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  • How can I get TFS2010 to run MSDEPLOY for me through MSBUILD?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    There is an excellent PDC talk available here which describes the new MSDEPLOY features in Visual Studio 2010 - as well as how to deploy an application within TFS. You can use MSBUILD within TFS2010 to call through to MSDEPLOY to deploy your package to IIS. This is done by means of parameters to MSBUILD. The talk explains some of the command line parameters such as : /p:DeployOnBuild /p:DeployTarget=MsDeployPublish /p:CreatePackageOnPublish=True /p:MSDeployPublishMethod=InProc /p:MSDeployServiceURL=localhost /p:DeployIISAppPath="Default Web Site" But where is the documentation for this - I can't find any? I've been spending all day trying to get this to work and can't quite get it right and keep ending up with various errors. If I run the package's cmd file it deploys perfectly. But I want to get the whole deployment running through msbuild using these arguments and not a separate call to msdeploy or running the package .cmd file. How can I do this? PS. Yes I do have the Web Deployment Agent Service running. I also have the management service running under IIS. I've tried using both. Args I'm using : /p:DeployOnBuild=True /p:DeployTarget=MsDeployPublish /p:Configuration=Release /p:CreatePackageOnPublish=True /p:DeployIisAppPath=staging.example.com /p:MsDeployServiceUrl=https://staging.example.com:8172/msdeploy.axd /p:AllowUntrustedCertificate=True giving me : C:\Program Files (x86)\MSBuild\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v10.0\Web\Microsoft.Web.Publishing.targets (2660): VsMsdeploy failed.(Remote agent (URL https://staging.example.com:8172/msdeploy.axd?site=staging.example.com) could not be contacted. Make sure the remote agent service is installed and started on the target computer.) Error detail: Remote agent (URL https://staging.example.com:8172/msdeploy.axd?site=staging.example.com) could not be contacted. Make sure the remote agent service is installed and started on the target computer. An unsupported response was received. The response header 'MSDeploy.Response' was '' but 'v1' was expected. The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized.

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  • pass username and password to get-credential or run sql query without using invoke-sqlcmd in Powersh

    - by Emo
    I am trying to connect to a remote sql database and simply run the "select @@servername" query in Powershell. I'm trying to do this without using integrated security. I've been struggling with "get-credential" and "invoke-sqlcmd", only to find (I think), that you can't pass the password from "get-credential" to another Powershell cmdlets. Here's the code I'm using: add-pssnapin sqlserverprovidersnapin100 add-pssnapin sqlservercmdletsnapin100 load assemblies [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.SqlEnum, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.SmoEnum, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") [Reflection.Assembly]::Load("Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo, Version=9.0.242.0, Culture=neutral,PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91") connect to SQL Server $serverName = "HLSQLSRV03" $server = New-Object -typeName Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server -argumentList $serverName login using SQL authentication $server.ConnectionContext.LoginSecure=$false; $credential = Get-Credential $userName = $credential.UserName -replace("\","") $pass = $credential.Password $server.ConnectionContext.set_Login($userName) $server.ConnectionContext.set_SecurePassword($credential.Password) $DB = "Master" invoke-sqlcmd -query "select @@Servername" -database $DB -serverinstance $servername -username $username -password $pass If if just hardcode the password in at the end of the "invoke-sqlcmd" line, it works. Is this because you can't use "get-credential" with "invoke-sqlcmd"? If so...what are my alternatives? Thanks so much for you help Emo

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  • Why can I run JUnit tests for my Spring project, but not a main method?

    - by FarmBoy
    I am using JDBC to connect to MySQL for a small application. In order to test without altering the real database, I'm using HSQL in memory for JUnit tests. I'm using Spring for DI and DAOs. Here is how I'm configuring my HSQL DataSource <bean id="mockDataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.SingleConnectionDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver"/> <property name="url" value="jdbc:hsqldb:mem:mockSeo"/> <property name="username" value="sa"/> </bean> This works fine for my JUnit tests which use the mock DB. But when I try to run a main method, I find the following error: Error creating bean with name 'mockDataSource' defined in class path resource [beans.xml]: Error setting property values; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.PropertyBatchUpdateException; nested PropertyAccessExceptions (1) are: PropertyAccessException 1: org.springframework.beans.MethodInvocationException: Property 'driverClassName' threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Could not load JDBC driver class [org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver] I'm running from Eclipse, and I'm using the Maven plugin. Is there a reason why this would work as a Test, but not as a main()? I know that the main method itself is not the problem, because it works if I remove all references to the HSQL DataSource from my Spring Configuration file.

