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  • Effective books for learning the intricacies of business application development?

    - by OffApps Cory
    I am a self taught "developer". I use the term loosely because I only know enough to make myself dangerous. I have no theory background, and I only pick up things to get this little tool to work or make that control do what I want. That said, I am looking for some reading material that explains some of the theory behind application development especially from a business standpoint. Really I need to understand what all of these terms that float around really talk about. Business Logic Layer, UI abstraction level and all that. Anyone got a reading list that they feel helped them understand this stuff? I know how to code stuff up so that it works. It is not pretty mostly because I don't know the elegant way of doing it, and it is not planned out very well (I also don't know how to plan an application). Any help would be appreciated. I have read a number of books on what I thought was the subject, but they all seem to rehash basic coding and what-not. This doesn't have to be specific to VB.NET or WPF (or Entity Framework) but anything with those items would be quite helpful.

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  • Apache redirection problem!!!!

    - by vikas
    Hi guys, I am setting up a pre-built website built in php. The site was actually hosted on the linux server. Now I am trying to set it up on a Window machine with WAMP server. In this website almost every page request passes through a particular file called redirect(which is basically a php file without extension). Now the problem is that when I inspected the configuration(httpd.conf, apache.conf,.htaccess, vhost.conf etc) of the apache server on the linux machine, I nowhere found the redirect rules for doing so. Neither mod_rewrite nor mod_alias rules for this redirection were found there. But is still redirects the request properly. I also noticed that Zend Framework library is there in the exact same directory where the redirect file is. This library is included in the include_path in php.ini. However, the web site is still not developed using Zend MVC and I have seen NO proof of ZEND being used there. So I am really confused how this redirection is working there? I am unable to set up this on window machine without rewrite rules of mod_rewrite or mod_alias. Do you guys know any alternative of both the said modules for redirection? I know the site is really weird, but i have to set it up. :) Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Handling duplicate insertion

    - by Francis
    So I've got this piece of code which, logically should work but Entity Framework is behaving unexpectedly. Here: foreach (SomeClass someobject in allObjects) { Supplier supplier = new Supplier(); supplier.primary_key = someobject.id; supplier.name = someobject.displayname; try { sm.Add(supplier); ro.Created++; } catch (Exception ex) { ro.Error++; } } Here's what I have in sm.Add() public Supplier Add(Supplier supplier) { try { _ctx.AddToSupplier(supplier); _ctx.SaveChanges(); return supplier; } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } I can have records in allObjects that have the same id. My piece of code needs to support this and just move on to the next and try to insert it, which I think should work. If this happens, an exception is throw, saying that records with dupe PKs cannot be inserted (of course). The exception mentions the value of the PK, for example 1000. All is well, a new supplier is passed to sm.Add() containing a PK that's never been used before. (1001) Weirdly though, when doing SaveChanges(), EF will whine about not being able to insert records with dupe PKs. The exception still mentions 1000 even though supplier contains 10001 in primary_key. I feel this is me not using _ctx properly. Do I need to call something else to sync it ?

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  • How To Update EF 4 Entity In ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Jason Evans
    Hi there. I have 2 projects - a class library containing an EDM Entity Framework model and a seperate ASP.NET MVC project. I'm having problems with how your suppose to edit and save changes to an entity using MVC. In my controller I have: public class UserController : Controller { public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var rep = new UserRepository(); var user = rep.GetById(id); return View(user); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(User user) { var rep = new UserRepository(); rep.Update(user); return View(user); } } My UserRepository has an Update method like this: public void Update(User user) { using (var context = new PDS_FMPEntities()) { context.Users.Attach(testUser); context.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(testUser, EntityState.Modified); context.SaveChanges(); } } Now, when I click 'Save' on the edit user page, the parameter user only contains two values populated: Id, and FirstName. I take it that is due to the fact that I'm only displaying those two properties in the view. My question is this, if I'm updating the user's firstname, and then want to save it, what am I suppose to do about the other User properties which were not shown on the view, since they now contain 0 or NULL values in the user object? I've been reading a lot about using stub entities, but I'm getting nowhere fast, in that none of the examples I've seen actually work. i.e. I keep getting EntityKey related exceptions. Can someone point me to a good tutorial/example of how to update EF 4 entities using a repository class, called by an MVC front-end? Cheers. Jas.

