Search Results

Search found 3632 results on 146 pages for 'deleted'.

Page 135/146 | < Previous Page | 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142  | Next Page >

• Does subTable support reRender?

  - by Tom

  Here is a minimal rich:dataTable with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a complete page refresh. Does subTable support reRender the way i'd like to use it here? Tanks Tom

  Read the article

• Crawling not working windows2008

  - by axtolf

  Hi, We installed a new MOSS 2007 farm on windows 2008 SP2 enviroment. We used SQL2008 too. Configuration is 1 index, 1 FE and 1 server with 2008, all on ESX 4.0. All the Service that need it uses a dedicated user, so search has a dedicated user. Installation went well and we found no problem. We installed an SP1 MOSS from a ISO and after we upgraded WSS and MOSS to SP2. We installed the Italian language pack too and patched it to SP2. We created a new SSP. We created a web application and created a root website under it. The problem is that we can't male crawling work in any way. Seems that crawling is not able to reach the web application that we want to crawl. In event viewer of the index we have this error when we try to crawl it: The start address <h..p://name.domain.it:81 cannot be crawled. Context: Application 'SSP1', Catalog 'Portal_Content' Details: The object was not found. (0x80041201) The log of crawling from the search admin, only says: h..p://name.domani.it:81 The object was not found. (The item was deleted because it was either not found or the crawler was denied access to it.) The domain is fully accessible from everywhere using both farm admin user or the search user that we are using for service to run. Site is fully accessible from the index and seem not have problem. Inside the we application we created a root site collection with a couple of file. The log of the farm simply says.... nothing! When we ask to do a full crawl of the site, it runs for a second and after we have the errors that I wrote above. But the farm's log says nothing. Any suggestion or help is really appreciated since we are losing a lot of time on it and really we do not have any idea of what's wrong about this farm.

  Read the article

• Crazy VS Designer Errors

  - by BlueRaja

  Here's a strange one. After renaming a class, one of my forms began giving me errors in the designer, refusing to open. Funny thing is, the form worked just fine when I ran the program. I began reverting my changes to deduce the problem. I have now reverted completely back to the last commit - in which I know the form was working in the designer - cleaned the solution, and deleted the bin/ and obj/ folders, as well as the *.suo file for good measure. The form still does not display in designer. Here are the errors it gives: Could not find 'MyNamespace.MyControl'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built. The variable 'myControl1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. The variable is both declared and assigned, and MyControl builds fine (again, the form works fine when the program is actually run). Stranger still, if I try to create a new form and drag a MyControl onto it, I get this Entity-Framework error: Failed to create component 'MyControl'. The error message follows: 'System.ArgumentException: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.ChangeConnectionString(String newConnectionString) at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection..ctor(String connectionString) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContect.CreateEntityConnection(String connectionString) etc. etc. There is nothing wrong with my connection string: it worked before, and, again, it works when I actually run the program (the control already exists on the old form from the previous commit). Any ideas whatsoever? I am completely at a loss. [Edit] The only significant code: MyControl.cs public MyControl() { _entities = new MyEFEntities(); //Entity-framework generated class } MyForm.Designer.cs private void InitializeComponent() { this.myControl1 = new MyNamespace.MyControl(); ... this.Controls.Add(this.myControl1); } MyEFDatabase.Designer.cs public MyEFEntities() : base("name=MyEFEntities", "MyEFEntities") { ... } App.Config <connectionStrings> <add name="MyEFEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/MyEFDatabase.csdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.ssdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MyDatabaseServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> I've tried the "replace &quot; with '" trick - didn't help. [Edit2] It is happening to new projects also, but not immediately. Only after fiddling around a bit (it has something to do with adding a many-to-one relationship that EF did not figure out on its own), but I can't figure out the exact steps to reproduce.

  Read the article

• Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

  - by Ashish Gupta

  I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

  Read the article

• When is it worth using a BindingSource?

  - by Justin

  I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

  Read the article

• Does a nested subTable break reRender?