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  • Does DefaultAppPool run with special elevated privilegs on IIS?

    - by Leeks and Leaks
    I'm running a piece of code within a web page that queries the IIS metabase using ADSI. The code is as simple as this: DirectoryEntry iisNode = new DirectoryEntry("/LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128886021498831845"); foreach (DirectoryEntry de in iisNode.Parent.Children) { System.Console.WriteLine(de.Name); } This works fine when I run the page/site under the DefaultAppPool on IIS7/W2K8. However when I create my own app pool and leave the properties the same as the default app pool, this code fails with the following error: Caught: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException Failed to parse virtual directory: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128889542757187500 System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80070005): Access is denied. What special privileges does the DefaultAppPool have? I don't see any documented. I need this to work in non default app pools, but without giving the entire worker process elevated privileges. I've also tried using the username and password parameters of the DirectoryEntry constructor, by using the Admin on the machine that IIS7 is running on, but that didn't change anything. I'll also note that this works fine on IIS6 and W2K3. Any help is appreciated.

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  • How to run an external SWF inside a Flex Application?

    - by lk
    I want to run an Action Script 3.0 Application into a Flex Application. To do this I've done the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication windowComplete="loadSwfApplication()" xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function loadSwfApplication() { var urlRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("path/to/the/application.swf"); swfLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, loadComplete); swfLoader.load(urlRequest); } private function loadComplete(completeEvent:Event) { var swfApplication:* = completeEvent.target.content; swfApplication.init(); // this is a Function that I made it in the Root class of swfApplication } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:SWFLoader id="sfwLoader"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> The problem is that in the calling of swfApplication.init(); the AIR Player throws me an exception: Security sandbox violation: caller file:///path/to/the/application.swf cannot access Stage owned by app:/SWFApplicationLoader.swf. This is because somewhere in application.swf I use the stage like this: if (root.stage != null) root.stage.addEventListener(Event.REMOVED, someFunction); root.stage.stageFocusRect = false; How can I load this swf application and USE the stage without any problems?

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  • I'v installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacOS X MacBook and the logs say it cannot be run, any ideas?

    - by codezealot
    I've installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacBook, and the installation results indicated success. However, every single time I attempt to run the application is shuts down. I monitored the process and noticed the following entries in the console that imply the application cannot be found? 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] /Applications/NetBeans/NetBeans 6.8.app/Contents/MacOS/netbeans: line 57: dirname: command not found 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] Cannot read cluster file: /../etc/netbeans.clusters 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM com.apple.launchd.peruser.501[77] ([0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168]) Exited with exit code: 1 I started researching how to set the default JDK for use by NetBeans, and found repeated use of the following command line entry; netbeans --jdkhome /System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home -- from http://wiki.netbeans.org/JDKVersionAndMacOS When I attempt the command line above, I receive "netbeans command not found". So do I ... 1.) Need to create a command called "netbeans" that points to my install location for NetBeans 6.8? If so how do I do that? 2.) How do I get to the netbeans.conf file for NetBeans 6.8, does one even exist for it? It gets even more interesting, the above happens with Eclipse as well. Yippie.

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  • How to configure SQLite to run with NHibernate where assembly resolves System.Data.SQLite?

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I am using the latest NHibernate 2.1.0Beta2. I'm trying to unit test with SQLite and have the configuration set up as: Dictionary<string, string> properties = new Dictionary<string, string>(); properties.Add("connection.driver_class", "NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver"); properties.Add("dialect", "NHibernate.Dialect.SQLiteDialect"); properties.Add("connection.provider", "NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider"); properties.Add("query.substitutions", "true=1;false=0"); properties.Add("connection.connection_string", "Data Source=test.db;Version=3;New=True;"); properties.Add("proxyfactory.factory_class", "NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu"); configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.SetProperties(properties); When I try to run it, I get the following error: NHibernate.HibernateException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use <qualifyAssembly/> element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. at NHibernate.Driver.ReflectionBasedDriver..ctor(String driverAssemblyName, String connectionTypeName, String commandTypeName) in c:\CSharp\NH\nhibernate\src\NHibernate\Driver\ReflectionBasedDriver.cs: line 26 at NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver..ctor() in c:\CSharp\NH\nhibernate\src\NHibernate\Driver\SQLite20Driver.cs: line 28 So it looks like I need to reference the assembly directly. How would I do this so I don't get this error anymore? I downloaded the latest assembly from here: http://sourceforge.net/projects/sqlite-dotnet2.

