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  • How can I allow only privledged users to download a pdf with php?

    - by ThinkingInBits
    Lets say I have some pdf files stored on my server and I only want to allow a person who's paid have access to download a particular pdf. So for an example, let's say I have a bunch of e-books. The only way a user would be able to download e-book A is if his account contains the right credentials for that particular book. What's the best way to accomplish this? Any ideas/advice on how to improve my idea are greatly appreciated! My current idea: A user places an order Upon success, a new folder would be created by their /account_num/order_id/ A copy of the particular file would be stored in this directory Have php generate an .htaccess that would only allow access from a url that contains a random hash embedded into it. The only way a user would be able to access this random hashed page is if they are signed in as the right user, and the hash matches up with the hash stored in the database, otherwise they are redirected to home page.

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  • Different Service behaviors per endpoint

    - by Preben Huybrechts
    The situation We are implementing different sort of security on some WCF service. ClientCertificate, UserName & Password and Anonymous. We have 2 ServiceBehaviorConfigurations, one for httpBinding and one for wsHttpBinding. (We have custom authorization policies for claim based security) As a requirement we need different endpoints for each service. 3 endpoints with httpBinding and 1 with wsHttpBinding. Example for one service: basicHttpBinding : Anonymous basicHttpBinding : UserNameAndPassword basicHttpBinding : BasicSsl wsHttpBinding : BasicSsl The Problem Part 1: We cannot specify the same service twice, once with the http service configuration and once with the wsHttp service configuration. Part 2: We cannot specify service behaviors on an endpoint. (Throws and exception, No endpoint behavior was found... Service behaviors cant be set to endpoint behaviours) The Config For part 1: <services> <service name="Namespace.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="securityBehavior"> <endpoint address="http://server:94/MyService.svc/Anonymous" contract="Namespace.IMyService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="Anonymous"> </endpoint> <endpoint address="http://server:94/MyService.svc/UserNameAndPassword" contract="Namespace.IMyService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="UserNameAndPassword"> </endpoint> <endpoint address="https://server/MyService.svc/BasicSsl" contract="Namespace.IMyService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicSecured"> </endpoint> </service> <service name="Namespace.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="wsHttpCertificateBehavior"> <endpoint address="https://server/MyService.svc/ClientCert" contract="Namespace.IMyService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="ClientCert"/> </service> </services> Service Behavior configuration: <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="securityBehavior"> <serviceAuthorization serviceAuthorizationManagerType="Namespace.AdamAuthorizationManager,Assembly"> <authorizationPolicies> <add policyType="Namespace.AdamAuthorizationManager,Assembly" /> </authorizationPolicies> </serviceAuthorization> </behavior> <behavior name="wsHttpCertificateBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" httpsGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization serviceAuthorizationManagerType="Namespace.AdamAuthorizationManager,Assembly"> <authorizationPolicies> <add policyType="Namespace.AdamAuthorizationManager,Assembly" /> </authorizationPolicies> </serviceAuthorization> <serviceCredentials> <clientCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="PeerOrChainTrust" revocationMode="NoCheck"/> </clientCertificate> <serviceCertificate findValue="CN=CertSubject"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> How can we specify a different service behaviour on the WsHttpBinding endpoint? Or how can we apply our authorization policy in a different way for wsHttpBinding then basicHttpBinding. We would use endpoint behavior but we can't specify our authorization policy on an endpoint behavior

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  • SQL Server 2008 Problem with SCOPE_IDENTITY()

    - by jinsungy
    My code does not update the thread field. It is null. Anyone have any ideas? INSERT INTO [Messages]([Sender], [Receiver], [Job_Number], [Subject], [MessageText], [DateSent]) VALUES(@Sender, @Receiver, @Job_Number, @Subject, @MessageText, @DateSent) SET @ThreadID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() UPDATE [Messages] SET Thread = @ThreadID WHERE MessageID = @ThreadID

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  • Calling a register method from 2 or more controllers best practice

