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• How is an array stored in memory?

  - by George

  In an interest to delve deeper into how memory is allocated and stored, I have written an application that can scan memory address space, find a value, and write out a new value. I developed a sample application with the end goal to be able to programatically locate my array, and overwrite it with a new sequence of numbers. In this situation, I created a single dimensional array, with 5 elements, e.g. int[] array = new int[] {8,7,6,5,4}; I ran my application and searched for a sequence of the five numbers above. I was looking for any value that fell between 4 and 8, for a total of 5 numbers in a row. Unforuntately, my the sequential numbers in my array matched hundreds of results, as the numbers 4 through 8, in no particular sequence happened to be next to each other, in memory, in many situations. Is there any way to distinguish that a set of numbers within memory, represents an array, not simply integers that are next to each other? Is there any way of knowing that if I find a certain value, that the matching values proceeding it are that of an array? I would assume that when I declare int[] array, its pointing at the first address of my array, which would provide some kind of meta-data to what existed in the array, e.g. 0x123456789 meta-data, 5 - 32 bit integers 0x123456789 + 32 "8" 0x123456789 + 64 "7" 0x123456789 + 96 "6" 0x123456789 + 128 "5" 0x123456789 + 160 "4" Am I way off base?

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• table in drupal with edit link

  - by user544079

  I have a table created in drupal with the edit link pointing to the input form. But the problem is, it only displays the last row values in the $email and $comment variables. Can anyone suggest how to modify the table display to have the edit link to the corresponding records? function _MYMODULE_sql_to_table($sql) { $html = ""; // execute sql $resource = db_query($sql); // fetch database results in an array $results = array(); while ($row = db_fetch_array($resource)) { $results[] = $row; $email = $row['email']; $comment = $row['comment']; drupal_set_message('Email: '.$email. ' comment: '.$comment); } // ensure results exist if (!count($results)) { $html .= "Sorry, no results could be found."; return $html; } // create an array to contain all table rows $rows = array(); // get a list of column headers $columnNames = array_keys($results[0]); // loop through results and create table rows foreach ($results as $key => $data) { // create row data $row = array( 'edit' => l(t('Edit'),"admin/content/test/$email/$comment/ContactUs", $options=array()),); // loop through column names foreach ($columnNames as $c) { $row[] = array( 'data' => $data[$c], 'class' => strtolower(str_replace(' ', '-', $c)), ); } // add row to rows array $rows[] = $row; } // loop through column names and create headers $header = array(); foreach ($columnNames as $c) { $header[] = array( 'data' = $c, 'class' = strtolower(str_replace(' ', '-', $c)), ); } // generate table html $html .= theme('table', $header, $rows); return $html; } // then you can call it in your code... function _MYMODULE_some_page_callback() { $html = ""; $sql = "select * from {contactus}"; $html .= _MYMODULE_sql_to_table($sql); return $html; }

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• determine week when pick a day

  - by derikluv

  I'm trying to accomplish the following task. I'm developing a custom calendar with three views (day,week and month), there may be something out there already but I'm rewriting this as part of learning tool for me as well. So user will face with Day view when they first visit, with arrows to go back and forth to next day or previous day of course. If they click on Week View, it will give them a 7 days overview with today date as default, and once again they can go back and forth to next week or previous week. The last view is the full month calendar, once they click on the day, it will give them the detail of the day and at the same time reset the default as the day they pick. So if they go back to week view, they will see the detail for the week contain the day that they picked. This is where I have trouble wrapping my head around with, I know there are PHP functions that determine the day of the week but I can't seem to think about how to pass in the date and get the full week starting from Sunday for the day that passed in. For example, if I passed in 10/12/2012, I'd like to start the week at 10/07/12 - 10/13/12. Thank you kindly for your help or pointing to the right direction. Please excuse my grammar/spelling mistakes as well.

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• Why is the operation address incremented by two?

  - by Gavin Jones

  I am looking at a Javascript emulator of a NES to try and understand how it works. On this line: addr = this.load(opaddr+2); The opcode is incremented by two. However, the documentation (see appendix E) I'm reading says: Zero page addressing uses a single operand which serves as a pointer to an address in zero page ($0000-$00FF) where the data to be operated on can be found. By using zero page addressing, only one byte is needed for the operand, so the instruction is shorter and, therefore, faster to execute than with addressing modes which take two operands. An example of a zero page instruction is AND $12. So if the operand's argument is only one byte, shouldn't it appear directly after it, and be + 1 instead of + 2? Why +2? This is how I think it works, which may be incorrect. Suppose our memory looks like: ------------------------- | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | <- index ------------------------- | a | b | c | d | e | f | <- memory ------------------------- ^ \ PC and our PC is 0, pointing to a. For this cycle, we say that the opcode: var pc= 0; //for example's sake var opcode= memory[pc]; //a So shouldn't the first operand be the next slot, i.e. b? var first_operand = memory[pc + 1]; //b

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• SQL Server: Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