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  • iPod touch debugging: Error on install/run only if app exists on device already?

    - by Ben
    Hi all, I am using an iPod to test an app. The device is all set up with the right provisioning profiles, etc-- that's not really the issue. But every time I start the app from Xcode on the device, I get the "A signed resource has been added, modified, or deleted." error from the Organizer window. Wait, I know, you think it's a provisioning profile problem. But here's the kicker: if I just delete the app from the iPod (using the main screen) and try again, it works fine. I only get this error when the app is already installed. The other kicker is that this behavior doesn't happen on an iPhone that I have for occasional testing-- on that device, I can start/restart/restart indefinitely. But using the iPod, my compile-run-test cycle is annoyingly slow since I have to manually delete the app each time. Any ideas? I'm using Xcode 3.2.2 (prerelease) FWIW. The iPod has stock OS 3.1.2 on it. Thanks!

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  • When i run rake db:create ,Error rake aborted! uninitialized constant Cucumber

    - by Big Bang Theory
    Hi I am trying to experiment on an open source application application . when i run $ rake db:create Following is the stacktrace rake aborted! uninitialized constant Cucumber /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:443:in `load_missing_constant' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:80:in `const_missing' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:92:in `const_missing' /home/BigBangTheory/Desktop/spot-us/lib/tasks/cucumber.rake:13 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1882:in `in_namespace' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:910:in `namespace' /home/BigBangTheory/Desktop/spot-us/lib/tasks/cucumber.rake:12 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:145:in `load_without_new_constant_marking' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:145:in `load' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.2/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:145:in `load' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/tasks/rails.rb:8 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/tasks/rails.rb:8:in `each' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.2/lib/tasks/rails.rb:8 /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' /home/BigBangTheory/Desktop/spot-us/Rakefile:9 /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2383:in `load' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2383:in `raw_load_rakefile' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2017:in `load_rakefile' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2016:in `load_rakefile' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2000:in `run' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1998:in `run' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.7/bin/rake:31 /usr/bin/rake:19:in `load' /usr/bin/rake:19 Any help ?

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  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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  • Cannot run Python script on Windows with output redirected??

    - by Wai Yip Tung
    This is running on Windows 7 (64 bit), Python 2.6 with Win32 Extensions for Python. I have a simple script that just print "hello world". I can launch it with python hello.py. In this case I can redirect the output to a file. But if I run it by just typing hello.py on the command line and redirect the output, I get an exception. C:> python hello.py hello world C:> python hello.py >output C:> type output hello world C:> hello.py hello world C:> hello.py >output close failed in file object destructor: Error in sys.excepthook: Original exception was: I think I first get this error after upgrading to Windows 7. I remember it should work in XP. I have seen people talking about this bug python-Bugs-1012692 | Can't pipe input to a python program. But that was long time ago. And it does not mention any solution. Have anyone experienced this? Anyone can help?

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  • After travelling back in Firefox history, javascript won't run.

    - by Patonza
    When I use the back button on Firefox to reach a previously visited page, scripts on that page won't run again. Is there any fix/workaround to have the scripts execute again when viewing the page the second time? Please note that I have tested the same pages on Google Chrome and Internet Explorer and they work as intended. Here are the files and the steps I used to test the problem: (navigate to 0.html, click to get to 1.html, back button) 0.html <html><body> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function() { alert('window.onload alert'); }; alert('inline alert'); </script> <a href="1.html">Click Me!</a> </body></html> 1.html <html><body> <p>Go BACK!</p> </body></html>

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  • Why can't I run a Perl program from TextMate?