    - by PussInBoots
    I don't want to repeat myself. That is, I don't want the same code in two different controllers. I always start from a default mvc5 web app project. That project has a Register ActionMethod in an AccountController: // // GET: /Account/Register [AllowAnonymous] public ActionResult Register() { return View(); } // // POST: /Account/Register [HttpPost] [AllowAnonymous] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] public async Task<ActionResult> Register(RegisterViewModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { var user = new ApplicationUser() { UserName = model.UserName }; var result = await UserManager.CreateAsync(user, model.Password); if (result.Succeeded) { await SignInAsync(user, isPersistent: false); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { AddErrors(result); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(model); } Say I have a CampaignController and I want to register a user when he/she is on that page, fills out his/her username and pass and clicks the send form/submit button. What is the best thing to do in the ActionMethod of that form/controller? Yes, I want to have the registerform in two or more places. What is the best way to accomplish this in mvc 5?

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  • Javascript === vs == : Does it matter which "equal" operator I use?

    - by bcasp
    I'm using JSLint to go through some horrific JavaScript at work and it's returning a huge number of suggestions to replace == with === when doing things like comparing 'idSele_UNVEHtype.value.length == 0' inside of an if statement. I'm basically wondering if there is a performance benefit to replacing == with ===. Any performance improvement would probably be welcomed as there are hundreds (if not thousands) of these comparison operators being used throughout the file. I tried searching for relevant information to this question, but trying to search for something like '=== vs ==' doesn't seem to work so well with search engines...

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  • Integration Patterns with Azure Service Bus Relay, Part 3: Anonymous partial-trust consumer

