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• ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

  - by supertrue

  I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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• Strange code behaviour?

  - by goldenmean

  Hi, I have a C code in which i have a structure declaration which has an array of int[576] declared in it. For some reason, i had to remove this array from the structure, So i replaced this array with a pointer as int *ptr; declared some global array of same type, somewhere else in the code, and initialized this pointer by assigning the global array to this pointer. So i did not have to change the way i was accessing this array, from other parts of my code. But it works fine/gives desired output when i have the array declared in the structure, but it gives junk output when i declare it as a pointer in the structure and assign a global array to this pointer, as a part of the pointer initialization. All this code is being run on MS-VC 6.0/Windows setup/Intel-x86. I tried below things: 1)Suspected structure padding/alignment but could not get any leads? If at all structure alignment could be a culprit how can i proceed to narrow it down and confirm it? 2) I have made sure that in both cases the array is initialized to some default values, say 0 before its first use, and its not being used before initialization. 3)I tried using global array as well as malloc based memory for this newly declared array. Same result, junk output. Am i missing something? How can i zero down the problem. Any pointers would be helpful. Thanks, -AD.

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• MATLAB, time match filter

  - by Paul

  OK, I am still getting the hang of MATLAB. I have two files in different format. One Excel file. data1.xls, size= 86400 X 62. It looks like: Date/Time par1 par2 par3 par4 par5 par6 par6 par7 par8 par9 08/02/09 00:06:45 0 3 27 9.9 -133.2 0 0 0 1 0 Another file, data2.csv, size = 144 X 27. (If nothing is missing.) It looks like: date time P01 P02 P03 P04 P05 P06 P07 P08 P09 P10 P11 8/16/2009 0:00 51 45 46 54 53 52 524 5 399 89 78 Now I am using Data10minAvg = mean(reshape(Data,300,144,62)); to get the 10 min average of the first Excel file. Now I need to match up that file I am making above with the .csv file. The problem is many timestamps are missing in the .csv file. How do I make data2.csv into a file of size 144 X 27, replacing the missing datestamps by rows of zero? It will really help me than compare data1.xls file with newdata2.csv.

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• Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

  - by viatropos

  Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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• Mysql query, need suggestion or solution

  - by Xi Kam

  Can anyone help me, i have two tables and i need records from both the table //////////////////////////////++ Query 1 ++//////////////////////////////////// SELECT SUM(rec_issued) AS issed, regen_id, YEAR(issue_date) AS iYear, MONTH(issue_date) AS iMonth FROM `view_rec_issued` WHERE `regen_id` = 2 GROUP BY YEAR(issue_date) DESC, MONTH(issue_date) DESC ORDER BY issue_date ASC issed regen_id iYear iMonth 424 2 2011 3 4340 2 2011 4 4235 2 2011 5 10570 2 2012 2 4761 2 2012 3 5000 2 2012 4 3700 2 2012 5 3414 2 2012 6 3700 2 2012 7 2992 2 2012 8 995 2 2012 10 ![Result from Query 1][1] //////////////////////////////++ Query 2 ++//////////////////////////////////// SELECT SUM(total_redem) AS redemed, regen_id, YEAR(redemption_date) AS rYear, MONTH(redemption_date) AS rMonth FROM `recredem_month_wise` WHERE `regen_id` = 2 GROUP BY YEAR(redemption_date) DESC, MONTH(redemption_date) DESC order by redemption_date ASC redemed regen_id rYear rMonth 424 2 2011 3 260 2 2011 4 6523 2 2011 5 1070 2 2011 6 200 2 2011 10 500 2 2011 11 9750 2 2012 2 5000 2 2012 3 5500 2 2012 4 3803 2 2012 5 3700 2 2012 7 3000 2 2012 8 ![Result from Query 2][2] But i want it as - issed regen_id iYear iMonth redemed regen_id rYear rMonth 424 2 2011 3 424 2 2011 3 4340 2 2011 4 260 2 2011 4 4235 2 2011 5 6523 2 2011 5 NULL NULL NULL NULL 1070 2 2011 6 NULL NULL NULL NULL 200 2 2011 10 NULL NULL NULL NULL 500 2 2011 11 10570 2 2012 2 9750 2 2012 2 4761 2 2012 3 5000 2 2012 3 5000 2 2012 4 5500 2 2012 4 3700 2 2012 5 3803 2 2012 5 3414 2 2012 6 NULL NULL NULL NULL 3700 2 2012 7 3700 2 2012 7 2992 2 2012 8 3000 2 2012 8 995 2 2012 10 NULL NULL NULL NULL ![I want this output][3] In these table regen_id is unique and i need data as YEAR and MONTH, if in any table not have the records in perticular month and year it should retrieve zero or null. But in every record year and month should equal like this - iYear = rYear and iMonth = rMonth So we can merge both the fields - No need to show year and month twice iYear and rYear = year iMonth and rMonth = month Thank You Please look at this problem.

