single sign on - Page 135

how to implement login and service features as in skype or msn chat in a wpf application

- by black sensei

Hello Good people! I'm building an WPF application that connect to web services for its operations.Things that i needed to be working are so far fine.Now i'll like to improve use experience by adding features like username editable combobox, sign me in when skype start and start when computer start. I have a fair idea about each feature but very small knowledge about their implementation. Question 1 username combobox : i use a combobox with isEditable set to true but i think it doesnt have the previous username, would that mean that i have to store every successful login username in a sqlite for example? Question 2 sign me in when skype start : i think about using sqlite after all to store the credentials and store the value (as in true or false) if autologin has to be performed. Question 3 start when computer start : i know it's about having is as service.but the process of using it as a service and removing its service when checkbox is checked or unckecked is a bit confusing to me. Question 4 Please wait(signing in) of skype if i want to do things like please wait at login(login is over webservice) in a WPF application should i use a animated gif in a grid that i can show when hiding the login combobox and passwordbox grid or i should use an animated object(for which i have no knowledge about for now) ? This post in mainly for you experts to either point me to the right resource and tell me what is done as best practice. things like dos and dons.Thanks for reading this and please let me have a clair idea about how to start implementing those features. thanks again

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How do I reference an unsigned assembly from a VSTO Word Doc project?

- by Gishu

I created a new project in VS2008. Project type Visual C# > Office > 2007 > Word 2007 Document Added some code.. got Word to do a few jumps through some custom hoops.. all fine. Now I need to reference another assembly (CopyLocal as false) which is not signed. So I add the project reference. Now the project will not build complaining error MSB3188: Assembly 'X.dll' must be strong signed in order to be marked as a prerequisite. The error code page is concise (now accustomed to this) Been googling and reading posts ever since.. No Luck. How do I get around this ? Or is the hidden commandment that all references (for VSTO?) must be strong named / signed. I cannot sign 'X.dll' and be done with it because it is a binary that I don't control also it depends on another bunch of unsigned dlls.. can't set off a chain sign reaction. Update: Solved the build issue by turning CopyLocal=True. But this meant dumping the referenced X.DLL and all its dependencies into the bin\debug folder... Ughh! Tried creating a subfolder called bin\debug\refExecs and referencing X.dll CopyLocal=false from there. The error message was back.

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GAE - Getting TypeError requiring class instance be passed to class's own method...

- by Spencer Leland

I'm really new to programming... I set up a class to give supporting information for Google's User API user object. I store this info in the datastore using db.model. When I call the okstatus method of my user_info class using this code: elif user_info.okstatus(user): self.response.out.write("user allowed") I get this error: unbound method okstatus() must be called with user_info instance as first argument (got User instance instead) Here is my user_info class. class user_info: def auth_ctrlr(self, user): if self.status(user) == status_allowed: return ("<a href=\"%s\">Sign Out</a>)" % (users.create_login_url("/"))) else: return ("<a href=\"%s\">Sign In or Get an Account</a>)" % (users.create_logout_url("/"))) def status(self, user): match = sub_user.gql(qu_by_user_id, user.user_id) return match.string_status def group(self, user): match = sub_user.gql(qu_by_user_id, user.user_id) grp = group_names.gql(qu_by_user_id, match.groupID) return grp def okstatus(self, user): match = self.status(user) if match == status_allowed: return True My understanding is that the argument "self" inside the method's calling arguments describes it as a child to the class. I've tried everything I can think of and can't find any related info online. Can someone please tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

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Facebook Connect - Using both FBML and PHP Client

- by Ryan

I am doing my second Facebook connect site. On my first site, I used the facebook coonect FBML to sign a user in, then I could access other information via the PHP Client. With this site, using the same exact code, it doesn't seem to be working. I'd like someone to be able to sign in using the Facebook button: <fb:login-button length="long" size="medium" onlogin="facebook_onlogin();"></fb:login-button> After they have logged in, the facebook_onlogin() function makes some AJAX requests to a PHP page which attempts to use the Facebook PHP Client. Here's the code from that page: $facebook = new Facebook('xxxxx API KEY xxxxx', 'xxxxx SECRET KEY xxxxx'); //$facebook->require_login(); ** I DONT WANT THIS LINE!! $userID = $facebook->api_client->users_getLoggedInUser(); if($userID) { $user_details = $facebook->api_client->users_getInfo($userID, 'last_name, first_name'); $firstName = $user_details[0]['first_name']; $lastName = $user_details[0]['last_name']; $this->view->userID = $userID; $this->view->firstName = $firstName; $this->view->lastName = $lastName; } The problem is that the PHP Client thinks I don't have a session key, so the $userID never get set. If I override the $userID with my facebook ID (which I am logged in with) I get this error: exception 'FacebookRestClientException' with message 'A session key is required for calling this method' in C:\wamp\www\mab\application\Facebook\facebookapi_php5_restlib.php:3003 If I uncomment the require_login(), it will get a session ID, but it redirects pages around a lot and breaks my AJAX calls. I am using the same code I successfully did this with on another site. Anyone have any ideas why the PHP client don't know about the session ID after a user has logged in with the connect button? Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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My Website was hacked using Statcounter! Does Statcounter keep a record of cookies?