    - by Elton Stoneman
    This is the third in the IPASBR series, see also: Integration Patterns with Azure Service Bus Relay, Part 1: Exposing the on-premise service Integration Patterns with Azure Service Bus Relay, Part 2: Anonymous full-trust .NET consumer As the patterns get further from the simple .NET full-trust consumer, all that changes is the communication protocol and the authentication mechanism. In Part 3 the scenario is that we still have a secure .NET environment consuming our service, so we can store shared keys securely, but the runtime environment is locked down so we can't use Microsoft.ServiceBus to get the nice WCF relay bindings. To support this we will expose a RESTful endpoint through the Azure Service Bus, and require the consumer to send a security token with each HTTP service request. Pattern applicability This is a good fit for scenarios where: the runtime environment is secure enough to keep shared secrets the consumer can execute custom code, including building HTTP requests with custom headers the consumer cannot use the Azure SDK assemblies the service may need to know who is consuming it the service does not need to know who the end-user is Note there isn't actually a .NET requirement here. By exposing the service in a REST endpoint, anything that can talk HTTP can be a consumer. We'll authenticate through ACS which also gives us REST endpoints, so the service is still accessed securely. Our real-world example would be a hosted cloud app, where we we have enough room in the app's customisation to keep the shared secret somewhere safe and to hook in some HTTP calls. We will be flowing an identity through to the on-premise service now, but it will be the service identity given to the consuming app - the end user's identity isn't flown through yet. In this post, we’ll consume the service from Part 1 in ASP.NET using the WebHttpRelayBinding. The code for Part 3 (+ Part 1) is on GitHub here: IPASBR Part 3. Authenticating and authorizing with ACS We'll follow the previous examples and add a new service identity for the namespace in ACS, so we can separate permissions for different consumers (see walkthrough in Part 1). I've named the identity partialTrustConsumer. We’ll be authenticating against ACS with an explicit HTTP call, so we need a password credential rather than a symmetric key – for a nice secure option, generate a symmetric key, copy to the clipboard, then change type to password and paste in the key: We then need to do the same as in Part 2 , add a rule to map the incoming identity claim to an outgoing authorization claim that allows the identity to send messages to Service Bus: Issuer: Access Control Service Input claim type: http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims/nameidentifier Input claim value: partialTrustConsumer Output claim type: net.windows.servicebus.action Output claim value: Send As with Part 2, this sets up a service identity which can send messages into Service Bus, but cannot register itself as a listener, or manage the namespace. RESTfully exposing the on-premise service through Azure Service Bus Relay The part 3 sample code is ready to go, just put your Azure details into Solution Items\AzureConnectionDetails.xml and “Run Custom Tool” on the .tt files.  But to do it yourself is very simple. We already have a WebGet attribute in the service for locally making REST calls, so we are just going to add a new endpoint which uses the WebHttpRelayBinding to relay that service through Azure. It's as easy as adding this endpoint to Web.config for the service:         <endpoint address="https://sixeyed-ipasbr.servicebus.windows.net/rest"                   binding="webHttpRelayBinding"                    contract="Sixeyed.Ipasbr.Services.IFormatService"                   behaviorConfiguration="SharedSecret">         </endpoint> - and adding the webHttp attribute in your endpoint behavior:           <behavior name="SharedSecret">             <webHttp/>             <transportClientEndpointBehavior credentialType="SharedSecret">               <clientCredentials>                 <sharedSecret issuerName="serviceProvider"                               issuerSecret="gl0xaVmlebKKJUAnpripKhr8YnLf9Neaf6LR53N8uGs="/>               </clientCredentials>             </transportClientEndpointBehavior>           </behavior> Where's my WSDL? The metadata story for REST is a bit less automated. In our local webHttp endpoint we've enabled WCF's built-in help, so if you navigate to: http://localhost/Sixeyed.Ipasbr.Services/FormatService.svc/rest/help - you'll see the uri format for making a GET request to the service. The format is the same over Azure, so this is where you'll be connecting: https://[your-namespace].servicebus.windows.net/rest/reverse?string=abc123 Build the service with the new endpoint, open that in a browser and you'll get an XML version of an HTTP status code - a 401 with an error message stating that you haven’t provided an authorization header: <?xml version="1.0"?><Error><Code>401</Code><Detail>MissingToken: The request contains no authorization header..TrackingId:4cb53408-646b-4163-87b9-bc2b20cdfb75_5,TimeStamp:10/3/2012 8:34:07 PM</Detail></Error> By default, the setup of your Service Bus endpoint as a relying party in ACS expects a Simple Web Token to be presented with each service request, and in the browser we're not passing one, so we can't access the service. Note that this request doesn't get anywhere near your on-premise service, Service Bus only relays requests once they've got the necessary approval from ACS. Why didn't the consumer need to get ACS authorization in Part 2? It did, but it was all done behind the scenes in the NetTcpRelayBinding. By specifying our Shared Secret credentials in the consumer, the service call is preceded by a check on ACS to see that the identity provided is a) valid, and b) allowed access to our Service Bus endpoint. By making manual HTTP requests, we need to take care of that ACS check ourselves now. We do that with a simple WebClient call to the ACS endpoint of our service; passing the shared secret credentials, we will get back an SWT: var values = new System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection(); values.Add("wrap_name", "partialTrustConsumer"); //service identity name values.Add("wrap_password", "suCei7AzdXY9toVH+S47C4TVyXO/UUFzu0zZiSCp64Y="); //service identity password values.Add("wrap_scope", "http://sixeyed-ipasbr.servicebus.windows.net/"); //this is the realm of the RP in ACS var acsClient = new WebClient(); var responseBytes = acsClient.UploadValues("https://sixeyed-ipasbr-sb.accesscontrol.windows.net/WRAPv0.9/", "POST", values); rawToken = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(responseBytes); With a little manipulation, we then attach the SWT to subsequent REST calls in the authorization header; the token contains the Send claim returned from ACS, so we will be authorized to send messages into Service Bus. Running the sample Navigate to http://localhost:2028/Sixeyed.Ipasbr.WebHttpClient/Default.cshtml, enter a string and hit Go! - your string will be reversed by your on-premise service, routed through Azure: Using shared secret client credentials in this way means ACS is the identity provider for your service, and the claim which allows Send access to Service Bus is consumed by Service Bus. None of the authentication details make it through to your service, so your service is not aware who the consumer is (MSDN calls this "anonymous authentication").