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• jQuery $.each()-problem

  - by Volmar

  Hi, im making a wordpress plugin and i have a function where i import images, this is done with a $.each()-loop that calls a .load()-function every iteration. The load-function page the load-function calls is downloading the image and returns a number. The number is imported into a span-element. The source and destination Arrays is being imported from LI-elemnts of a hidden ULs. this way the user sees a counter counting from zero up to the total number of images being imported. You can se my jQuery code below: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $('#mrc_imp_img').click(function(){ var dstA = []; var srcA = []; $("#mrc_dst li").each(function() { dstA.push($(this).text()) }); $("#mrc_src li").each(function() { srcA.push($(this).text()) }); $.each(srcA, function (i,v) { $('#mrc_imgimport span.fc').load('/wp-content/plugins/myplugin/imp.php?num='+i+'&dst='+dstA[i]+'&src='+srcA[i]); }); }); }); This works pretty good but sometimes it looks like the load function isn't updating the DOM as fast as it should because sometimes the numbers that the span is updated with is lower than the previous and almost everytime a lower number is replacing the last number in the end. How can i prevent this from happening and how can i make it hide '#mrc_imp_img' when the $.each-loop is ready?

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• Using memset on structures in C++

  - by garry

  Hey guys. I am working on fixing older code for my job. It is currently written in C++. They converted static allocation to dynamic but didn't edit the memsets/memcmp/memcpy. This is my first programming internship so bare with my newbe-like question. The following code is in C, but I want to have it in C++ ( I read that malloc isn't good practice in C++). I have two scenarios: First, we have f created. Then you use &f in order to fill with zero. The second is a pointer *pf. I'm not sure how to set pf to all 0's like the previous example in C++. Could you just do pf = new foo instead of malloc and then call memset(pf, 0, sizeof(foo))? struct foo { ... } f; memset( &f, 0, sizeof(f) ); //or struct foo { ... } *pf; pf = (struct foo*) malloc( sizeof(*pf) ); memset( pf, 0, sizeof(*pf) );

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• C++: Help with cin difference between Linux and Windows

  - by Krashman5k

  I have a Win32 console program that I wrote and it works fine. The program takes input from the user and performs some calculations and displays the output - standard stuff. For fun, I am trying to get the program to work on my Fedora box but I am running into an issue with clearing cin when the user inputs something that does not match my variable type. Here is the code in question: void CParameter::setPrincipal() { double principal = 0.0; cout << endl << "Please enter the loan principal: "; cin >> principal; while(principal <= 0) { if (cin.fail()) { cin.clear(); cin.ignore(INT_MAX, '\n'); } else { cout << endl << "Plese enter a number greater than zero. Please try again." << endl; cin >> principal; } } m_Parameter = principal; } This code works in Windows. For example, if the user tries to enter a char data type (versus double) then the program informs the user of the error, resets cin, and allows the user another opportunity to enter a valid value. When I move this code to Fedora, it compiles fine. When I run the program and enter an invalid data type, the while loop never breaks to allow the user to change the input. My questions are; how do I clear cin when invalid data is inputted in the Fedora environment? Also, how should I write this code so it will work in both environments (Windows & Linux)? Thanks in advance for your help!

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• Beginner Question ; About Prime Generation in "C" - What is wrong with my code ? -

  - by alorsoncode

  I'm a third year irregular CS student and ,i just realized that i have to start coding. I passed my coding classes with lower bound grades so that i haven't a good background in coding&programming. I'm trying to write a code that generates prime numbers between given upper and lower bounds. Not knowing C well, enforce me to write a rough code then go over it to solve. I can easily set up the logic for intended function but i probably create a wrong algorithm through several different ways. Here I share my last code, i intend to calculate that when a number gives remainder Zero , it should be it self and 1 , so that count==2; What is wrong with my implementation and with my solution generating style? I hope you will warm me up to programming world, i couldn't find enough motivation and courage to get deep into programming. Thanks in Advance :) Stdio and Math.h is Included int primegen(int down,int up) { int divisor,candidate,count=0,k; for(candidate=down;candidate<=up;candidate++) { for(divisor=1;divisor<=candidate;divisor++) { k=(candidate%divisor); } if (k==0) count++; if(count==2) { printf("%d\n", candidate); count=0; } else { continue; } } } int main() { primegen(3,15); return 0; }

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• How to customize file dialog in wpf