  - by Tom

  Here is a minimal rich:dataTable with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a complete page refresh. Why does subTable break support for reRender-ing the way i'd like to use it here? Tanks Tom

  Read the article

• Beginner - C# iteration through directory to produce a file list

  - by dassouki

  The end goal is to have some form of a data structure that stores a hierarchal structure of a directory to be stored in a txt file. I'm using the following code and so far, and I'm struggling with combining dirs, subdirs, and files. /// <summary> /// code based on http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb513869.aspx /// </summary> /// <param name="strFolder"></param> public static void TraverseTree ( string strFolder ) { // Data structure to hold names of subfolders to be // examined for files. Stack<string> dirs = new Stack<string>( 20 ); if ( !System.IO.Directory.Exists( strFolder ) ) { throw new ArgumentException(); } dirs.Push( strFolder ); while ( dirs.Count > 0 ) { string currentDir = dirs.Pop(); string[] subDirs; try { subDirs = System.IO.Directory.GetDirectories( currentDir ); } catch ( UnauthorizedAccessException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } catch ( System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } string[] files = null; try { files = System.IO.Directory.GetFiles( currentDir ); } catch ( UnauthorizedAccessException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } catch ( System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException e ) { MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } // Perform the required action on each file here. // Modify this block to perform your required task. /* foreach ( string file in files ) { try { // Perform whatever action is required in your scenario. System.IO.FileInfo fi = new System.IO.FileInfo( file ); Console.WriteLine( "{0}: {1}, {2}", fi.Name, fi.Length, fi.CreationTime ); } catch ( System.IO.FileNotFoundException e ) { // If file was deleted by a separate application // or thread since the call to TraverseTree() // then just continue. MessageBox.Show( "Error: " + e.Message ); continue; } } */ // Push the subdirectories onto the stack for traversal. // This could also be done before handing the files. foreach ( string str in subDirs ) dirs.Push( str ); foreach ( string str in files ) MessageBox.Show( str ); }

  Read the article

• The most efficient method of drawing multiple quads in OpenGL

  - by CPatton

  I'm not very keen with OpenGL and I was wondering if someone could give me some insight on this. I'm a 'seasoned' programmer, I've read the redbook about VBOs and the like, but I was wondering from a more experienced person about the best/most efficient way of achieving this. I've been producing this 2d tile-based game engine to be used in several projects. I have a class called "ScreenObject" which is mainly composed of a Dictionary<Point, Tile> The Point key is to show where to render the Tile on the screen, and the Tile contains one or more textures to be drawn at that point. This ScreenObject is where the tiles will be modified, deleted, added, etc.. My original method of drawing the tiles in the testing I've done was to iterate through the ScreenObject and draw each quad at each location separately. From what I've read, this is a massive waste of resources. It wasn't horribly slow in the testing, but after I've completed the animation classes and effect classes, I'm sure it would be extremely slow. And one last thing, if you wouldn't mind.. As I said before, the Tile class can contain multiple textures to be drawn at the Point location on the screen. I recognize possibly two options for me here. Either add a quad at that location for each texture to be drawn, or, somehow.. use a multiple texture for the same quad (if it's possible). Even if each tile contained one texture only, that would be 64 quads to be drawn on the screen. Most of the tiles will contain 2-5 textures, so the number of total quads would increase dramatically with this method. Would it be feasible to add a quad for each new texture, or am I ignoring a better way to do this? Just need some help understanding this if you don't mind :) I've tried to be as concise as possible, and I'd greatly appreciate any responses.. and even some criticism. Programming is often a learning process and one who develops seems to never stops learning. Thanks for your time.

  Read the article

• Bottom button bar overlaps the last element of Listview!!

  - by elto

  I have a listview which is part of an Activity. I want user to have a choice for batch deleting the items in the listview, so when he chooses the corresponding option from the menu, every list item gets a checkbox next to it. When user clicks any checkbox, a button bar is to slide up from bottom (as in gmail app) and clicking delete button deletes the selected items, however clicking cancel button on the bar would uncheck all the checked items. This is my page layout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="@android:color/transparent" > <FrameLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/list_area" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1" > <ListView android:id="@+id/mylist" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:background="@android:color/transparent" android:drawSelectorOnTop="false" android:layout_weight="1" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/empty_list_message" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textColor="#FFFFFF" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical|center_horizontal" android:text="@string/msg_for_emptyschd" android:layout_margin="14dip" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> <RelativeLayout android:id="@+id/bottom_action_bar" android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:background="@drawable/schedule_bottom_actionbar_border" android:layout_marginBottom="2dip" android:layout_gravity="bottom" android:visibility="gone" > <Button android:id="@+id/delete_selecteditems_button" android:text="Deleted Selected" android:layout_width="140dip" android:layout_height="40dip" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" android:layout_marginLeft="3dip" android:layout_marginTop="3dip" /> <Button android:id="@+id/cancel_button" android:text="Cancel" android:layout_width="140dip" android:layout_height="40dip" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:layout_marginRight="3dip" android:layout_marginTop="3dip" /> </RelativeLayout> </FrameLayout> </LinearLayout> so far, I have got everything working except that when the bottom bar becomes visible upon checkbox selection, it overlaps the last element of the list. All other list items can be scrolled up, but you cant scroll up the very last item of the list, therefore user can not select that item if he intends to. Here is the screenshot of the overlap. I have tried using the listview footer option, but that appends the bar to the end of the list instead of keeping it fixed at the bottom of the screen. Is there a way I could "raise" the listview enough so that the overlap wont happen?? BTW, I have already tried adding the bottom-margin to the listview itself, or the LinearLayout wrapping the listview right before making the button-bar visible, but it introduces other bugs like clicking one checkbox checks some another checkbox in listview.