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  • Windows 7 computer apparently connected to working wireless network but can't access router page or internet

    - by Hemmer
    I can consistently connect successfully to both the router and the internet using both my phone and two different computers which strongly suggests that the issue is at the desktop end. Only my Windows 7 desktop machine has stopped getting internet connectivity. It manages to connect to the router's network using the Windows 7 wireless dialog, but can't access either the router configuration page (192.168.1.1) or the internet in general once connected. The strange thing is the wireless network icon in the notification bar shows a full strength signal, sometimes with the yellow warning triangle. The output of ipconfig /all is: Wireless LAN adapter Wireless Network Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Broadcom 802.11g Network Adapter Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00-12-17-94-98-90 DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.102(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 10:32:16 Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 12:32:16 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DHCP Server . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 194.168.4.100 194.168.8.100 NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled I've tried renewing DCHP settings disabling IPv6 resetting TCP stack uninstalling and reinstalling WLAN card drivers I've not installed anything new or made any changes to my knowledge, this just happened out of the blue. The only possible change is my friend connected his macbook to the network, but that has gone now and shouldn't have any lasting effects? TCP/IPv4 is set to automatically find an IP address. Antivirus is MSE (up to date) and doesn't detect anything unusual. Any ideas where to go next? Any help is greatly appreciated. For reference, the results of ipconfig /all on one of the working computers is: Ethernet adapter Wireless Network Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Broadcom 802.11g Network Adapter Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00-16-CF-67-E5-97 Dhcp Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IP Address. . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.100 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DHCP Server . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 194.168.4.100 194.168.8.100 Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 10:26:38 Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 12:26:38 UPDATE: Still not working, but I've managed to find a temporary workaround by tethering my Android phone, effectively becoming a new wifi adapter. Will be moving to a new flat so will test if it is a network specific thing - maybe the card has got damaged somehow? Also will see if the card is working with Linux soon.

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  • "SignTool error: Access is denied" in TFS 2010 build process

    - by user351352
    I'm getting "SignTool Error: Access is Denied" when I attempt to sign a file. When I use an administrator cmd, all works fine. However, this process is going to be used in a TFS 2010 build process and using the InvokeProcess task with signtool gives the same access denied message as a non-administrator command prompt. More info: On a Win2008 R2 enterprise machine. User is machine admin and on the domain. The TFS Build service is also set to run as this user. Using a self signed certificate created using these instructions: How do I create a self-signed certificate for code signing on Windows? After following these instructions I have the following files: MyCA.cer MyCA.pvk MySPC.cer MySPC.pvk MySPC.pfx MyCA is in my Trusted Root Certification Authorities I imported MySPC.pfx into personal certificates, following the advice here: SignTool error: Access is denied To do the signing I'm using the thumbprint of the MySPC.pfx that was imported into the Personal section so my signtool command looks like: sign /sha1 1e9d7b5ad98552d9c58944e3f3903e6b929f4819 /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timestamp.dll "FileName" Once again this works in Admin mode. This also works when running cmd as administrator: sign /f "C:\Code Signing Non-Release\MySPC.pfx" /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timestamp.dll "FileName" New to code signing in general, so any help is welcome.

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  • Windows 7 - Enable Network DTC Access

    - by Russ Clark
    I have a Visual Studio 2010 Windows Forms application in which I start a transaction using the TransactionScope class. I then Receive a message from a Sql Server Broker Services message queue, which works fine. I next try to call a stored procedure from the same database with a call to my data access layer which is a Visual Studio dataset (xsd file). When I make this second call to the database I get the following error message: The MSDTC transaction manager was unable to pull the transaction from the source transaction manager due to communication problems. Possible causes are: a firewall is present and it doesn't have an exception for the MSDTC process, the two machines cannot find each other by their NetBIOS names, or the support for network transactions is not enabled for one of the two transaction managers. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8004D02B). I've seen several posts on the web that talk about Enabling DTC access through dcomcnfg.exe, and allowing DTC to communicate through Windows Firewall. I've done those things, and am still having this problem. I know our remote database server is setup to Enable DTC access, because we are using similar transactions in other projects built with Visual Studio 2008 on Windows XP and Vista. I think there is something specific about Windows 7 and Visual Studio 2010 causing this problem, but haven't been able to find out what it is. Can anyone help with this problem?