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  • How to collect and inject all beans of a given type in Spring XML configuration

    - by GrzegorzOledzki
    One of the strongest accents of the Spring framework is the Dependency Injection concept. I understand one of the advices behind that is to separate general high-level mechanism from low-level details (as announced by Dependency Inversion Principle). Technically, that boils down to having a bean implementation to know as little as possible about a bean being injected as a dependency, e.g. public class PrintOutBean { private LogicBean logicBean; public void action() { System.out.println(logicBean.humanReadableDetails()); } //... } <bean class="PrintOutBean"> <property name="loginBean" ref="ShoppingCartBean"/> </bean> But what if I wanted to a have a high-level mechanism operating on multiple dependent beans? public class MenuManagementBean { private Collection<Option> options; public void printOut() { for (Option option:options) { // do something for option } //... } } I know one solution would be to use @Autowired annotation in the singleton bean, that is... @Autowired private Collection<Option> options; But doesn't it violate the separation principle? Why do I have to specify what dependents to take in the very same place I use them (i.e. MenuManagementBean class in my example)? Is there a way to inject collections of beans in the XML configuration like this (without any annotation in the MMB class)? <bean class="MenuManagementBean"> <property name="options"> <xxx:autowire by-type="MyOptionImpl"/> </property> </bean>

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Saving a single entity instead of the entire context - revisited

    - by nite
    I’m looking for a way to have fine grained control over what is saved using Entity Framework, rather than the whole ObjectContext.SaveChanges(). My scenario is pretty straight forward, and I’m quite amazed not catered for in EF – pretty basic in NHibernate and all other data access paradigms I’ve seen. I’m generating a bunch of data (in a WPF UI) and allowing the user to fine tune what is proposed and choose what is actually committed to the database. For the proposed entities I’m: getting a bunch of reference entities (eg languages) via my objectcontext, creating the proposed entities and assigning these reference entities to them (as navigation properties), so by virtue of their relationship to the reference entities they’re implicitly added to the objectconext Trying to create & save individual entites based on the proposed entities. I figure this should be really simple & trivial but everything I’ve tried I’ve hit a brick wall, either I set up another objectcontext & add just the entity I need (it then tries to add the whole graph and fails as it’s on another objectcontext). I’ve tried MergeOptions = NoTracking on my reference entities to try to get the Attach/AddObject not to navigate through these to create a graph, no avail. I've removed the navigation properties from the reference entities. I've tried AcceptAllChanges, that works but pretty useless in practice as I do still want to track & save other entities. In a simple test, I can create 2 of my proposed entities, AddObject the one I want to save and then Detach the one I dont then call SaveChanges, this works but again not great in practice. Following are a few links to some of the nifty ideas which in the end don’t help in the end but illustrate the complexity of EF for something so simple. I’m really looking for a SaveSingle/SaveAtomic method, and think it’s a pretty reasonable & basic ask for any DAL, letalone a cutting edge ORM. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1301460/saving-a-single-entity-instead-of-the-entire-context www.codeproject.com/KB/architecture/attachobjectgraph.aspx?fid=1534536&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3071122&fr=1 bernhardelbl.spaces.live.com/blog/cns!DB54AE2C5D84DB78!238.entry

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  • EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

    - by Martin
    Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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  • EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

    - by Sven
    I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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  • What's the best way to communicate the purpose of a string parameter in a public API?