  Read the article

• stdio's remove() not always deleting on time.

  - by Kyte

  For a particular piece of homework, I'm implementing a basic data storage system using sequential files under standard C, which cannot load more than 1 record at a time. So, the basic part is creating a new file where the results of whatever we do with the original records are stored. The previous file's renamed, and a new one under the working name is created. The code's compiled with MinGW 5.1.6 on Windows 7. Problem is, this particular version of the code (I've got nearly-identical versions of this floating around my functions) doesn't always remove the old file, so the rename fails and hence the stored data gets wiped by the fopen(). FILE *archivo, *antiguo; remove("IndiceNecesidades.old"); // This randomly fails to work in time. rename("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "IndiceNecesidades.old"); // So rename() fails. antiguo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.old", "rb"); // But apparently it still gets deleted, since this turns out null (and I never find the .old in my working folder after the program's done). archivo = fopen("IndiceNecesidades.dat", "wb"); // And here the data gets wiped. Basically, anytime the .old previously exists, there's a chance it's not removed in time for the rename() to take effect successfully. No possible name conflicts both internally and externally. The weird thing's that it's only with this particular file. Identical snippets except with the name changed to Necesidades.dat (which happen in 3 different functions) work perfectly fine. // I'm yet to see this snippet fail. FILE *antiguo, *archivo; remove("Necesidades.old"); rename("Necesidades.dat", "Necesidades.old"); antiguo = fopen("Necesidades.old", "rb"); archivo = fopen("Necesidades.dat", "wb"); Any ideas on why would this happen, and/or how can I ensure the remove() command has taken effect by the time rename() is executed? (I thought of just using a while loop to force call remove() again so long as fopen() returns a non-null pointer, but that sounds like begging for a crash due to overflowing the OS with delete requests or something.)

  Read the article

• who free's setvbuf buffer?

  - by Evan Teran

  So I've been digging into how the stdio portion of libc is implemented and I've come across another question. Looking at man setvbuf I see the following: When the first I/O operation occurs on a file, malloc(3) is called, and a buffer is obtained. This makes sense, your program should have a malloc in it for I/O unless you actually use it. My gut reaction to this is that libc will clean up its own mess here. Which I can only assume it does because valgrind reports no memory leaks (they could of course do something dirty and not allocate it via malloc directly... but we'll assume that it literally uses malloc for now). But, you can specify your own buffer too... int main() { char *p = malloc(100); setvbuf(stdio, p, _IOFBF, 100); puts("hello world"); } Oh no, memory leak! valgrind confirms it. So it seems that whenever stdio allocates a buffer on its own, it will get deleted automatically (at the latest on program exit, but perhaps on stream close). But if you specify the buffer explicitly, then you must clean it up yourself. There is a catch though. The man page also says this: You must make sure that the space that buf points to still exists by the time stream is closed, which also happens at program termination. For example, the following is invalid: Now this is getting interesting for the standard streams. How would one properly clean up a manually allocated buffer for them, since they are closed in program termination? I could imagine a "clean this up when I close flag" inside the file struct, but it get hairy because if I read this right doing something like this: setvbuf(stdio, 0, _IOFBF, 100); printf("hello "); setvbuf(stdio, 0, _IOLBF, 100); printf("world\n"); would cause 2 allocations by the standard library because of this sentence: If the argument buf is NULL, only the mode is affected; a new buffer will be allocated on the next read or write operation.

  Read the article

• JavaScript: Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

  - by Mike

  I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync.