- by Cyril Gupta

I had a rather interesting case of hacking on my ASP.Net MVC website. For this website I had implemented a rather uncomplicated authentication system for my admin area -- an encrypted cookie which had an identifying signature for the member. Whenever the admin visits the website the cookie would be decrypted and signature verified. If matching he wouldn't have to sign in. Couple of days ago a visitor on my site told me that he was able to sign into my website simply by clicking no a referral link on his Statcounter console which pointed to my admin area (I had visited his site from a link inside my admin view). He just clicked on a link in statcounter and he was signed in as the admin! The only way this could have happened was if statcounter somehow recorded my cookies and used those when he clicked on the link pointing to my admin! Is that logical or fathomable? I don't understand what's going on. Do you have any suggestions as to how I can protect my website against things like this?

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Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

- by Ash Machine

My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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efficiently determining if a polynomial has a root in the interval [0,T]

- by user168715

I have polynomials of nontrivial degree (4+) and need to robustly and efficiently determine whether or not they have a root in the interval [0,T]. The precise location or number of roots don't concern me, I just need to know if there is at least one. Right now I'm using interval arithmetic as a quick check to see if I can prove that no roots can exist. If I can't, I'm using Jenkins-Traub to solve for all of the polynomial roots. This is obviously inefficient since it's checking for all real roots and finding their exact positions, information I don't end up needing. Is there a standard algorithm I should be using? If not, are there any other efficient checks I could do before doing a full Jenkins-Traub solve for all roots? For example, one optimization I could do is to check if my polynomial f(t) has the same sign at 0 and T. If not, there is obviously a root in the interval. If so, I can solve for the roots of f'(t) and evaluate f at all roots of f' in the interval [0,T]. f(t) has no root in that interval if and only if all of these evaluations have the same sign as f(0) and f(T). This reduces the degree of the polynomial I have to root-find by one. Not a huge optimization, but perhaps better than nothing.

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Efficient splitting of elements in a field

- by Gary

I have a field in a text file exported from a database. The field contains addresses but sometimes they are quite long and the database allows them to contain multiple lines. When exported, the newline character gets replaced with a dollar sign like this: first part of very long address$second part of very long address$third part of very long address Not every address has multiple lines and no address contains more than three lines. The length of each line is variable. I'm massaging the data for import into MS Access which is used for a mailmerge. I want to split the field on the $ sign if it's there but if the field only contains 1 line, I want to set my two extra output fields to a zero length string so that I don't wind up with blank lines in the address when it gets printed. I have an awk file that's working correctly on all the other data in the textfile but I need to get this last bit working. I tried the below code. Aside from the fact that I get a syntax error at the else, I'm not sure this is a good way to do what I want. This is being done with gawk on Windows. BEGIN { FS = "|" } $1 != "HEADER" { if ($6 ~ /\$/) split($6, arr, "$") address = arr[1] addresstwo = arr[2] addressthree = arr[3] addressLength = length(address) addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) else { address = $6 addressLength = length($6) addresstwo = "" addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressthree = "" addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) } printf("%*s\t%*s\t\%*s\n", addressLength, address, addressTwoLength, addresstwo, addressThreeLength, addressthree) }

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If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

- by Brad Cupit

If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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ZF2: How to get Zend\Navigation inside custom router?