    - by Dave
    According to the guidance published in New Recommendations for Using Strings in Microsoft .NET 2.0, the data in a string may exhibit one of the following types of behavior: A non-linguistic identifier, where bytes match exactly. A non-linguistic identifier, where case is irrelevant, especially a piece of data stored in most Microsoft Windows system services. Culturally-agnostic data, which still is linguistically relevant. Data that requires local linguistic customs. Given that, I'd like to know the best way to communicate which behavior is expected of a string parameter in a public API. I wasn't able to find an answer in the Framework Design Guidelines. Consider the following methods: f(string this_is_a_linguistic_string) g(string this_is_a_symbolic_identifier_so_use_ordinal_compares) Is variable naming and XML documentation the best I can do? Could I use attributes in some way to mark the requirements of the string? Now consider the following case: h(Dictionary<string, object> dictionary) Note that the dictionary instance is created by the caller. How do I communicate that the callee expects the IEqualityComparer<string> object held by the dictionary to perform, for example, a case-insensitive ordinal comparison?

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  • Can I write a .NETCF Partial Class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl?

    - by eidylon
    Okay... I'm writing a .NET CF (VBNET 2008 3.5 SP1) application, which has one master form, and it dynamically loads specific UserControls based on menu click, in a sort of framework idea. There are certain methods and properties these controls all need to work within the app. Right now I am doing this as an Interface, but this is aggravating as all get up, because some of the methods are optional, and yet I MUST implement them by the nature of interfaces. I would prefer to use inheritance, so that I can have certain code be inherited with overridability, but if I write a class which inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl and then inherit my control from that, it squiggles, and tells me that UserControls MUST inherit directly from System.Windows.Forms.UserControl. (Talk about a design flaw!) So next I thought, well, let me use a partial class to extend System.Windows.Forms.UserControl, but when I do that, even though it all seems to compile fine, none of my new properties/methods show up on my controls. Is there any way I can use partial classes to 'extend' System.Windows.Forms.UserControl? For example, can anyone give me a code sample of a partial class which simply adds a MyCount As Integer readonly property to the System.Windows.Forms.UserControl class? If I can just see how to get this going, I can take it from there and add the rest of my functionality. Thanks in advance! I've been searching google, but can't find anything that seems to work for UserControl extension on .NET CF. And the Interface method is driving me crazy as even a small change means updating ALL the controls whether they need to 'override' the method or not.

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  • Where should I put validation code?

    - by D Lawson
    I'm creating interfaces and abstract classes that represent a messaging framework for short text-based messages like SMS, email, twitter, xml, etc.. and I was wondering where I should put the message validation code. The thing is that I am only writing the superclasses and interfaces, so I'm not putting the actual implementation in, I'll just put the hooks in that allow others to validate the content of the messages. The way I see it, I could do it several ways: in the abstract superclass "Message", have an abstract method 'isValid'. A variation on this would be to have isValid be called when the Message constructor is called, throwing a MalformedMessageException if the message is formatted incorrectly. in the transport layer, immediately before sending, validate the message. I would have a send(Message) method that calls an isValid(Message) method immediately before it sends. have a singleton message validator with a static method isValid(Message) that is called at some point. I'm sure there are other options that I'm missing. Currently, I'm leaning towards the first one, but it doesn't feel right to me to have validation code in what should be a domain object.

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  • LINQ EF not saving to database...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I guess this is a continuation of the last question I asked: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2587542/bulk-insert-and-update-with-ado-net-entity-framework. I am not getting any errors while doing inserts yet no data is actually going into my DB. My DB is a SDF file (SQL CE). Any ideas what to check? My app.config looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <configSections> </configSections> <connectionStrings> <add name="Lab_Use_Billing.Properties.Settings.LabUseConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Models\LabUse.sdf" providerName="Microsoft.SqlServerCe.Client.3.5" /> <add name="LabUseEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.csdl|res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.ssdl|res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlServerCe.3.5; provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Models\LabUse.sdf&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> TIA

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  • Programmatically setup a PEAP connection in Windows Mobile