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  • Links on SharePoint 2010 Master Page not changed based on Alternate Access Mappings

    - by victor_c
    We are creating a custom branded Master Page in SharePoint 2010. To make the page similar to a legacy page we have implemented an html based custom dropdown navigation menu we had in place directly on the Master Page (consisted of basic HTML elements ULs and LIs with A tags styled with a CSS class). I assumed the links from the basic HTML on the page would be subject to Alternate Access Mappings currently in place, but it seems to not be the case. On a test page opened in 3 different URLs (http://sharepoint2010, http://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com, https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com) the links from a WIKI page are modified as I expected, but the links from the Custom Navigation Menu (plain HTML on the Master Page) are not modified. I can see where that would be useful... But is there a way that I can add links on the MasterPage in a way that SharePoint parses them first, making them subject to Alternate Access Mapping translation? I tried placing a link inside a SPLinkButton control, but it didn't achieve the desired behavior. e.g. <ul id="navmenu"> <li><SharePoint:SPLinkButton runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint link</SharePoint:SPLinkButton></li> <li><a href="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint2010</a></li> <li>test</li> </ul> When I access the page via https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com the links above are still http://sharepoint2010 rather than https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com Any thoughts? Thanks, Victor

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  • ClickOnce Deployment Error - Access to the Path is Denied

    - by michael.lukatchik
    I have a WPF app that I'm deploying to a network path using ClickOnce deployment. After the app is deployed to a network location, I use the ClickOnce html page to launch the installation process. I am successfully able to download and install the app. However, my users are not able to download and install the app. When a user navigates to the ClickOnce html page and clicks to begin the installation process, the following error message is received: ERROR SUMMARY Below is a summary of the errors, details of these errors are listed later in the log. * Activation of http://software.mycompany.com/myapp/myapp.application resulted in exception. Following failure messages were detected: + Downloading file://dev/webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. * [4/5/2010 1:56:59 PM] System.Deployment.Application.DeploymentDownloadException (Unknown subtype) - Downloading file://dev/Webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. All signs point to this being a security issue. So, I've done the following: Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the files that were being deployed as part of my project Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the network location where the app was deployed (//dev/webs/software/myapp) Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the IIS path where the ClickOnce html page is located In each of these cases, I've made no progress in getting the app to successfully deploy via ClickOnce. Again, the odd thing is that I am able to successfully walk through the process of downloading and installing the app. It's my users, though, that need the ability to download and install the app. I've looked extensively on the web for answers, but there hasn't been much. I'd like to resolve the issue without "re-installing" or "rigging" anything. I need a solid answer. Thank you all for your input!! Mike

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  • Setting Access-Control-Allow-Origin in Dreamhost possible?

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Just wanted a confirmation for this: Firefox currently doesn't play well for picking custom fonts through a sub-domain via the font-face tag. Other browsers do this without any problems. A little research showed up saying that i am required to set the Access-Control-Allow-Origin as is shown in the link here: http://pastie.org/653265 Essentially i have my blog at kaushikgopal.com/blog and i was trying to access fonts that within this blog that are available at font.kaushikgopal.com. I tried changing the same in my .htaccess file but couldn't resolve the issue.(I placed a .htaccess file within the font sub-domain folder and directly pasted code from the above pastie link). I submitted a ticket to dreamhost asking for assistance and they were helpful in clearly stating "We do not support Access-Control-Allow-Origin on shared hosting servers". So i didn't go the sub-domain route for fonts. But i'm a little curious, has anyone tried this (with a dreamhost hosting account would be helpful)? Just want to confirm what the tech-support guy suggested is accurate and there's no other way. Thanks. Another nice link clearly stating the problem : http://www.stevesouders.com/tests/font-face/xdomain.php

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • How to create Dictionary object in AppDelegate to access objectkey in another ViewController