  Read the article

• T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

  - by Greg Potter

  I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

  Read the article

• Advice on logic circuits and serial communications

  - by Spencer Ruport

  As far as I understand the serial port so far, transferring data is done over pin 3. As shown here: There are two things that make me uncomfortable about this. The first is that it seems to imply that the two connected devices agree on a signal speed and the second is that even if they are configured to run at the same speed you run into possible synchronization issues... right? Such things can be handled I suppose but it seems like there must be a simpler method. What seems like a better approach to me would be to have one of the serial port pins send a pulse that indicates that the next bit is ready to be stored. So if we're hooking these pins up to a shift register we basically have: (some pulse pin)-clk, tx-d Is this a common practice? Is there some reason not to do this? EDIT Mike shouldn't have deleted his answer. This I2C (2 pin serial) approach seems fairly close to what I did. The serial port doesn't have a clock you're right nobugz but that's basically what I've done. See here: private void SendBytes(byte[] data) { int baudRate = 0; int byteToSend = 0; int bitToSend = 0; byte bitmask = 0; byte[] trigger = new byte[1]; trigger[0] = 0; SerialPort p; try { p = new SerialPort(cmbPorts.Text); } catch { return; } if (!int.TryParse(txtBaudRate.Text, out baudRate)) return; if (baudRate < 100) return; p.BaudRate = baudRate; for (int index = 0; index < data.Length * 8; index++) { byteToSend = (int)(index / 8); bitToSend = index - (byteToSend * 8); bitmask = (byte)System.Math.Pow(2, bitToSend); p.Open(); p.Parity = Parity.Space; p.RtsEnable = (byte)(data[byteToSend] & bitmask) > 0; s = p.BaseStream; s.WriteByte(trigger[0]); p.Close(); } } Before anyone tells me how ugly this is or how I'm destroying my transfer speeds my quick answer is I don't care about that. My point is this seems much much simpler than the method you described in your answer nobugz. And it wouldn't be as ugly if the .Net SerialPort class gave me more control over the pin signals. Are there other serial port APIs that do?

  Read the article

• Authlogic OpenID: Fetching E-Mail from Provider.

  - by Shripad K

  This is a really weird problem: I have set up the authlogic_openid_selector_example app. When i register, the email id is not returned by the openid provider the first time. But if i delete the account and register again, the email id is returned. But this doesn't seem to be happening in the example hosted here: http://big-glow-mama.heroku.com/. How do i fix this problem? Has this got to do with caching? I have hosted my version of the app here: http://pingauthtest.heroku.com/ I guess the author of authlogic_openid_selector_example app (@holden) has forgotten to commit new changes. :) I looked at my development log and the first time the provider doesn't return the openid.ext1.value.ext0 which contains the email id. This is returned the second time only after having deleted the account first. Edit: This is some extra info for debugging: THIS IS WHEN IT REGISTERS: OpenIdAuthentication::Association Load (5.3ms) SELECT * FROM "open_id_authentication_associations" WHERE ("open_id_authentication_associations"."server_url" = E'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud') Generated checkid_setup request to https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud with assocication AOQobUde_9BUnQsk91rb_Sf9tguJ-S7Gpkwahc-nvDGDYAC8nphisNqu Redirected to https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud? openid.assoc_handle=AOQobUde_9BUnQsk91rb_Sf9tguJ-S7Gpkwahc-nvDGDYAC8nphisNqu &openid.ax.mode=fetch_request &openid.ax.required=ext0 &openid.ax.type.ext0=http%3A%2F%2Faxschema.org%2Fcontact%2Femail &openid.claimed_id=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select &openid.identity=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select &openid.mode=checkid_setup &openid.ns=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0 &openid.ns.ax=http%3A%2F%2Fopenid.net%2Fsrv%2Fax%2F1.0 &openid.ns.sreg=http%3A%2F%2Fopenid.net%2Fextensions%2Fsreg%2F1.1 &openid.realm=http%3A%2F%2Flocalhost%3A3000%2F &openid.return_to=http%3A%2F%2Flocalhost%3A3000%2Faccount%3Ffor_model%3D1%26_method%3Dpost%26open_id_complete%3D1 &openid.sreg.required=email Completed in 3574ms (DB: 14) | 302 Found [http://localhost/account] THIS IS WHEN IT USES SESSIONS: OpenIdAuthentication::Association Load (5.3ms) SELECT * FROM "open_id_authentication_associations" WHERE ("open_id_authentication_associations"."server_url" = E'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud') Generated checkid_setup request to https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud with assocication AOQobUde_9BUnQsk91rb_Sf9tguJ-S7Gpkwahc-nvDGDYAC8nphisNqu Redirected to https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud? openid.assoc_handle=AOQobUde_9BUnQsk91rb_Sf9tguJ-S7Gpkwahc-nvDGDYAC8nphisNqu &openid.ax.mode=fetch_request &openid.claimed_id=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select &openid.identity=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select &openid.mode=checkid_setup &openid.ns=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0 &openid.ns.ax=http%3A%2F%2Fopenid.net%2Fsrv%2Fax%2F1.0 &openid.ns.sreg=http%3A%2F%2Fopenid.net%2Fextensions%2Fsreg%2F1.1 &openid.realm=http%3A%2F%2Flocalhost%3A3000%2F &openid.return_to=http%3A%2F%2Flocalhost%3A3000%2Fuser_session%3Ffor_session%3D1%26_method%3Dpost%26open_id_complete%3D1 Completed in 2708ms (DB: 15) | 302 Found [http://localhost/user_session]