    - by JZ
    I'm following a bioinformatics text, and this represents one of my first Perl scripts. While in TextMate, this does not produce any result. Is it functioning? I added "hello world" at the bottom and I don't see that when I run the script in TextMate. What have I done wrong? #!/usr/local/bin/perl -w use lib "/Users/fogonthedowns/myperllib"; use LWP::Simple; use strict; #Set base URL for all eutils my $utils = "http://eutils.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/eutils"; my $db = "Pubmed"; my $query ="Cancer+Prostate"; my $retmax = 10; my $esearch = "$utils/esearch.fcgi?" . "db=$db&retmax=$retmax&term="; my $esearch_result = get($esearch.$query); print "ESEARCH RESULT: $esearch_result\n"; print "Using Query: \n$esearch$query\n"; print "hello world\n";

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  • Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • How can I run Ruby specs and/or tests in MacVim without locking up MacVim?

    - by Henry
    About 6 months ago I switched from TextMate to MacVim for all of my development work, which primarily consists of coding in Ruby, Ruby on Rails and JavaScript. With TextMate, whenever I needed to run a spec or a test, I could just command+R on the test or spec file and another window would open and the results would be displayed with the 'pretty' format applied. If the spec or test was a lengthy one, I could just continue working with the codebase since the test/spec was running in a separate process/window. After the test ran, I could click through the results directly to the corresponding line in the spec file. Tim Pope's excellent rails.vim plugin comes very close to emulating this behavior within the MacVim environment. Running :Rake when the current buffer is a test or spec runs the file then splits the buffer to display the results. You can navigate through the results and key through to the corresponding spot in the file. The problem with the rails.vim approach is that it locks up the MacVim window while the test runs. This can be an issue with big apps that might have a lot of setup/teardown built into the tests. Also, the visual red/green html results that TextMate displays (via --format pretty, I'm assuming) is a bit easier to scan than the split window. This guy came close about 18 mos ago: http://cassiomarques.wordpress.com/2009/01/09/running-rspec-files-from-vim-showing-the-results-in-firefox/ The script he has worked with a bit of hacking, but the tests still ran within MacVim and locked up the current window. Any ideas on how to fully replicate the TextMate behavior described above in MacVim? Thanks!

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  • Firefox extension: How to inject javascript into page and run it?

    - by el griz
    I'm writing a Firefox extension to allow users to annotate any page with text and/or drawings and then save an image of the page including the annotations. Use cases would be clients reviewing web pages, adding feedback to the page, saving the image of this and emailing it back to the web developer or testers taking annotated screenshots of GUI bugs etc. I wrote the annotation/drawing functionality in javascript before developing the extension. This script adds a <canvas> element to the page to draw upon as well as a toolbar (in a <div>) that contains buttons (each <canvas> elements) for the different draw tools e.g. line, box, ellipse, text, etc. This works fine when manually included in a page. I now need a way for the extension to: Inject this script into any page including pages I don't control. This needs to occur when the user invokes the extension, which can be after the page has loaded. Once injected the init() function in this script that adds the canvas and toolbar elements etc. needs to be run somehow, but I can't determine how to call this from the extension. Note that once injected I don't need this script to interact with the extension (as the extension just takes a screenshot of the entire document (and removes the added page elements) when the user presses the save button in the extension chrome).

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  • VS 2008 debugger: How does it decide what Cassini port to run a web service under?

    - by BDW
    I have a VS 2008 solution that includes a web site and a web service. I'm developing both at once, and it's helpful to be able to debug from one into the other. It occasionally can't find the web service. If I look in the web.config, I find the port number it's looking at is not the port number it auto-runs the service in when I use the debugger. For example, the web.config reference says something like: add key="mynamespace.mywebservice" value="http://localhost:55765/mywebservice.asmx" When I hover over the Cassini port icon, I find that the web service is running in port 55382 (or some other non-55765 port). No wonder it can't find it. Is there a way to enforce that the port number it runs under is the one specified in the web config? And if it's not using the web config port number to figure out where to run it... where does it decide? I know in VS2005, there was a way to specify the port number to use when debugging, but I can't find that anywhere in the web service project in VS 2008. This is really going to cause problems as more developers come on to this project - how can I fix it? Deleting and re-adding the web services to the project fixes it, but I'd literally have to do it a couple times a day, not an ideal solution.