- by Katan87

I have custom router and I have to get access to Zend\Navigation inside this custom router. I was googling, asking and searching and no results :/ All I need is to find nodes with 'link' param using Zend\Navigation in my AliasSegment::match function. Here is my module.config.php: 'navigation' => array( // The DefaultNavigationFactory we configured in (1) uses 'default' as the sitemap key 'default' => array( // And finally, here is where we define our page hierarchy 'account' => array( 'label' => 'Account', 'route' => 'node', 'pages' => array( 'home' => array( 'label' => 'Dashboard', 'route' => 'node', 'params' => array( 'id' => '1', 'link' => '/about/gallery' ), ), 'login' => array( 'label' => 'Sign In', 'route' => 'node', 'params' => array( 'id' => '1', 'link' => '/signin' ), ), 'logout' => array( 'label' => 'Sign Out', 'route' => 'node', ), ), ), ), ), [...] 'service_manager' => array( 'factories' => array( 'translator' => 'Zend\I18n\Translator\TranslatorServiceFactory', 'Navigation' => 'Zend\Navigation\Service\DefaultNavigationFactory', ), ), [...] And here is my AliasSegment class: namespace Application\Controller; use Traversable; use Zend\Mvc\Router\Exception; use Zend\Stdlib\ArrayUtils; use Zend\Stdlib\RequestInterface as Request; use Zend\Mvc\Router\Http; class AliasSegment extends \Zend\Mvc\Router\Http\Segment { public function match(Request $request, $pathOffset = null) { //Here i need to have access to Zend\Navigation return parent::match($request, $pathOffset); } }

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Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

- by nafe

I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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Python to C# with openSSL requirement

- by fonix232

Hey there again! Today I ran into a problem when I was making a new theme creator for chrome. As you may know, Chrome uses a "new" file format, called CRX, to manage it's plugins and themes. It is a basic zip file, but a bit modified: "Cr24" + derkey + signature + zipFile And here comes the problem. There are only two CRX creators, written in Ruby or Python. I don't know neither language too much (had some basic experience in Python though, but mostly with PyS60), so I would like to ask you to help me convert this python app to a C# class. Also, here is the source of crxmake.py: #!/usr/bin/python # Cribbed from http://github.com/Constellation/crxmake/blob/master/lib/crxmake.rb # and http://src.chromium.org/viewvc/chrome/trunk/src/chrome/tools/extensions/chromium_extension.py?revision=14872&content-type=text/plain&pathrev=14872 # from: http://grack.com/blog/2009/11/09/packing-chrome-extensions-in-python/ import sys from array import * from subprocess import * import os import tempfile def main(argv): arg0,dir,key,output = argv # zip up the directory input = dir + ".zip" if not os.path.exists(input): os.system("cd %(dir)s; zip -r ../%(input)s . -x '.svn/*'" % locals()) else: print "'%s' already exists using it" % input # Sign the zip file with the private key in PEM format signature = Popen(["openssl", "sha1", "-sign", key, input], stdout=PIPE).stdout.read(); # Convert the PEM key to DER (and extract the public form) for inclusion in the CRX header derkey = Popen(["openssl", "rsa", "-pubout", "-inform", "PEM", "-outform", "DER", "-in", key], stdout=PIPE).stdout.read(); out=open(output, "wb"); out.write("Cr24") # Extension file magic number header = array("l"); header.append(2); # Version 2 header.append(len(derkey)); header.append(len(signature)); header.tofile(out); out.write(derkey) out.write(signature) out.write(open(input).read()) os.unlink(input) print "Done." if __name__ == '__main__': main(sys.argv) Please could you help me?

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How to redirect page

- by sharun

Hi i created one java application in which i tried to open my company's standard login page and i planned to redirect the link to open my own design page. Standard login page is displayed, instead of going to my own design page as usual its going to mail page. After sign out the mail page i'm gettting my own design page. But my need is, when i sign in the standard login page it should diplay my own design page. Is it possible? Please Help me. And this is code that i followed import java.io.IOException; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import com.google.appengine.api.users.UserService; import com.google.appengine.api.users.UserServiceFactory; import com.google.appengine.api.users.User; public class New extends HttpServlet { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public void doPost(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { resp.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); resp.setContentType("text/html"); UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if (user != null) { if(user.getEmail().equals("[email protected]")) { resp.getWriter().println("done"); resp.sendRedirect("/login.jsp"); } else { resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()+"<br>"); resp.getWriter().println("Thanks for your interest. But this application is still not available to everybody."); resp.getWriter().println("<a href="+UserServiceFactory.getUserService().createLogoutURL(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI()))+">Log out</a>"); } } else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL("http://mail.yyy.edu.in")); } } } Thanks in advance Regards Sharun.

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Signed and RequireAdministrator manifested executable being run from temp folder?

- by Ian Boyd

i manifested my executable as require administrator: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0">  <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> And then i digitally signed it. But then when i run the executable i noticed something odd: the name of the executable on the Consent dialog changed from PingWarning.exe to pinxxxx.tmp; as though a temp copy was made, and that is being run: i dug out Process Montior, to see if anyone is creating a *.tmp file when i launch my executable, and there is: The Application Information service inside this particular svchost container is intentionally copying my executable to the Windows temp folder, and asking for user "Consent" from there; giving an invalid filename. Once consent has been granted, the executable is run from its original location: link text The file is not copied to the temp folder if i do not digitally sign it: So my problem is the invalid filename appearing on the consent dialog when i digitally sign my executable which has been manifested as requireAdministrator. What do?