  - by ManjuAnoop

  In Windows7 I am using a customized Open File Dialog( WPF application). My Open File dialog is derived from Microsoft.Win32.CommonDialog. The dialog have old look, how to change this to new look (windows7 file dialog look(Explorer style)). Code portion: private const int OFN_ENABLESIZING = 0x00800000; private const int OFN_EXPLORER = 0x00080000; private const int OFN_ENABLEHOOK = 0x00000020; protected override bool RunDialog(IntPtr hwndOwner) { OPENFILENAME_I.WndProc proc = new OPENFILENAME_I.WndProc(this.HookProc); OPENFILENAME_I ofn = new OPENFILENAME_I(); this._charBuffer = CharBuffer.CreateBuffer(0x2000); if (this._fileNames != null) { this._charBuffer.PutString(this._fileNames[0]); } ofn.lStructSize = Marshal.SizeOf(typeof(OPENFILENAME_I)); ofn.hwndOwner = hwndOwner; ofn.hInstance = IntPtr.Zero; ofn.lpstrFilter = MakeFilterString(this._filter, this.DereferenceLinks); ofn.nFilterIndex = this._filterIndex; ofn.lpstrFile = this._charBuffer.AllocCoTaskMem(); ofn.nMaxFile = this._charBuffer.Length; ofn.lpstrInitialDir = this._initialDirectory; ofn.lpstrTitle = this._title; ofn.Flags = OFN_EXPLORER | OFN_ENABLESIZING | OFN_ENABLEHOOK; ofn.lpfnHook = proc; ofn.FlagsEx = 0x1000000 ; NativeMethods.GetOpenFileName(ofn); // } [SecurityCritical, SuppressUnmanagedCodeSecurity, DllImport("comdlg32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true)] internal static extern bool GetOpenFileName([In, Out] OPENFILENAME_I ofn);

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• Pointers to a typed variable in C#: Interfase, Generic, object or Class? (Boxing/Unboxing)

  - by PaulG

  First of all, I apologize if this has been asked a thousand times. I read my C# book, I googled it, but I can't seem to find the answer I am looking for, or I am missing the point big time. I am very confused with the whole boxing/unboxing issue. Say I have fields of different classes, all returning typed variables (e.g. 'double') and I would like to have a variable point to any of these fields. In plain old C I would do something like: double * newVar; newVar = &oldVar; newVar = &anotherVar; ... In C#, it seems I could do an interfase, but would require that all fields be properties and named the same. Breaks apart when one of the properties doesn't have the same name or is not a property. I could also create a generic class returning double, but seems a bit absurd to create a class to represent a 'double', when a 'double' class already exists. If I am not mistaken, it doesn't even need to be generic, could be a simple class returning double. I could create an object and box the typed variable to the newly created object, but then I would have to cast every time I use it. Of course, I always have the unsafe option... but afraid of getting to unknown memory space, divide by zero and bring an end to this world. None of these seem to be the same as the old simple 'double * variable'. Am I missing something here?

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• Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

  - by SCO

  I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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• Java Hibernate session delete of object

  - by user2535201

  I'm really struggling with hibernate sessions, I never have the result I expect when making a query on a modified session object. I think all my problems are related. The last one is the following : final Session iSession = AbstractDAO.getSessionFactory().openSession(); try { iSession.beginTransaction(); MyObject iObject = DAOMyObject.getInstance().get(iSession,ObjectId); iObject.setQuantity(0); //previously the quantity was different from zero DAOMyObject.getInstance().update(iSession,iObject); DAOMyObject.getInstance().deleteObjectWithZeroQuantities(iSession); iSession.getTransaction().commit(); } catch (final Exception aException) { iSession.getTransaction().rollback(); logger.error(aException.getMessage(), aException); throw aException; } finally { iSession.close(); } What I'm not getting is why the object is not deleted, since I'm modified it in the session, the query making the delete should find it. I had the same problem with creating an object with an incremental id in a session, then creating another one in the same session before the commit, with a select max(id)+1. But the session gets me the same number of id every time.

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• generate k distinct number less then n

  - by davit-datuashvili

  hi i have following question task is this generate k distinct positive numbers less then n without duplication my method is following first create array size of k where we should write these numbers int a[]=new int[k]; //now i am going to cretae another array where i check if (at given number position is 1 then generate number again else put this number in a array and continue cycle i put here a piece of code and explanations int a[]=new int[k]; int t[]=new int[n+1]; Random r=new Random(); for (int i==0;i<t.length;i++){ t[i]=0;//initialize it to zero } int m=0;//initialize it also for (int i=0;i<a.length;i++){ m=r.nextInt(n);//random element between 0 and n if (t[m]==1){ //i have problem with this i want in case of duplication element occurs repeats this steps afain until there will be different number else{ t[m]=1; x[i]=m; } } so i fill concret my problem if t[m]==1 it means that this element occurs already so i want to generate new number but problem is that number of generated numbers will not be k beacuse if i==0 and occurs duplicate element and we write continue then it will switch at i==1 i need like goto for repeat step or for (int i=0;i<x.length;i++){ loop: m=r.nextInt(n); if ( x[m]==1){ continue loop; } else{ x[m]=1; a[i]=m; continue;//continue next step at i=1 and so on } } i need this code in java please help

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• EF Query with conditional include that uses Joins