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • Why is alert not run even though $.getJSON runs fine? (Callback not executed, even though the reques

    - by Emre Sevinç
    I have a snippet of code such as: $.getJSON("http://mysite.org/polls/saveLanguageTest?url=" + escape(window.location.href) + "&callback=?", function (data) { var serverResponse = data.result; console.log(serverResponse); alert(serverResponse); }); It works fine in the sense that it makes a cross-domain request to my server and the server saves the data as I expect. Unfortunately, even though the server saves data and sends back a response I just can't get any alert or the console.log run. Why may be that? The server side code is (if that is relevant): def saveLanguageTest(request): callback = request.GET.get('callback', '') person = Person(firstName = 'Anonymous', ipAddress = request.META['REMOTE_ADDR']) person.save() webPage = WebPage(url = request.GET.get('url')) webPage.save() langTest = LanguageTest(type = 'prepositionTest') langTest.person = person langTest.webPage = webPage langTest.save() req ['result'] = 'Your test is saved.' response = json.dumps(req) response = callback + '(' + response + ');' return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") What am I missing? (I tried the same code both within my web pages and inside the Firebug and I always have the problem stated above.)

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  • Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?

    - by Mike
    Part of my code goes like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); Do Some Stuff; last if some condition is met; } Problem is: I want the music to be always on when I'm in the Do Some Stuff stage in the while loop. But the length of the music is so short that it will come to a full stop before I go to the next stage, so I want the music to repeat itself, but the Win32::Mediaplayer module does not seem to have a repeat mode, so I'm thinking of doing an infinite loop for the music playing part. Like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); } while(2){ Do some stuff; last if some condition is met } But based on my current Perl knowledge if I'm in the while(1) part, I can never go to the while(2) part. Even if it comes to a nested loop, I have to do something to break out of the inside loop before going to the other part of the outside loop. The answer to my question "Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?" may be a NO, but I assume there is some way of handling such situation. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks as always for any comments/suggestions :) UPDATE I really appreciate the help from everyone. Thanks :) So the answer to my question is a YES, not a NO. I'm happy that I've learned how to use fork() and threads to solve a real problem :)

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  • Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

    - by John Feminella
    Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

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  • Do vs. Run vs. Execute vs. Perform verbs

    - by coffeeaddict
    Before anyone starts to go nuts and red flag this post saying this is "Subjective" which drives me absolutely nuts because everyone has their own intent why they are posting something others feel are subjective. Subjective is subjective to each person, how about that! So with that let me tell you a couple things so that this post does not get flagged by flag happy moderators: 1) There are community guidlines on specific keywords recommended by certain organizations or people (e.g. Microsoft, Lance Hunt, etc.) 2) I want to know what others are using the most and why. Why they feel this verb reads better than others 3) Books even talk about this verb issue (Uncle Bob, etc.), so it's not subjective Now to my actual question: a) What list of verbs are you using for method names? What's your personal or team standard? b) I debate whether to use Do vs. Run vs. Execute vs. Perform and am wondering if any of these are no longer recommended or some that people just don't really use and I should just scratch them. Basically any one of those verbs mean the same thing...to invoke some process (method call). This is outside of CRUDs. For example: ExecutePayPalWorkflow(); that could be also any one of these names instead: DoPayPalWorkflow(); RunPayPalWorkflow(); PerformPayPalWorkflow(); or does it not really matter...because any of those verbs pretty much are understandable as to "what" shows your intent by the other words that follow it "PayPalWorkflow" This discussion can go for any language. I just put the two main tags C# and Java here which is good enough for me to get some solid answers or experiences.

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  • How do I change the application background color at run-time in a Flex 3.5 application?

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have a Flex 3.5 application that will serve multiple purposes, and as part of the visual changes that I'd like to make to indicate which mode the application is in, I want to change its background color. Currently, the application tag looks like this: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns:com="ventures.view.component.*" xmlns:views="ventures.view.*" layout="absolute" preinitialize="onPreInitialize()" creationComplete="onCreationComplete()" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete()" click="onClick(event)" enabled="{(!chainController.generalLocked)}" backgroundGradientColors="[0xFFFFFF, 0xFFFFFF]" > I've tried using a binding, for both the backgroundColor and backgroundGradientColors attributes: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundColor="{app_background_color}" > —and— <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundGradientColors="{app_background_color}" > but for the former binding is not allowed, and for the latter there is a warning that: Data binding will not be able to detect assignments to "app_background_color". I also ran across this page which seems to indicate that I could do it with the setStyle() method, but the documentation seems to indicate that this method is only available for components, not the main canvas. I suppose I could wrap everything in a <mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> specificially for this purpose, but that seems wasteful—like Div-itis in HTML or something. What's the best way to change the main application background color at run-time?

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  • How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

    - by Curtis White
    I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

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