    - by tomlog
    I have been working on this for a few days and this is doing my head in: Our application is built using the .NET Compact Framework 2.0 and running on Windows Mobile 5 & 6 devices. We can set the WLAN connection of the device programmatically using the Wireless Zero Config functions (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms894771.aspx), most notably the WZCSetInterface function which we pinvoke from our application. This works fine for WEP and WPA-PSK connections. In a recent effort to add support for WPA2 networks we decided to modify the code. We have successfully added support for WPA2 which uses a certificate for the 802.1x authentication by setting the correct registry settings before calling WZCSetInterface. Now we want to do the same for WPA2 using PEAP (MS-CHAPv2) authentication. When manually creating such a connection in Windows Mobile the user will be prompted to enter the domain/user/password details. In our application we will have those details stored locally and want to do this all programmatically without any user intervention. So I thought going along the same route as the certificate authentication, setting the correct registry entries before calling WZCSetInterface. The registry settings we set are: \HKCU\Comm\EAP\Config\[ssid name] Enable8021x = 1 (DWORD) LastAuthSuccessful = 1 (DWORD) EapTypeId = 25 (DWORD) Identity = "domain\username" (string) Password = binary blob containing the password that is encrypted using the CryptProtectData function (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms938309.aspx) But when these settings are set and I call WZCSetInterface with the correct parameters, it still prompts me with the User Logon dialog asking for the domain/username/password. Has anyone got an idea what I need to do to prevent the password dialog from appearing and connect straight away with the settings stored in the registry?

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  • Need some advice on MVC separation..

    - by Zenph
    I should note I am using Zend Framework. Although this shouldn't affect the concrete answer, it does mean there are several places I can implement my following method (action helper, controller etc). The issue is I have buildOptions() and parseOptions() method which takes $_GET/$_POST variables based on a 'tag' and builds rules which are then used in a select query. An example would be ?modelSort=id&modelOrder=asc The 'model' in the above obviously relates to the particular model, and it used as a 'tag' so that I can for example also have model2Sort and model2Order so there is no conflict between parameters. However, the trouble I am having now is where should these methods go? They are generally dealing with request params. I have been reading a lot about fat model, thin controller. Should this be in an abstract model. My thinking was that if it were, I would do something like: (note, I know I wouldn't call directly like this. Method would be used by child classes) $abstractModel-buildOptions($params); Where 'params' could be anything, like the request parameters $_GET or $_POST: $abstractModel-buildOptions($_GET); Now from what I can see the model is not inherintly dealing with request variables but rather parameters passed to the method. Advice? Where does this method belong? Model, Controller? Specifically on Zend, should it be an action helper, plugin, within an abstract model? Appreciate any advice.

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  • EF 4.0 Guid or Int as A primary Key

    - by bigb
    I am Implementing custom ASPNetMembership using EF 4.0 Is there any reason why i should use Guid as a primary key in User tables? As far as i know Int as a PK on SQL Server more performanced than strings. And Int is easier to iterate. Also, for security purpose if i need to pass this it id somewhere in url i may encrypt it somehow and pass it like a strings with no probs. But if i want to use auto generated Guid on SQL Server side using EF 4.0 i need to do this trick http://leedumond.com/blog/using-a-guid-as-an-entitykey-in-entity-framework-4/ I can't see any cases why i should use Guid as PK, may be only one if system going to have millions ans millions users, but also, theoretically, Guid could be duplicated sometime isn't so? Anyway Int32 size is 2,147.483.647 it is pretty much even for very-very big system, but if this number is still not enough I may go with Int64, in that cases I may have 9,223.372.036.854.775.807 rows. Pretty much huh? From another hand, M$ using Guids as PK in their ASPNetMembership implementation. [aspnetdb].[aspnet_Users] - PK UserId Type uniqueidentifier, should be some reasons/explanation why the did it?! May be some one has any ideas/experience about that?

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  • Running an application from an USB device...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm working on a proof-of-concept application, containing a WCF service with console host and client, both on a single USB device. On the same device I will also have the client application which will connect to this service. The service uses the entity framework to connect to the database, which in this POC will just return a list of names. If it works, it will be used for a larger project. Creating the client and service was easy and this works well from USB. But getting the service to connect to the database isn't. I've found this site, suggesting that I should modify machine.config but that stops the XCopy deployment. This project cannot change any setting of the PC, so this suggestion is bad. I cannot create a deployment setup either. The whole thing just needs to run from USB disk. So, how do I get it to run? (The service just selects a list of names from the database, which it returns to the client. If this POC works, it will do far more complex things!)