  - by makerofthings7

  This is a follow up to another user's question. I have 5 tables CompanyDetail CompanyContacts FK to CompanyDetail CompanyContactsSecurity FK to CompanyContact UserDetail UserGroupMembership FK to UserDetail How do I return all companies and include the contacts in the same query? I would like to include companies that contain zero contacts. Companies have a 1 to many association to Contacts, however not every user is permitted to see every Contact. My goal is to get a list of every Company regardless of the count of Contacts, but include contact data. Right now I have this working query: var userGroupsQueryable = _entities.UserGroupMembership .Where(ug => ug.UserID == UserID) .Select(a => a.GroupMembership); var contactsGroupsQueryable = _entities.CompanyContactsSecurity;//.Where(c => c.CompanyID == companyID); /// OLD Query that shows permitted contacts /// ... I want to "use this query inside "listOfCompany" /// //var permittedContacts= from c in userGroupsQueryable //join p in contactsGroupsQueryable on c equals p.GroupID //select p; However this is inefficient when I need to get all contacts for all companies, since I use a For..Each loop and query each company individually and update my viewmodel. Question: How do I shoehorn the permittedContacts variable above and insert that into this query: var listOfCompany = from company in _entities.CompanyDetail.Include("CompanyContacts").Include("CompanyContactsSecurity") where company.CompanyContacts.Any( // Insert Query here.... // b => b.CompanyContactsSecurity.Join(/*inner*/,/*OuterKey*/,/*innerKey*/,/*ResultSelector*/) ) select company; My attempt at doing this resulted in: var listOfCompany = from company in _entities.CompanyDetail.Include("CompanyContacts").Include("CompanyContactsSecurity") where company.CompanyContacts.Any( // This is concept only... doesn't work... from grps in userGroupsQueryable join p in company.CompanyContactsSecurity on grps equals p.GroupID select p ) select company;

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• How do you get and set a class property across multiple functions in Objective-C?

  - by editor

  Following up on this question about sharing objects between classes, I now need to figure out how to share the objects across various functions in a class. First, the setup: In my App Delegate I load menu information from JSON into a NSMutableDictionary and message that through to a view controller using a function called initWithData. I need to use this dictionary to populate a new Table View, which has methods like numberOfRowsInSection and cellForRowAtIndexPath. I'd like to use the dictionary count to return numberOfRowsInSection and info in the dictionary to populate each cell. Unfortunately, my code never gets beyond the init stage and the dictionary is empty so numberOfRowsInSection always returns zero. I thought I could create a class property, synthesize it and then set it. But it doesn't seem to want to retain the property's value. What am I doing wrong here? In the header .h: @interface FirstViewController:UIViewController <UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate, UITabBarControllerDelegate> { NSMutableDictionary *sectorDictionary; NSInteger sectorCount; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *sectorDictionary; - (id)initWithData:(NSMutableDictionary*)data; @end in the implementation .m: - (id) testFunction:(NSMutableDictionary*)dictionary { NSLog(@"Count #1: %d", [dictionary count]); return nil; } - (id)initWithData:(NSMutableDictionary *)data { if (!(self=[super init])) { return nil; } [self testFunction:data]; // this is where I'd like to set a retained property self.sectorDictionary = data; return nil; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSLog(@"Count #2: %d", [self.sectorDictionary count]); return [self.sectorDictionary count]; } Output from NSLog: 2010-05-04 23:00:06.255 JSONApp[15890:207] Count #1: 9 2010-05-04 23:00:06.259 JSONApp[15890:207] Count #2: 0

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• determining the starting speed for an accelerated animation (in flash/actionscript but it's a math question)

  - by vulkanino

  This question burns my brain. I have an object on a plane, but for the sake of simplicity let's work just on a single dimension, thus the object has a starting position xs. I know the ending position xe. The object has to move from starting to ending position with an accelerated (acceleration=a) movement. I know the velocity the object has to have at the ending position (=ve). In my special case the ending speed is zero, but of course I need a general formula. The only unknown is the starting velocity vs. The objects starts with vs in xs and ends with ve in xe, moving along a space x with an acceleration a in a time t. Since I'm working with flash, space is expressed in pixels, time is expressed in frames (but you can reason in terms of seconds, it's easy to convert knowing the frames-per-second). In the animation loop (think onEnterFrame) I compute the new velocity and the new position with (a=0.4 for example): vx *= a (same for vy) x += vx (same for y) I want the entire animation to last, say, 2 seconds, which at 30 fps is 60 frames. Now you know that in 60 frames my object has to move from xs to xe with a constant deceleration so that the ending speed is 0. How do I compute the starting speed vs? Maybe there's a simpler way to do this in Flash, but I am now interested in the math/physics behind this.