    - by TechFusion
    Hello, I have created Window Based application and tab bar controller as root controller. My objective is to store Text Field data values in one tab bar VC and will be accessible and editable by other VC and also retrievable when application start. I am looking to use NSDictionary class in AppDelegate so that I can access stroed Data Values with keys. //TestAppDelegate.h @interface { ..... .... NSDictionary *Data; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDictionary *Data; //TestAppDelegate.m #import "TestAppDelegate.h" NSString *kNamekey =@"Namekey"; NSString *kUserIDkey =@"UserIDkey"; NSString *kPasswordkey =@"Passwordkey"; @implemetation TestAppDelegate @synthesize Data; -(void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication)application { NSString *NameDefault; NSString *UserIDdefault; NSString *Passworddefault; NSString *testvalue = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] stringForKey: kNamekey]; if(testvalue == nil) { NSDictionary *appDefaults = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NameDefault, kNamekey, UserIdefault kUserIDkey, Passwordefault kPasswordkey, nil]; self.Data = appDefaults; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] registerDefaults:appDefaults]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } else { } } Here ViewController is ViewController of Navigation Controller which is attached with one tab bar.. I have attached xib file with ViewController //ViewController.h @interface IBOutlet UITextField *Name; IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; IBOutlet UITextField *Password; } @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Name @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Password; -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender; @end Here in ViewController.m I want to store Text Field input data with key which are defined in AppDelegate. I have linked Save Barbutton with action. Here I am not getting how to access NSDictionary class with object and keys in ViewController. //ViewController.m -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender{ TestAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TestAppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; //Here how to access knamekey here to set object(Name.test) value with key } Please guide me about this. Thanks,

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  • GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

    - by Vogel
    This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

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  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

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  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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  • How to Access value of dynamically created control?

    - by sharad
    i have asp.net web application in which i need to create form dynamically depend upon table which user selected.however,i created form dynamically with it's control like text box,drop downlist etc. but not able to access those controls at particular button click event. My form scenario is like this: i have dropdownlist in which i display list of tables,button control say display( on click event which i redirect page with some addition in querystring so that at page init it dynamically genrate controls) and another button control which used to access this controls value say Submit and store in database. This is my code: At Display button Click event: Response.Redirect("dynamic_main.aspx?mode=edit&tablename=" + CMBTableList.SelectedItem.ToString()); This is code For page.Init level if (Request.QueryString["mode"] != null) { if (Request.QueryString["mode"].ToString() == "edit") { Session["tablename"] = Request.QueryString["tablename"].ToString(); // if (Session["tablename"].ToString() == CMBTableList.SelectedItem.ToString()) //{ createcontrol(Session["tablename"].ToString()); // } } } i have used createcontrol() which genrate controls Code For Submit Button: string[] contid=controlid.Value.Split(','); MasterPage ctl00 = FindControl("ctl00") as MasterPage; ContentPlaceHolder cplacehld = ctl00.FindControl("ContentPlaceHolder2") as ContentPlaceHolder; Panel panel1 = cplacehld.FindControl("plnall") as Panel; Table tabl1 = panel1.FindControl("id1") as Table; foreach (string sin in contid) { string splitcvalu = sin.Split('_')[0].ToString(); ControlsAccess contaccess = new ControlsAccess(); if (splitcvalu.ToString() == "txt") { TextBox txt = (TextBox)tabl1.FindControl(sin.ToString()); //TextBox txt = cplacehld.FindControl(sin.ToString()) as TextBox; val = txt.ID; } else { DropDownList DDL = cplacehld.FindControl(sin.ToString()) as DropDownList; } } Here i am no able to access this textbox or drop downlist.i am getting id of particular control from hidden field controlid in which i have stored it during genrating controls. i have used findcontrol() it works in case of finding masterpage,contentplaceholder,table etc. but in case of textbox or other control it doesnt work it shows it returns null. Anyone can help me. Thanks

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  • Cross-domain data access in JavaScript

    - by vit
    We have an ASP.Net application hosted on our network and exposed to a specific client. This client wants to be able to import data from their own server into our application. The data is retrieved with an HTTP request and is CSV formatted. The problem is that they do not want to expose their server to our network and are requesting the import to be done on the client side (all clients are from the same network as their server). So, what needs to be done is: They request an import page from our server The client script on the page issues a request to their server to get CSV formatted data The data is sent back to our application This is not a challenge when both servers are on the same domain: a simple hidden iframe or something similar will do the trick, but here what I'm getting is a cross-domain "access denied" error. They also refuse to change the data format to return JSON or XML formatted data. What I tried and learned so far is: Hidden iframe -- "access denied" XMLHttpRequest -- behaviour depends on the browser security settings: may work, may work while nagging a user with security warnings, or may not work at all Dynamic script tags -- would have worked if they could have returned data in JSON format IE client data binding -- the same "access denied" error Is there anything else I can try before giving up and saying that it will not be possible without exposing their server to our application, changing their data format or changing their browser security settings? (DNS trick is not an option, by the way).