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  • Login fails when recreating database with Code First

    - by Mun
    I'm using ASP.NET Entity Framework's Code First to create my database from the model, and the login seems to fail when the database needs to be recreated after the model changes. In Global.asax, I've got the following: protected void Application_Start() { Database.SetInitializer(new DropCreateDatabaseIfModelChanges<EntriesContext>()); // ... } In my controller, I've got the following: public ActionResult Index() { // This is just to force the database to be created var context = new EntriesContext(); var all = (from e in context.Entries select e).ToList(); } When the database doesn't exist, it is created with no problems. However, when I make a change to the model, rebuild and refresh, I get the following error: Login failed for user 'sa'. My connection string looks like this: <add name="EntriesContext" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL);Database=MyDB;User Id=sa;Password=password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> The login definitely works as I can connect to the server and the database from Management Studio using these credentials. If I delete the database manually, everything works correctly and the database is recreated as expected with the schema reflecting the changes made to the model. It seems like either the password or access to the database is being lost. Is there something else I need to do to get this working?

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  • How do I get my Windows Forms application to use a custom main function and get access to the Applic

    - by burble
    Hi Folks I am trying to use a Main () function in a class to control the program flow in my vb .net Windows Forms application. I have added a splash screen component and a login screen, and customised my main sdi form. I have set the startup form to be my main function in the Application Page of the Project Designer, and everything seems to work fine(ish). However, I would like to use: Me.MinimumSplashScreenDisplayTime = 5000 to ensure that the splash screen is visible, but it is not recognised by the system unless I tick the Enable Application Framework check box on the Project Designer. If I do this, on startup the program ignores the login and splash screens and all my customisation and just displays a default Form1, even though I have also specified my splash screen in the AF dropdown list. Of course, there are alternative ways to delay a splash screen, such as putting the thread temporarily to sleep (which didn't seem to work), but I suspect that there are other things in the AF that I may want to use. Any suggestions on how I can get round this please, and get a sensible means of controlling program flow? Any thoughts on the best overall structure for organising program flow would also be helpful too. I am concerned both about going down a Microsoft or an alternative custom route that may cause me problems later, as the application becomes more complex. Thankses.

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  • Would you allow this type of query?

    - by user564577
    I'm exploring using an ORM tool in our development shop, and in particular Entity Framework 4.0. Since we work with VERY large databases, I'm a bit concerned about the query's it generates. Doing something simple like getting clients with an address in a state looks like below. As a database developer or admin would you allow this? Is it as bad as it looks? Assume every join is on a clustered index. SELECT [Project2].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Project2].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Project2].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Project2].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Project2].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Project2].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate], [Project2].[C1] AS [C1], [Project2].[AddressKey] AS [AddressKey], [Project2].[ClientKey1] AS [ClientKey1], [Project2].[AddressTypeCode] AS [AddressTypeCode], [Project2].[PrimaryAddress] AS [PrimaryAddress], [Project2].[AddressLine1] AS [AddressLine1], [Project2].[AddressLine2] AS [AddressLine2], [Project2].[City] AS [City], [Project2].[State] AS [State], [Project2].[ZIP] AS [ZIP] FROM ( SELECT [Distinct1].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Distinct1].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Distinct1].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Distinct1].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Distinct1].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Distinct1].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate], [Extent3].[AddressKey] AS [AddressKey], [Extent3].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey1], [Extent3].[AddressTypeCode] AS [AddressTypeCode], [Extent3].[PrimaryAddress] AS [PrimaryAddress], [Extent3].[AddressLine1] AS [AddressLine1], [Extent3].[AddressLine2] AS [AddressLine2], [Extent3].[City] AS [City], [Extent3].[State] AS [State], [Extent3].[ZIP] AS [ZIP], CASE WHEN ([Extent3].[AddressKey] IS NULL) THEN CAST(NULL AS int) ELSE 1 END AS [C1] FROM (SELECT DISTINCT [Extent1].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Extent1].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Extent1].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Extent1].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Extent1].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Extent1].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate] FROM [Common].[Clients] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [Common].[ClientAddresses] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[ClientKey] = [Extent2].[ClientKey] WHERE (( CAST(CHARINDEX(UPPER('D'), UPPER([Extent1].[LastName])) AS int)) > 0) AND ([Extent1].[IsEnabled] = 1) AND ([Extent2].[City] IS NOT NULL) AND ((UPPER([Extent2].[City])) = (UPPER('Colorado Springs'))) ) AS [Distinct1] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Common].[ClientAddresses] AS [Extent3] ON [Distinct1].[ClientKey] = [Extent3].[ClientKey] ) AS [Project2] ORDER BY [Project2].[ClientKey] ASC, [Project2].[FirstName] ASC, [Project2].[LastName] ASC, [Project2].[IsEnabled] ASC, [Project2].[ChangeUser] ASC, [Project2].[ChangeDate] ASC, [Project2].[C1] ASC