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• No result when Rally.data.WsapiDataStore lacks permissions

  - by user1195996

  I'm calling Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', params), and looking for results with the load event. I'm requesting a number of objects across programs that the user may or may not have read permission for. This works fine for queries where the user has permissions. But in the case where the user does not have permission and presumably gets zero results back, the load event does not seem to fire at all. I would expect it to fire with the unsuccessful flag or else to return with empty results. Since I don't know that the request has failed, my program waits and waits. How can I tell if a this request fails to return because of security? BTW, looking at the network stats, I believe all my requests get a "200 OK" status back. Here is the method I use to create the various data stores: _createDataStore: function(params) { this.openRequests++; var createParams = { model: params.type, autoLoad: true, // So I can later determine which query type it is, and which program requestType: params.requestType == undefined ? params.type : params.requestType, program: this.program, listeners: { load: this._onDataLoaded, scope: this }, filters: params.filters, pageSize: params.pageSize, fetch: params.fetch, context: { project: this.project, projectScopeUp: false, projectScopeDown: true }, pageSize: 1 // We only need the count }; console.log('_createDataStore', this.program, createParams.requestType); Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', createParams); }, And here is the _onDataLoaded method: _onDataLoaded: function(store, data, successB) { console.log('_onDataLoaded', this.program, successB); ... I only see this function called for those queries for which the account has permissions.

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• Set all nonzero matrix elements to 1 (while keeping the others 0)

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I have a mesh grid defined as [X, Y, Z] = meshgrid(-100:100, -100:100, 25); % z will have more values later and two shapes (ovals, in this case): x_offset_1 = 40; x_offset_2 = -x_offset_1; o1 = ((X-x_offset_1).^2./(2*Z).^2+Y.^2./Z.^2 <= 1); o2 = ((X-x_offset_2).^2./(2*Z).^2+Y.^2./Z.^2 <= 1); Now, I want to find all points that are nonzero in either oval. I tried union = o1+o2; but since I simply add them, the overlapping region will have a value of 2 instead of the desired 1. How can I set all nonzero entries in the matrix to 1, regardless of their previous value? (I tried normalized_union = union./union;, but then I end up with NaN in all 0 elements because I'm dividing by zero...) Follow-up question: I got a perfect answer to my original question, but now I have a follow-up question on the same problem. I'm going to define a filled disc, c = (X.^2+Y.^2<R^2) that will also overlap with the two ovals. How do I find all the points that are inside the circle, but not inside any of the ovals?

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• How can I put back a character that I've read when I detect it's the start of a new row?

  - by gcc

  char nm; int i=0; double thelow, theupp; double numbers[200]; for(i=0;i<4;++i) { { char nm; double thelow,theupp; /*after erased ,created again*/ scanf("%c %lf %lf", &nm, &thelow, &theupp); for (k = 0; ; ++k) ; { scanf("%lf",numbers[k]); if(numbers[k]=='\n') break; } /*calling function and sending data(nm,..) to it*/ } /*after } is seen (nm ..) is erased*/ ; } I want say compiler : hey my dear code read only i-th row,dont touch characters at placed in next line. because characters at placed in next line is token after i increased by 1 and nm ,thelow,theupp is being zero or erased after then again created. how can I do ? input; D -1.5 0.5 .012 .025 .05 .1 .1 .1 .025 .012 0 0 0 .012 .025 .1 .2 .1 .05 .039 .025 .025 B 1 3 .117 .058 .029 .015 .007 .007 .007 .015 .022 .029 .036 .044 .051 .058 .066 .073 .080 .088 .095 .103

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• isalpha(<mychar>) == true evaluates to false??

  - by Buttink

  string temp is equal to "ZERO:\t.WORD\t1" from my debugger. (the first line of my file) string temp = RemoveWhiteSpace(data); int i = 0; if ( temp.length() > 0 && isalpha(temp[0]) ) cout << "without true worked" << endl; if ( temp.length() > 0 && isalpha(temp[0]) == true ) cout << "with true worked" << endl; This is my code to check if first character of temp is a a-z,A-Z. The first if statement will evaluate to true and the 2nd to false. WHY?!?!?! I have tried this even without the "temp.length() 0 &&" and it still evaluates false. It just hates the "== true". The only thing I can think of is that isalpha() returns != 0 and true == 1. Then, you could get isalpha() == 2 != 1. But, I have no idea if C++ is that ... weird. BTW, I dont need to know that the "== true" is logically pointless. I know. output was without true worked Compiled with CodeBlock using GNU GCC on Ubuntu 9.10 (if this matters any)

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• Struct arrays in C

  - by ThomasTheTankEngine

  Hi I'm having trouble trying to initializing each element of the struct array. When I try and assign the value ZERO to both 'bSize' and 'msgs', it doesn't work as it errors out when i get to malloc. In the printf statement it prints a -1852803823 number. Excuse the messy code as i'm playing around trying to figure it out. struct message{ int *data; int bSize; int msgs; }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { ..... } void getSchedFile (FILE *file, int **schd) { struct message sMsg[nodeCount]; const int pakSize = 6; // Iniitialise message buffer for (int i=0; i<nodeCount; i++){ sMsg[i].bSize = 0; sMsg[i].msgs = 0; printf("bSize %d\n",sMsg[i].bSize); } /* Get the number of bytes */ fseek(file, 0L, SEEK_SET); int time; while((fscanf(file, "%d", &time)) != EOF){ int src; fscanf(file, "%d", &src); // get source node id // These are here for easier reading code int aPos = sMsg[src].bSize; int nMsg = sMsg[src].msgs; printf("size %d\n", sMsg[src].bSize); if (sMsg[src].bSize==0){ sMsg[src].data = malloc( pakSize * sizeof(int)); }else{ sMsg[src].data = realloc(sMsg[src].data, (aPos+pakSize)*sizeof(int)); }

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• I'm writing a diagnostic app for iOS that loads a predetermined set of webpages and records the time it takes for the page to render on the device.