  Read the article

• SELECT SQL statement problem when getting info from an accdb in VB.Net

  - by Shane Fagan

  Hi again all, im getting the error below for this SQL statement in VB.Net SQLString = "SELECT AllPropertyDetails.PropertyID, Street, Town, County, Acres, Quotas, ResidenceDetails, Status, HighestBid, AskingPrice FROM AllPropertyDetails " SQLString += "INNER JOIN Land ON AllPropertyDetails.PropertyID = Land.PropertyID " SQLString += "WHERE Deleted = False " If PriceRadioButton.Checked = True Then SQLString += "ORDER BY AskingPrice ASC" ElseIf AcresRadioButton.Checked = True Then SQLString += "ORDER BY Acres ASC" End If Any ideas why its not working? The fields in the DB and the table names seem ok but its not working :/ System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: No value given for one or more required parameters." Source="AuctioneerProject" StackTrace: at AuctioneerProject.My.MyProject.MyForms.Create__Instance__[T](T Instance) in 17d14f5c-a337-4978-8281-53493378c1071.vb:line 190 at AuctioneerProject.My.MyProject.MyForms.get_LandReport() at AuctioneerProject.ReportsMenu.LandButton_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Users\admin\Desktop\Auctioneers\AuctioneerProject\AuctioneerProject\ReportsMenu.vb:line 4 at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.DebuggableCallback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.DispatchMessageW(MSG& msg) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(ApplicationContext context) at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.OnRun() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.DoApplicationModel() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.Run(String[] commandLine) at AuctioneerProject.My.MyApplication.Main(String[] Args) in 17d14f5c-a337-4978-8281-53493378c1071.vb:line 81 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException ErrorCode=-2147217904 Message="No value given for one or more required parameters." Source="Microsoft Office Access Database Engine" StackTrace: at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommandTextErrorHandling(OleDbHResult hr) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommandTextForSingleResult(tagDBPARAMS dbParams, Object& executeResult) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommandText(Object& executeResult) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteCommand(CommandBehavior behavior, Object& executeResult) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteReaderInternal(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand.ExecuteReader() at AuctioneerProject.LandReport.load_Land() in C:\Users\admin\Desktop\Auctioneers\AuctioneerProject\AuctioneerProject\LandReport.vb:line 37 at AuctioneerProject.LandReport.PriceRadioButton_CheckedChanged(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Users\admin\Desktop\Auctioneers\AuctioneerProject\AuctioneerProject\LandReport.vb:line 79 at System.Windows.Forms.RadioButton.OnCheckedChanged(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.RadioButton.set_Checked(Boolean value) at AuctioneerProject.LandReport.InitializeComponent() in C:\Users\admin\Desktop\Auctioneers\AuctioneerProject\AuctioneerProject\LandReport.designer.vb:line 40 at AuctioneerProject.LandReport..ctor() in C:\Users\admin\Desktop\Auctioneers\AuctioneerProject\AuctioneerProject\LandReport.vb:line 5 InnerException:

  Read the article

• Jquery Dialog - div disappears after initialization

  - by Zuber

  JQuery Dialog is giving me lots of pain lately. I have the following div which I want to be popped up. (Ignore that the classes do not show the double quotes in the syntax) TABLE class=widget-title-table border=0 cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=0> <TBODY> <TR> <TD class=widget-title><SPAN class=widget-title>Basic Info</SPAN></TD> <TD class=widget-action> <DIV id=edit-actions jQuery1266325647362="3"> <UL class="linkbutton-menu read-mode"> <LI class="control-actions"> <A id="action-button" class="mouse-over-pointer linkbutton">Delete this stakeholder</A> <DIV id="confirmation" class="confirmation-dialog title=Confirmation"> Are you sure you want to delete this stakeholder? </DIV> </LI></UL></DIV></TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> The JQuery for this is ... $(document).ready(function() { $('#confirmation').dialog({ bgiframe: true, modal: true, autoOpen: false, closeOnEscape: false, draggable: true, position: 'center', resizable: false, width: 400, height: 150 }); }); And the dialog is 'open'ed by var confirmationBox = $('#confirmation',actionContent); if (confirmationBox.length > 0) { //Confirmation Needed $(confirmationBox).dialog('option', 'buttons', { 'No': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Yes': function() { $('ul.read-mode').hide(); $.post(requestUrl, {}, ActionCallback(context[0], renderFormUrl), 'json'); $(this).dialog('close'); } }); $(confirmationBox).dialog('open'); } The problem starts in the initialization itself. When the document loads, the <div #confirmation> is deleted from the markup! I had a similar issue earlier, but I cannot use that solution here. On this page I can have multiple PopUp divs. When I added the initialization in just before opening it; the form popped up. But after I close it, the div is removed; so I am not able to see the popup again.

  Read the article

• NSDocument Subclass not closed by NSWindowController?

  - by Nathan Douglas

  Okay, I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and to OOP in general. As background, I'm working on an extensible editor that stores the user's documents in a package. This of course required some "fun" to get around some issues with NSFileWrapper (i.e. a somewhat sneaky writing and loading process to avoid making NSFileWrappers for every single document within the bundle). The solution I arrived at was to essentially treat my NSDocument subclass as just a shell -- use it to make the folder for the bundle, and then pass off writing the actual content of the document to other methods. Unfortunately, at some point I seem to have completely screwed the pooch. I don't know how this happened, but closing the document window no longer releases the document. The document object doesn't seem to receive a "close" message -- or any related messages -- even though the window closes successfully. The end result is that if I start my app, create a new document, save it, then close it, and try to reopen it, the document window never appears. With some creative subclassing and NSLogging, I managed to figure out that the document object was still in memory, and still attached to the NSDocumentController instance, and so trying to open the document never got past the NSDocumentController's "hmm, currently have that one open" check. I did have an NSWindowController and NSDocumentController instance, but I've purged them from my project completely. I've overridden nearly every method for NSDocument trying to find out where the issue is. So far as I know, my Interface Builder bindings are all correct -- "Close" in the main menu is attached to "performClose:" of the First Responder, etc, and I've tried with fresh unsullied MainMenu and Document xibs as well. I thought that it might be something strange with my bundle writing code, so I basically deleted it all and started from scratch, but that didn't seem to work. I took out my init method overrides, and that didn't help either. I don't have the source of any simple document apps here, so I didn't try the next logical step (to substitute known-working code for mine in the readfromurl and writetourl methods). I've had this problem for about sixteen hours of uninterrupted troubleshooting now, and needless to say, I'm at the end of my rope. If I can't figure it out, I guess I'm going to try the project from scratch with a lot more code and intensity based around the bundle-document mess. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• A simple Python deployment problem - a whole world of pain

  - by Evgeny

  We have several Python 2.6 applications running on Linux. Some of them are Pylons web applications, others are simply long-running processes that we run from the command line using nohup. We're also using virtualenv, both in development and in production. What is the best way to deploy these applications to a production server? In development we simply get the source tree into any directory, set up a virtualenv and run - easy enough. We could do the same in production and perhaps that really is the most practical solution, but it just feels a bit wrong to run svn update in production. We've also tried fab, but it just never works first time. For every application something else goes wrong. It strikes me that the whole process is just too hard, given that what we're trying to achieve is fundamentally very simple. Here's what we want from a deployment process. We should be able to run one simple command to deploy an updated version of an application. (If the initial deployment involves a bit of extra complexity that's fine.) When we run this command it should copy certain files, either out of a Subversion repository or out of a local working copy, to a specified "environment" on the server, which probably means a different virtualenv. We have both staging and production version of the applications on the same server, so they need to somehow be kept separate. If it installs into site-packages, that's fine too, as long as it works. We have some configuration files on the server that should be preserved (ie. not overwritten or deleted by the deployment process). Some of these applications import modules from other applications, so they need to be able to reference each other as packages somehow. This is the part we've had the most trouble with! I don't care whether it works via relative imports, site-packages or whatever, as long as it works reliably in both development and production. Ideally the deployment process should automatically install external packages that our applications depend on (eg. psycopg2). That's really it! How hard can it be?