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  • grailsApplication access in Grails unit Test

    - by Reza
    I am trying to write unit tests for a service which use grailsApplication.config to do some settings. It seems that in my unit tests that service instance could not access the config file (null pointer) for its setting while it could access that setting when I run "run-app". How could I configure the service to access grailsApplication service in my unit tests. class MapCloudMediaServerControllerTests { def grailsApplication @Before public void setUp(){ grailsApplication.config= ''' video{ location="C:\\tmp\\" // or shared filesystem drive for a cluster yamdi{ path="C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\yamdi" } ffmpeg { fileExtension = "flv" // use flv or mp4 conversionArgs = "-b 600k -r 24 -ar 22050 -ab 96k" path="C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\ffmpeg" makethumb = "-an -ss 00:00:03 -an -r 2 -vframes 1 -y -f mjpeg" } ffprobe { path="C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\ffprobe" params="" } flowplayer { version = "3.1.2" } swfobject { version = "" qtfaststart { path= "C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\qtfaststart" } } ''' } @Test void testMpegtoFlvConvertor() { log.info "In test Mpg to Flv Convertor function!" def controller=new MapCloudMediaServerController() assert controller!=null controller.videoService=new VideoService() assert controller.videoService!=null log.info "Is the video service null? ${controller.videoService==null}" controller.videoService.grailsApplication=grailsApplication log.info "Is grailsApplication null? ${controller.videoService.grailsApplication==null}" //Very important part for simulating the HTTP request controller.metaClass.request = new MockMultipartHttpServletRequest() controller.request.contentType="video/mpg" controller.request.content= new File("..\\MapCloudMediaServer\\web-app\\videoclips\\sample3.mpg").getBytes() controller.mpegtoFlvConvertor() byte[] videoOut=IOUtils.toByteArray(controller.response.getOutputStream()) def outputFile=new File("..\\MapCloudMediaServer\\web-app\\videoclips\\testsample3.flv") outputFile.append(videoOut) } }

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  • Driver denied access to PCI card

    - by Corin
    We wrote a Windows device driver to access our custom PCI card. The driver uses CreateFile to get a handle to the card. We recently had trouble at one installation were the card appeared to stop working. We tried replacing the card (the replacement appeared not work either). The computer vendor replaced the motherboard and both cards still failed to work. We put the cards in a different computer and both worked fine. We now have the computer at our office for examination. The Windows Device Manager lists our card in Other Devices as usual and says it's working fine. However, our driver initialization fails when it attempts to connect to the card. We created a test version of our driver with some extra debugging and determined that CreateFile is failing. It returns INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE as it is supposed to on failure. GetLastError indicates the error is Access is Denied. Since we're logged into the system as a local administrator, what can deny access to the device?

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  • Need a refresher course on property access...

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

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  • Access array of c-structs using Python ctypes

    - by sadris
    I have a C-function that allocates memory at the address passed to and is accessed via Python. The pointer contents does contain an array of structs in the C code, but I am unable to get ctypes to access the array properly beyond the 0th element. How can I get the proper memory offset to be able to access the non-zero elements? Python's ctypes.memset is complaining about TypeErrors if I try to use their ctypes.memset function. typedef struct td_Group { unsigned int group_id; char groupname[256]; char date_created[32]; char date_modified[32]; unsigned int user_modified; unsigned int user_created; } Group; int getGroups(LIBmanager * handler, Group ** unallocatedPointer); ############# python code below: class Group(Structure): _fields_ = [("group_id", c_uint), ("groupname", c_char*256), ("date_created", c_char*32), ("date_modified", c_char*32), ("user_modified", c_uint), ("user_created", c_uint)] myGroups = c_void_p() count = libnativetest.getGroups( nativePointer, byref(myGroups) ) casted = cast( myGroups, POINTER(Group*count) ) for x in range(0,count): theGroup = cast( casted[x], POINTER(Group) ) # this only works for the first entry in the array: print "~~~~~~~~~~" + theGroup.contents.groupname Related: Access c_char_p_Array_256 in Python using ctypes

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