  - by user1754840

  I'm writing a sort of diagnostic app for iOS that opens a predetermined list of websites and records the elapsed time it takes each to load. I have the app open a UIWebView within a ViewController. Here are the important bits of the ViewController source: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; DataClass *obj = [DataClass getInstance]; obj.startOfTest = [NSDate date]; //load the first webpage NSString *urlString = [websites objectAtIndex:obj.counter]; //assume firstWebsite is already instantiated and counter is initially set to zero obj.counter = obj.counter + 1; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [obj.websiteStartTimes addObject:[NSDate date]]; [webView loadRequest:request]; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoading:(UIWebView *)localWebView{ DataClass *obj = [DataClass getInstance]; //gets 'global' variables if(!webView.loading){ NSString *urlString = [websites objectAt:obj.counter]; obj.counter = obj.counter + 1; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [obj.websiteStartTimes addObject:[NSDate date]]; [webView loadRequest:request]; } The problem with this code is that it seems to load the next website before the one before it has finished. I would have thought that both the call to webViewDidFinishLoading AND the if statement within that would ensure that the website would be done, but that's not the case. I've noticed that sometimes, a single website will invoke the didFinishLoading method more than once, but it would only enter the if statement once. For example, if I have a list of ten websites, the webView would only really show the 3rd and the 6th website on the list and then indicate that it was "done" rendering them all. What else can I do to ensure that a website is done loading completely and rendered to the screen before the app moves on to the next one?

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• Twitter traffic might not be what it seems

  - by Piet

  Are you using bit.ly stats to measure interest in the links you post on twitter? I’ve been hearing for a while about people claiming to get the majority of their traffic originating from twitter these days. Now, I’ve been playing with the twitter ruby gem recently, doing various experiments which I’ll not go into detail here because they could be regarded as spamming… if I’d conduct them on a large scale, that is. It’s scary to see people actually engaging with @replies crafted with some regular expressions and eliza-like trickery on status updates found using the twitter api. I’m wondering how Twitter is going to contain the coming spam-flood. When posting links I used bit.ly as url shortener, since this one seems to be the de-facto standard on twitter. A nice thing about bit.ly is that it shows some basic stats about the redirects it performs for your shortened links. To my surprise, most links posted almost immediately resulted in several visitors. Now, seeing that I was posting the links together with some information concerning what the link is about, I concluded that the people who were actually clicking the links should be very targeted visitors. This felt a bit like free adwords, and I suddenly started to understand why everyone was raving about getting traffic from twitter. How wrong I was! (and I think several 1000 online marketers with me) On the destination site I used a traffic logging solution that works by including a little javascript snippet in your pages. It seemed that somehow all visitors disappeared after the bit.ly redirect and before getting to the site, because I was hardly seeing any visitors there. So I started investigating what was happening: by looking at the logfiles of the destination site, and by making my own ’shortened’ urls by doing redirects using a very short domain name I own. This way, I could check the apache access_log before the redirects. Most user agents turned out to be bots without a doubt. Here’s an excerpt of user-agents awk’ed from apache’s access_log for a time period of about one hour, right after posting some links: AideRSS 2.0 (postrank.com) Java/1.6.0_13 Java/1.6.0_14 libwww-perl/5.816 MLBot (www.metadatalabs.com/mlbot) Mozilla/4.0 (compatible;MSIE 5.01; Windows -NT 5.0 - real-url.org) Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; Twitturls; +http://twitturls.com) Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; Viralheat Bot/1.0; +http://www.viralheat.com/) Mozilla/5.0 (Danger hiptop 4.6; U; rv:1.7.12) Gecko/20050920 Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en-us; rv:1.9.0.2) Gecko/2008092313 Ubuntu/9.04 (jaunty) Firefox/3.5 OpenCalaisSemanticProxy PycURL/7.18.2 PycURL/7.19.3 Python-urllib/1.17 Twingly Recon twitmatic Twitturly / v0.6 Wget/1.10.2 (Red Hat modified) Wget/1.11.1 (Red Hat modified) Of the few user-agents that seem ‘real’ at first, half are originating from an ip-address used by Amazon EC2. And I doubt people are setting op proxies on there. Oh yeah, Googlebot (the real deal, from a legit google owned address) is sucking up posted links like fresh oysters. I guess google is trying to make sure in advance to never be beaten by twitter in the ‘realtime search’ department. Actually, I think it’d be almost stupid NOT to post any new pages/posts/websites on Twitter, it must be one of the fastest ways to get a Googlebot visit. Same experiment with a real, established twitter account Now, because I was posting the url’s either as ’status’ messages or directed @people, on a test-account with hardly any (human) followers, I checked again using the twitter accounts from a commercial site I’m involved with. These accounts all have between 500 and 1000 targeted (I think) followers. I checked the destination access_logs and also added ‘my’ redirect after the bit.ly redirect: same results, although seemingly a bit higher real visitor/bot ratio. Btw: one of these account was ‘punished’ with a 1 week lock recently because the same (1 one!) status update was sent that was sent right before using another account. They got an email explaining the lock because the account didn’t act according to their TOS. I can’t find anything in their TOS about it, can you? I don’t think Twitter is on the right track punishing a legit account, knowing the trickery I had been doing with it’s api went totally unpunished. I might be wrong though, I often am. On the other hand: this commercial site reported targeted traffic and actual signups from visitors coming from Twitter. The ones that are really real visitors are also very targeted. I’m just not sure if the amount of work involved could hold up against an adwords campaign. Reposting the same link over and over again helps On thing I noticed: It helps to keep on reposting the same links with regular intervals. I guess most people only look at their first page when checking out recent posts of the ones they’re following, or don’t look too far back when performing a search. Now, this probably isn’t according to the twitter TOS. Actually, it might be spamming but no-one is obligated to follow anyone else of course. This way, I was getting more real visitors and less bots. To my surprise (when my programmer’s hat is on) there were still repeated visits from the same bots coming from the same ip-addresses. Did they expect to find something else when visiting for a 2nd or 3rd time? (actually,this gave me an idea: you can’t change a link once it’s posted, but you can change where it redirects to) Most bots were smart enough not to follow the same link again though. Are you successful in getting real visitors from Twitter? Are you only relying on bit.ly to provide traffic stats?