  Read the article

• Deleting items from a ListView using a custom BaseAdapter

  - by HXCaine

  I am using a customised BaseAdapter to display items on a ListView. The items are just strings held in an ArrayList. The list items have a delete button on them (big red X), and I'd like to remove the item from the ArrayList, and notify the ListView to update itself. However, every implementation I've tried gets mysterious position numbers given to it, so for example clicking item 2's delete button will delete item 5's. It seems to be almost entirely random. One thing to note is that elements may be repeated, but must be kept in the same order. For example, I can have "Irish" twice, as elements 3 and 7. My code is below: private static class ViewHolder { TextView lang; int position; } public View getView(final int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.language_link_row, null); holder = new ViewHolder(); holder.lang = (TextView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.language_link_text); holder.position = position; final ImageView deleteButton = (ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.language_link_cross_delete); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(this); convertView.setTag(holder); deleteButton.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } holder.lang.setText(mLanguages.get(position)); return convertView; } I later attempt to retrieve the deleted element's position by grabbing the tag, but it's always the wrong position in the list. There is no noticeable pattern to the position given here, it always seems random. // The delete button's listener public void onClick(View v) { ViewHolder deleteHolder = (ViewHolder) v.getTag(); int pos = deleteHolder.position; ... ... ... } I would be quite happy to just delete the item from the ArrayList and have the ListView update itself, but the position I'm getting is incorrect so I can't do that. Please note that I did, at first, have the deleteButton clickListener inside the getView method, and used 'position' to delete the value, but I had the same problem. Any suggestions appreciated, this is really irritating me.

  Read the article

• Python regex help

  - by Dormish

  I am trying to make a regex that finds all names, url and phone numbers in an html page. But I'm having trouble with the phone number part. I think the problem with the numbers part is that is searches until it finds the </strong> but in that process it skips people, instead of making a empty string if the person has no phone number ( simply put instead of a list like this: url1+name1+num1 | url2+name2+"" | url3+name3+num3 it returns a list like this: url1+name1+num1 | url2+name2+num3 , with url3+name3 deleted in the process) for url, name, pnumber in re.findall('Name"><div>(?:<a href="/si([^">]*)"> )?([^<]*)(?:.*?</strong>([^<]*))?',page): I am searchin for people in s single very long line. A person could have an url or phone number. An example of a person with an url and a phone number <tr> <td class="lablinksName"><div><a href="/si/ivan-bratko/default.html"> dr. Ivan Bratko akad. prof.</a></div></td> <td class="lablinksMail"><a href="javascript:void(cmPopup('sendMessage', '/si/ivan-bratko/mailer.html', true, 350, 350));"><img src="/Static/images/gui/mail.gif" height="8" width="11"></a></td> <td class="lablinksPhone"><div><strong>T:</strong> +386 1 4768 393 </div></td> </tr> And an example of a person with no url or phone number <tr> <td class="lablinksName"><div> dr. Branko Matjaž Juric prof.</div></td> <td class="lablinksMail"><a href="javascript:void(cmPopup('sendMessage', '/si/branko-matjaz-juric/mailer.html', true, 350, 350));"><img src="/Static/images/gui/mail.gif" height="8" width="11"></a></td> <td class="lablinksPhone"><div> </div></td> </tr> I hope i was clear enough and if any one can help me.

  Read the article

• Why does a subTable break a4j:commandLink's reRender?