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Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

- by Dan Fabulich

Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

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Calculate the year for ending month/day?

- by Dave Jarvis

Given: Start Year Start Month & Start Day End Month & End Day What SQL statement results in TRUE if a date lands between the Start and End days? 1st example: Start Date = 11-22 End Date = 01-17 Start Year = 2009 Specific Date = 2010-01-14 TRUE 2nd example: Start Date = 11-22 End Date = 11-16 Start Year = 2009 Specific Date = 2010-11-20 FALSE 3rd example: Start Date = 02-25 End Date = 03-19 Start Year = 2004 Specific Date = 2004-02-29 TRUE I was thinking of using the MySQL functions datediff and sign plus a CASE condition to determine whether the year wraps, but it seems rather expensive. Am looking for a simple, efficient calculation. Update 1 The problem is the end date cannot simply use the year. The year must be increased if the end month/day combination happens before the start date. The start date is easy: Start Date = date( concat_ws( '-', year, Start Month, Start Day ) ) The end date is not so simple. Update 2 Here is what I was thinking about for obtaining the end year: end_year = case sign( diff( date( concat_ws( year, start_month, start_day ) ), date( concat_ws( year, end_month, end_day ) ) ) ) when -1 then Start_Year + 1 else Start_Year end case Then wrap that expression (once syntactically correct) inside of another date, followed by BETWEEN statement. Update 3 To clear up some confusion: there is no end year. The end year must be calculated. Thank you!

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F# numeric associations

- by b1g3ar5

I have a numeric association for a custom type as follows: let DiffNumerics = { new INumeric<Diff> with member op.Zero = C 0.0 member op.One = C 1.0 member op.Add(a,b) = a + b member op.Subtract(a,b) = a - b member op.Multiply(a,b) = a * b member ops.Negate(a) = Diff.negate a member ops.Abs(a) = Diff.abs a member ops.Equals(a, b) = ((=) a b) member ops.Compare(a, b) = Diff.compare a b member ops.Sign(a) = int (Diff.sign a).Val member ops.ToString(x,fmt,fmtprovider) = failwith "not implemented" member ops.Parse(s,numstyle,fmtprovider) = failwith "not implemented" } GlobalAssociations.RegisterNumericAssociation(DiffNumerics) It works fine in f# interactive, but crashes when I run, because .ElementOps is not filled correctly for a matrix of these types. Any ideas why this might be? EDIT: In fsi, the code let A = dmatrix [[Diff.C 1.;Diff.C 2.;Diff.C 3.];[Diff.C 4.;Diff.C 5.;Diff.C 6.]] let B = matrix [[1.;2.;3.];[4.;5.;6.]] gives: > A.ElementOps;; val it : INumeric<Diff> = FSI_0003.NewAD+DiffNumerics@258 > B.ElementOps;; val it : INumeric<float> = Microsoft.FSharp.Math.Instances+FloatNumerics@115 > in the debugger A.ElementOps shows: '(A).ElementOps' threw an exception of type 'System.NotSupportedException' and, for the B matrix: Microsoft.FSharp.Math.Instances+FloatNumerics@115 So somehow the DiffNumerics isn't making it to the compiled program.

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Azure Mobile Services with persistent authentication

- by akshay2000

I am trying to implement authentication with Windows Azure Mobile Services in my Windows Phone app. I have followed the official tutorials and the authentication works fine. The issue is that, whenever the app is closed and started again, the user has to enter username and password. Since the services only use authentication tokens, the 'Remember me' option on log in page is not likely to work. The official documentation for Windows Azure shows possibility of Single Sign On with the Microsoft account using the Live SDK. The Live SDK provides authentication token in form of string. However, even this token expires in about 24 hours. Moreover, this is restricted to the Microsoft Account only. What are my possibilities if I want to cache the user's identity and enable automatic log in? I have already gone through the article here. User will still have to log in again once the token expires. I have seen apps which require user to sign in only once!