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• Upgrading Windows 8 boot to VHD to Windows 8.1&ndash;Step by step guide

  - by Liam Westley

  Originally posted on: http://geekswithblogs.net/twickers/archive/2013/10/19/upgrading-windows-8-boot-to-vhd-to-windows-8.1ndashstep-by.aspxBoot to VHD – dual booting Windows 7 and Windows 8 became easy When Windows 8 arrived, quite a few people decided that they would still dual boot their machines, and instead of mucking about with resizing disk partitions to free up space for Windows 8 they decided to use the boot from VHD feature to create a huge hard disc image into which Windows 8 could be installed.  Scott Hanselman wrote this installation guide, while I myself used the installation guide from Ed Bott of ZD net fame. Boot to VHD is a great solution, it achieves a dual boot, can be backed up easily and had virtually no effect on the original Windows 7 partition. As a developer who has dual booted Windows operating systems for years, hacking boot.ini files, the boot to VHD was a much easier solution. Upgrade to Windows 8.1 – ah, you can’t do that on a virtual disk installation (boot to VHD) Last week the final version of Windows 8.1 arrived, and I went into the Windows Store to upgrade.  Luckily I’m on a fast download service, and use an SSD, because once the upgrade was downloaded and prepared Windows informed that This PC can’t run Windows 8.1, and provided the reason, You can’t install Windows on a virtual drive.  You can see an image of the message and discussion that sparked my search for a solution in this Microsoft Technet forum post. I was determined not to have to resize partitions yet again and fiddle with VHD to disk utilities and back again, and in the end I did succeed in upgrading to a Windows 8.1 boot to VHD partition.  It takes quite a bit of effort though … tldr; Simple steps of how you upgrade Boot into Windows 7 – make a copy of your Windows 8 VHD, to become Windows 8.1 Enable Hyper-V in your Windows 8 (the original boot to VHD partition) Create a new virtual machine, attaching the copy of your Windows 8 VHD Start the virtual machine, upgrade it via the Windows Store to Windows 8.1 Shutdown the virtual machine Boot into Windows 7 – use the bcedit tool to create a new Windows 8.1 boot to VHD option (pointing at the copy) Boot into the new Windows 8.1 option Reactivate Windows 8.1 (it will have become deactivated by running under Hyper-V) Remove the original Windows 8 VHD, and in Windows 7 use bcedit to remove it from the boot menu Things you’ll need A system that can run Hyper-V under Windows 8 (Intel i5, i7 class CPU) Enough space to have your original Windows 8 boot to VHD and a copy at the same time An ISO or DVD for Windows 8 to create a bootable Windows 8 partition Step by step guide Boot to your base o/s, the real one, Windows 7. Make a copy of the Windows 8 VHD file that you use to boot Windows 8 (via boot from VHD) – I copied it from a folder on C: called VHD-Win8 to VHD-Win8.1 on my N: drive. Reboot your system into Windows 8, and enable Hyper-V if not already present (this may require reboot) Use the Hyper-V manager , create a new Hyper-V machine, using half your system memory, and use the option to attach an existing VHD on the main IDE controller – this will be the new copy you made in Step 2. Start the virtual machine, use Connect to view it, and you’ll probably discover it cannot boot as there is no boot record If this is the case, go to Hyper-V manager, edit the Settings for the virtual machine to attach an ISO of a Windows 8 DVD to the second IDE controller. Start the virtual machine, use Connect to view it, and it should now attempt a fresh installation of Windows 8.  You should select Advanced Options and choose Repair - this will make VHD bootable When the setup reboots your virtual machine, turn off the virtual machine, and remove the ISO of the Windows 8 DVD from the virtual machine settings. Start virtual machine, use Connect to view it.  You will see the devices to be re-discovered (including your quad CPU becoming single CPU).  