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • Replacing mysql user authentication with openid

    - by David
    So, I'm working with a really old system which uses a person's mysql database credentials to authenticate to a web site (the database was originally only accessed from the command line, but is now accessed from a php frontend). Because of some internal reasons (and to preserve the user's history), I have to leave the old authentication intact. I've been charged with adding openid authentication to this system. Somehow I need to be able to retrieve a users mysql username and password upon logging into the site through openid (using the Zend framework, by the way). I've thought of simply requiring registration at the first login, where the user must provide their mysql credentials, but I'd rather not store the password plain text. I've also considered blanking everyone's mysql passwords, and just setting the user's mysql username manually (rather than having the user provide this, since they could provide any username). This is turning into a security nightmare. Does anyone have any suggestions for alternatives? This is running on a Linux server, by the way. Also, I can't use mysql pluggable authentication because the mysql version is 5.0 (pluggable authentication requires mysql 5.5), and no, I can't update it.

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  • EventHandlers saved to databases.

    - by Stacey
    In a database application (using Sql Server right now, in C#, with Entity Framework 4.0) I have a situation where I need to trigger events when some values change. For instance assume a class "Trackable". class Trackable { string Name { get; set; } int Positive { get; set; } int Negative { get; set; } int Total { get; set; } // event OnChanged } Trackable is represented in the database as follows; table Trackables Id | guid name | varchar(32) positive | int negative | int Total is of course, calculated at runtime. When a trackable event changes, I want to inspect its previous value, and then see what it is changing to, and be capable of reacting accordingly. However different trackables need to trigger different events (to avoid a huge, massive cascading switch/if block). If this were just only C# code it would be easy - but they have to be saved to the database. I can't divide up each different trackable into a different table/class, that would be silly - they are all identical, but the event raised is different based on how they are made. So I guess my question is, is there any way to store an event handler in a database such that.. Trackable t1 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable1" OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable1Change) } Trackable t2 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable2", OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable2Change) }

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  • Zend Metadata Cache in file

    - by Matthieu
    I set up a metadata cache in Zend Framework because a lot of DESCRIBE queries were executed and it affected the performances. $frontendOptions = array ('automatic_serialization' => true); $backendOptions = array ('cache_dir' => CACHE_PATH . '/db-tables-metadata'); $cache = Zend_Cache::factory( 'Core', 'File', $frontendOptions, $backendOptions ); Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultMetadataCache($cache); I can indeed see the cache files created, and the website works great. However, when I launch unit tests, or a script of the same application that perform DB queries, I end up with an error because Zend couldn't read the cache files. This is because in the website, the cache files are created by the www user, and when I run phpunit or a script, it tries to read them with my user and it fails. Do you see any solution to that? I have some quickfix ideas but I'm looking for a good/stable solution. And I'd rather avoid running phpunit or the scripts as www if possible (for practical reasons).

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