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If attacker has original data, and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

- by Brad Cupit

If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require this extra table. I'm leaning towards the the one-way hash + extra table solution, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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Django | passing form values

- by MMRUser

I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

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XML digital signature interface

- by yeekang

I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

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batch: replace a line in a text file

- by sasamimasas

I'm trying to replace this line: # forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . with this one: forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . this line belongs to a config file that has to be enabled (UN-commented) by deleting the # sign from the beginning and I could not thought of a better way other than replacing the line with another without the # sign. any other thoughts or ways would be very useful. btw, the spaces before the text are there also.I have pasted the text as it was in the original file. thanks in advance EDIT: I have somehow managed to do the line addition and removing using two peaces of code that I've found. my only problem is that the following code removes every bit of exclamation in the output file! @echo off :Variables SETLOCAL ENABLEDELAYEDEXPANSION set InputFile=config.txt set OutputFile=config-new.txt set _strFind=# forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set _strInsert= forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set i=0 :Replace for /f "usebackq tokens=1 delims=[]" %%A in (`find /n "%_strFind%" "%InputFile%"`) do (set _strNum=%%A) for /f "usebackq delims=" %%A in ("%InputFile%") do ( set /a i = !i! + 1 echo %%A>>"%OutputFile%" if [!i!] == [%_strNum%] (echo %_strInsert%>>"%OutputFile%") ) type %OutputFile% | findstr /i /v /c:"%_strFind%">config-new2.txt I was wondering if there is any way to do both the find/delete/add line in one step (not two steps as mine)...

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plot 4 different plots inside 1 pdf

- by ifreak

I have 2 data frames which i want to generate 3 plots from them and place them inside 1 pdf file as a single column. i want all the plots to have the same x-axis limits(basically the same x-axis) even thought they differ in the name and how they were obtained. the dataframes looks something like that: d1 X Y Z 0.04939317 -0.4622222 13651 0.03202451 -0.4261000 13401 0.09950793 -0.3233025 13151 0.11548556 -0.4637981 12486 0.09817597 -0.4751886 12236 0.15770701 -0.5819355 11986 and d2 V0 V1 V2 V3 sign 1 1 0.379 0.612 pos 2 1 0.378 0.620 pos 3 1 0.578 0.571 neg 4 1 0.978 0.561 pos 5 1 0.758 0.261 neg 6 1 0.378 0.126 neg P.S : both data frames are bigger than this, this is only a part of them V0, V1 and Z range from 1 to 20000 the plots that i created are : From d2 d2plot=ggplot(d1, aes(V0,V1, fill=sign)) + geom_tile()+ scale_fill_manual(values = c("neg" = "yellow", "pos"="red")) +geom_vline(xintercept =10000 ) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=0, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) From d1 d1plot = ggplot(d2) + geom_errorbarh(aes(x=z,xmin=z-50,xmax=z+50, y=Y, height = 0.02),color="red")+ opts(legend.position = "none") +geom_vline(xintercept = 10000) +geom_text(mapping=aes(x=10000,y=-0.3, label="Stop"), size=4, angle=90, vjust=-0.4, hjust=0) i've tried grid.arrange(d1plot,d2plot,ncol=1) but the x-axis is different for each plot, i tried changing the aspect ratio, but this will change the y-axis ..i've also tried to use facet_wrap but the problem that my x-axis values have different values, i just want the limits and breaks to be the same and the plots all be aligned in 1 column based on 1 x-axis to comapre the value of the statistical methods in an easy way.

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How to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers

- by droidsites

Doing a web site using spring mvc. I added a SignupController to handle all the sign up related requests. Once user signup I am adding that to a session using @Scope("session"). Below is the SignupController code, SignupController.java @Controller @Scope("session") public class SignupController { @Autowired SignupServiceInter signUpService; private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(SignupController.class); private String sessionUser; @RequestMapping("/SignupService") public ModelAndView signUp(@RequestParam("userid") String userId, @RequestParam("password") String password,@RequestParam("mailid") String emailId){ logger.debug(" userId:"+userId+"::Password::"+password+"::"); String signupResult; try { signUpService.registerUser(userId, password,emailId); sessionUser = userId; //adding the sign up user to the session return new ModelAndView("userHomePage","loginResult","Success"); //Navigate to user Home page if everything goes right } catch (UserExistsException e) { signupResult = e.toString(); return new ModelAndView("signUp","loginResult", signupResult); //Navigate to signUp page back if user does not exist } } } I am using "sessionUser" variable to store the signed up User Id. My understanding is that when I use @Scope("session") for the controller all the instance variables will added to HttpSession. So by that understanding I tried to access this "SessionUser" in userHomePage.jsp as, userHomepage.jsp Welcome to <%=session.getAttribute("sessionUser")%> But it throws null. So my question is how to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers. Note: My work around is that pass that signed User Id to jsp page through ModelAndView, but it seems passing the value like these among the pages takes me back to managing state among pages using QueryStrings days.

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