more code if necessary. Looking for a best practice approach if possible. Thanks very much for any advice.

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  • My SqlComand on SSIS - DataFlow OLE DB Command seems not works

    - by Angel Escobedo
    Hello Im using OLE DB Source for get rows from a dBase IV file and it works, then I split the data and perform a group by with aggregate component. So I obtain a row with two columns with "null" value : CompanyID | CompanyName | SubTotal | Tax | TotalRevenue Null Null 145487 27642.53 173129.53 this success because all rows have been grouped with out taking care about the firsts columns and just Summing the valuable columns, so I need to change that null for default values as CompanyID = "100000000" and CompanyName = "Others". I try use SqlCommand on a OLE DB Command Component : SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC <property id="1505" name="SqlCommand" dataType="System.String" state="default" isArray="false" description="The SQL command to be executed." typeConverter="" UITypeEditor="Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls.ModalMultilineStringEditor, Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91" containsID="false" expressionType="Notify">SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC</property> but nothings happens, why? and finally the task finish when the data is inserted on a SQL Server Table. Im using the same connection manager on extracting data and transform. (View Code) <DTS:Property DTS:Name="ConnectionString">Data Source=C:\CONTA\Resocen\Agosto\;Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Persist Security Info=False;Extended Properties=dBASE IV;</DTS:Property></DTS:ConnectionManager></DTS:ObjectData></DTS:ConnectionManager> all work is on memory, Im not using cache manager connections

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  • vbCrLf in Multiline TextBox shows up only when .Trim() is called

    - by Brandon Montgomery
    I have an ASP TextBox with TextMode set to MultiLine. I'm having problems with preserving the vbCrLf characters when a user tries to put line breaks into the text. When a button on the page is pressed, I'm taking the text from the control, trimming it using String.Trim, and assigning that value to a String property on an object (which, in turn assigns it to a private internal String variable on the object). The object then takes the value from the private internal variable and throws it into the database using a stored procedure call (the SP parameter it is put into is an nvarchar(4000)). ASPX Page: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" RenderMode="Inline" UpdateMode="Conditional" ChildrenAsTriggers="true"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- some other controls and things --> <asp:TextBox TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" ID="txtComments" Width="100%" Height="60px" CssClass="TDTextArea" Style="border: 0px;" MaxLength="2000" /> <!-- some other controls and things --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> code behind: ProjectRequest.StatusComments = txtComments.Text.Trim object property: Protected mStatusComments As String = String.Empty Property StatusComments() As String Get Return mStatusComments.Trim End Get Set(ByVal Value As String) mStatusComments = Value End Set End Property stored proc call: Common.RunSP(mDBConnStr, "ProjectStatusUpdate", _ Common.MP("@UID", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 40, mUID), _ Common.MP("@ProjID", SqlDbType.VarChar, 40, mID), _ Common.MP("@StatusID", SqlDbType.Int, 8, mStatusID), _ Common.MP("@Comments", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 4000, mStatusComments), _ Common.MP("@PCTComp", SqlDbType.Int, 4, 0), _ Common.MP("@Type", Common.TDSqlDbType.TinyInt, 1, EntryType)) Here's the strangest part. When I debug the code, if I type "test test" (without the quotes) into the comments text box, then click the save button and use the immediate window to view the variable values as I step through, here is what I get: ?txtComments.Text "test test" ?txtComments.Text.Trim "test test" ?txtComments.Text(4) " "c ?txtComments.Text.Trim()(4) " "c Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here?

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  • Wrapped WPF Control

    - by Robert
    Hi, I'm trying to create a GUI (WPF) Library where each (custom) control basically wraps an internal (third party) control. Then, I'm manually exposing each property (not all of them, but almost). In XAML the resulting control is pretty straightforward: <my:CustomButton Content="ClickMe" /> And the code behind is quite simple as well: public class CustomButton : Control { private MyThirdPartyButton _button = null; static CustomButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(CustomButton))); } public CustomButton() { _button = new MyThirdPartyButton(); this.AddVisualChild(_button); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return _button == null ? 0 : 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { if (_button == null) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); } return _button; } #region Property: Content public Object Content { get { return GetValue(ContentProperty); } set { SetValue(ContentProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Content", typeof(Object), typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(new PropertyChangedCallback(ChangeContent)) ); private static void ChangeContent(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { (source as CustomButton).UpdateContent(e.NewValue); } private void UpdateContent(Object sel) { _button.Content = sel; } #endregion } The problem comes after we expose MyThirdPartyButton as a property (in case we don't expose something, we would like to give the programmer the means to use it directly). By simply creating the property, like this: public MyThirdPartyButton InternalControl { get { return _button; } set { if (_button != value) { this.RemoveVisualChild(_button); _button = value; this.AddVisualChild(_button); } } } The resulting XAML would be this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl> <thirdparty:MyThirdPartyButton Content="ClickMe" /> </my:CustomButton.InternalControl> And what I'm looking for, is something like this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl Content="ClickMe" /> But (with the code I have) its impossible to add attributes to InternalControl... Any ideas/suggestions? Thanks a lot, -- Robert

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  • Using Mapping Models to migrate between Core Data Object Models

    - by westsider
    I have a fairly simply scheme. Essentially, Run <-- Data (where a Run holds a data, e.g., Temperature, sampled from some sort of sensor). Now, it seems that sensors can have more than one measurement (e.g., Temperature and Humidity). So, a single Run could have multiple data samples. Hence, Run <-- Sample and Sample <-- Data. (And for simplicity I am leaving Run <-- Data in place, for now.) If I create a new mapping model, then things generally work - except that no new Samples are created, no relationships are established between Runs and Samples nor between Samples and Datas. I am trying to get mapping model to migrate my model but even the slightest change to the generated mapping model results in Cocoa error 134110. For example, if I take the "Sample" mapping (which has no Source) and set its Source to 'Run' (so that I can set Sample's inverse relationship 'run' appropriately) then the mapping changes its name to "RunToSample". There are two relationships handled in this mapping: data and run. The data property gets set automatically to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "DataToData", $source.dataSet) Following this example, I set the run property to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToRun", $source) Similarly, I set the 'sample' property mapping in RunToRun to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToSample", $source) and the 'sample' property in DataToData to FUNCTION($manager, "destinationInstancesForEntityMappingNamed:sourceInstances:" , "RunToSample", $source.run) So, what, I wonder, is going wrong? I have tried various permutations, such as leaving the 'inverse' relationships unspecified. But I continue to get the same error (134110) regardless. I imagine that this is a lot easier than it seems and that I am missing some fundamental but minor piece. I have also tried subclassing NSEntityMigrationPolicy and overriding -createDestinationInstancesForSourceInstance: but these efforts have met with much the same results. Thanks in advance for any pointers or (relevant :-) advice.

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