Eventually you should see the Windows Login screen. You may notice that your desktop background (Win+D) will have turned black as your Windows installation has become deactivate due to the hardware changes between your real PC and Hyper-V. Fortunately becoming deactivated, does not stop you using the Windows Store, where you can select the update to Windows 8.1. You can now watch the progress joy of the Windows 8 update; downloading, preparing to update, checking compatibility, gathering info, preparing to restart, and finally, confirm restart - remember that you are restarting your virtual machine sitting on the copy of the VHD, not the Windows 8 boot to VHD you are currently using to run Hyper-V (confused yet?) After the reboot you get the real upgrade messages; setting up x%, xx%, (quite slow) After a while, Getting ready Applying PC Settings x%, xx% (really slow) Updating your system (fast) Setting up a few more things x%, (quite slow) Getting ready, again Accept license terms Express settings Confirmed previous password Next, I had to set up a Microsoft account – which is possibly now required, and not optional Using the Microsoft account required a 2 factor authorization, via text message, a 7 digit code for me Finalising settings Blank screen, HI .. We're setting up things for you (similar to original Windows 8 install) 'You can get new apps from the Store', below which is ’Installing your apps’ - I had Windows Media Center which is counts as an app from the Store ‘Taking care of a few things’, below which is ‘Installing your apps’ ‘Taking care of a few things’, below ‘Don't turn off your PC’ ‘Getting your apps ready’, below ‘Don't turn off your PC’ ‘Almost ready’, below ‘Don't turn off your PC’ … finally, we get the Windows 8.1 start menu, and a quick Win+D to check the desktop confirmed all the application icons I expected, pinned items on the taskbar, and one app moaning about a missing drive At this point the upgrade is complete – you can shutdown the virtual machine Reboot from the original Windows 8 and return to Windows 7 to configure booting to the Windows 8.1 copy of the VHD In an administrator command prompt do following use the bcdedit tool (from an MSDN blog about configuring VHD to boot in Windows 7) Type bcedit to list the current boot options, so you can copy the GUID (complete with brackets/braces) for the original Windows 8 boot to VHD Create a new menu option, copy of the Windows 8 option; bcdedit /copy {originalguid} /d "Windows 8.1" Point the new Windows 8.1 option to the copy of the VHD; bcdedit /set {newguid} device vhd=[D:]\Image.vhd Point the new Windows 8.1 option to the copy of the VHD; bcdedit /set {newguid} osdevice vhd=[D:]\Image.vhd Set autodetection of the HAL (may already be set); bcdedit /set {newguid} detecthal on Reboot from Windows 7 and select the new option 'Windows 8.1' on the boot menu, and you’ll have some messages to look at, as your hardware is redetected (as you are back from 1 CPU to 4 CPUs) ‘Getting devices ready, blank then %xx, with occasional blank screen, for the graphics driver, (fast-ish) Getting Ready message (fast) You will have to suffer one final reboots, choose 'Windows 8.1' and you can now login to a lovely Windows 8.1 start screen running on non virtualized hardware via boot to VHD After checking everything is running fine, you can now choose to Activate Windows, which for me was a toll free phone call to the automated system where you type in lots of numbers to be given a whole bunch of new activation codes. Once you’re happy with your new Windows 8.1 boot to VHD, and no longer need the Windows 8 boot to VHD, feel free to delete the old one.  I do believe once you upgrade, you are no longer licensed to use it anyway. There, that was simple wasn’t it? Looking at the huge list of steps it took to perform this upgrade, you may wonder whether I think this is worth it.  Well, I think it is worth booting to VHD.  It makes backups a snap (go to Windows 7, copy the VHD, you backed up the o/s) and helps with disk management – want to move the o/s, you can move the VHD and repoint the boot menu to the new location. The downside is that Microsoft has complete neglected to support boot to VHD as an upgradable option.  Quite a poor decision in my opinion, and if you read twitter and the forums quite a few people agree with that view.  It’s a shame this got missed in the work on creating the upgrade packages for Windows 8.1.

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