  - by Tom

  Here is a minimal rich:dataTable example with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked, it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable (grouping the cars by garage for example) to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a manual page refresh. Why does subTable break support for reRender-ing here? Tanks Tom

  Read the article

• Problems using wxWidgets (wxMSW) within multiple DLL instances

  Preface I'm developing VST-plugins which are DLL-based software modules and loaded by VST-supporting host applications. To open a VST-plugin the host applications loads the VST-DLL and calls an appropriate function of the plugin while providing a native window handle, which the plugin can use to draw it's GUI. I managed to port my original VSTGUI code to the wxWidgets-Framework and now all my plugins run under wxMSW and wxMac but I still have problems under wxMSW to find a correct way to open and close the plugins and I am not sure if this is a wxMSW-only issue. Problem If I use any VST-host application I can open and close multiple instances of one of my VST-plugins without any problems. As soon as I open another of my VST-plugins besides my first VST-plugin and then close all instances of my first VST-plugin the application crashes after a short amount of time within the wxEventHandlerr::ProcessEvent function telling me that the wxTheApp object isn't valid any longer during execution of wxTheApp-FilterEvent (see below). So it seems to be that the wxTheApp objects was deleted after closing all instances of the first plugin and is no longer available for the second plugin. bool wxEvtHandler::ProcessEvent(wxEvent& event) { // allow the application to hook into event processing if ( wxTheApp ) { int rc = wxTheApp->FilterEvent(event); if ( rc != -1 ) { wxASSERT_MSG( rc == 1 || rc == 0, _T("unexpected wxApp::FilterEvent return value") ); return rc != 0; } //else: proceed normally } .... } Preconditions 1.) All my VST-plugins a dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries. With regard to the wxWidgets forum this seemed to be the best way to run multiple instances of the software side by side. 2.) The DllMain of each VST-Plugin is defined as follows: // WXW #include "wx/app.h" #include "wx/defs.h" #include "wx/gdicmn.h" #include "wx/image.h" #ifdef __WXMSW__ #include <windows.h> #include "wx/msw/winundef.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain ( HANDLE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved ) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: { wxInitialize(); ::wxInitAllImageHandlers(); break; } case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: wxUninitialize(); break; } return TRUE; } #endif // __WXMSW__ class Application : public wxApp {}; IMPLEMENT_APP_NO_MAIN(Application) Question How can I prevent this behavior respectively how can I properly handle the wxTheApp object if I have multiple instances of different VST-plugins (DLL-modules), which are dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries? Best reagards, Steffen

  Read the article

• ActiveMQ 5.2.0 + REST + HTTP POST = java.lang.OutOfMemoryError

  - by Bruce Loth

  First off, I am a newbie when it comes to JMS & ActiveMQ. I have been looking into a messaging solution to serve as middleware for a message producer that will insert XML messages into a queue via HTTP POST. The producer is an existing system written in C++ that cannot be modified (so Java and the C++ API are out). Using the "demo" examples and some trial and error, I have cobbled together a working example of what I want to do (on a windows box). The web.xml I configured in a test directory under "webapps" specifies that the HTTP POST messages received from the producer are to be handled by the MessageServlet. I added a line for the text app in "activemq.xml" ('ow' is the test app dir): I created a test script to "insert" messages into the queue which works well. The problem I am running into is that it as I continue to insert messages via REST/HTTP POST, the memory consumption and thread count used by ActiveMQ continues to rise (It happens when I have timely consumers as well as slow or non-existent consumers). When memory consumption gets around 250MB's and the thread count exceeds 5000 (as shown in windows task manager), ActiveMQ crashes and I see this in the log: Exception in thread "ActiveMQ Transport Initiator: vm://localhost#3564" java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: unable to create new native thread It is as if Jetty is spawning a new thread to handle each HTTP POST and the thread never dies. I did look at this page: http://activemq.apache.org/javalangoutofmemory.html and tried but that didn't fix the problem (although I didn't fully understand the implications of the change either). Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks! Bruce Loth PS - I included the "test message producer" python script below for what it is worth. I created batches of 100 messages and continued to run the script manually from the command line while watching the memory consumption and thread count of ActiveMQ in task manager. def foo(): import httplib, urllib body = "<?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?>\n \ <ROOT>\n \ [snip: xml deleted to save space] </ROOT>" headers = {"content-type": "text/xml", "content-length": str(len(body))} conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("127.0.0.1:8161") conn.request("POST", "/ow/message/RDRCP_Inbox?type=queue", body, headers) response = conn.getresponse() print response.status, response.reason data = response.read() conn.close() ## end method definition ## Begin test code count = 0; while(count < 100): # Test with batches of 100 msgs count += 1 foo()

  Read the article

• One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

  - by Pitelk

  Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142  | Next Page >