  - by chryss

  It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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• Initialize void pointer to point to an array

  - by idealistikz

  Suppose I have the following: typedef struct { int itemSize; int count; void *list; } Mystruct; Mystruct *InitStruct(int itemSize, int count) { Mystruct *my = malloc(sizeof(Mystruct)); my->itemSize = itemSize; my->count = count; //What is the best way to initialize list? For example: //my->list = malloc(count * sizeof(void *)); OR //my->list = malloc(count * sizeof(itemSize)); } //The following should return a pointer to the element stored at a given index void *Retrieve(const MyStruct *my, int index) { void *item; //What is the best way to return a pointer to the item at the given index from //my->list? } Mystruct is similar to an array and void *list is supposed to store the elements or pointers to the elements. Mystruct *InitStruct is a function that initializes a Mystruct pointer and void *Retrieve is a function that returns a pointer to the element stored at a given index. First, how should I initialize void* list? Should it hold the actual elements or be an array of pointers pointing to the elements? Second, using the void *Retrieve function, how do I return a pointer to the element stored at a given index in my-list?

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• Dynamic programming Approach- Knapsack Puzzle

  - by idalsin

  I'm trying to solve the Knapsack problem with the dynamical programming(DP) approach, with Python 3.x. My TA pointed us towards this code for a head start. I've tried to implement it, as below: def take_input(infile): f_open = open(infile, 'r') lines = [] for line in f_open: lines.append(line.strip()) f_open.close() return lines def create_list(jewel_lines): #turns the jewels into a list of lists jewels_list = [] for x in jewel_lines: weight = x.split()[0] value = x.split()[1] jewels_list.append((int(value), int(weight))) jewels_list = sorted(jewels_list, key = lambda x : (-x[0], x[1])) return jewels_list def dynamic_grab(items, max_weight): table = [[0 for weight in range(max_weight+1)] for j in range(len(items)+1)] for j in range(1,len(items)+1): val= items[j-1][0] wt= items[j-1][1] for weight in range(1, max_weight+1): if wt > weight: table[j][weight] = table[j-1][weight] else: table[j][weight] = max(table[j-1][weight],table[j-1][weight-wt] + val) result = [] weight = max_weight for j in range(len(items),0,-1): was_added = table[j][weight] != table[j-1][weight] if was_added: val = items[j-1][0] wt = items[j-1][1] result.append(items[j-1]) weight -= wt return result def totalvalue(comb): #total of a combo of items totwt = totval = 0 for val, wt in comb: totwt += wt totval += val return (totval, -totwt) if totwt <= max_weight else (0,0) #required setup of variables infile = "JT_test1.txt" given_input = take_input(infile) max_weight = int(given_input[0]) given_input.pop(0) jewels_list = create_list(given_input) #test lines print(jewels_list) print(greedy_grab(jewels_list, max_weight)) bagged = dynamic_grab(jewels_list, max_weight) print(totalvalue(bagged)) The sample case is below. It is in the format line[0] = bag_max, line[1:] is in form(weight, value): 575 125 3000 50 100 500 6000 25 30 I'm confused as to the logic of this code in that it returns me a tuple and I'm not sure what the output tuple represents. I've been looking at this for a while and just don't understand what the code is pointing me at. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Strange PHP array behavior overwriting values with all the same values

  - by dasdas

  Im doing a simple mysqli query with code ive used many times before but have never had this problem happen to me. I am grabbing an entire table with an unknown number of columns (it changes often so i dont know the exact value, nor the column names). I have some code that uses metadata to grab everything and stick it in an array. This all works fine, but the output is messed up: $stmt -> execute(); //the query is legit, no problems there $meta = $stmt->result_metadata(); while ($field = $meta->fetch_field()) { $params[] = &$row[$field->name]; } call_user_func_array(array($stmt, 'bind_result'), $params); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $pvalues[++$i] = $row; //$pvalues is an array of arrays. row is an array //print_r($row); print_r($pvalues[$i-1]); } $stmt -> close(); I would assume that $pvalues has the results that I am looking for. My table currently has 2 rows. $pvalues has array length 2. Both rows in $pvalues are exactly the same. If i use the: print_r($row) it prints out the correct values for both rows, but if later on i check what is in $pvalues it is incorrect (1 row is assigned to both indices of $pvalues). If i use the print_r($pvalues[$i-1]) it prints exactly as I expect, the same row in the table twice. Why isnt the data getting assigned to $pvalues? I know $row holds the right information at one point, but it is getting overwritten or lost.

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• can upstart expect/respawn be used on processes that fork more than twice?

  - by johnjamesmiller

  I am using upstart to start/stop/automatically restart daemons. One of the daemons forks 4 times. The upstart cookbook states that it only supports forking twice. Is there a workaround? how it fails If I try to use expect daemon or expect fork upstart uses the pid of the second fork. When I try to stop the job nobody responds to upstarts SIGKILL signal and it hangs until you exhaust the pid space and loop back around. It gets worse if you add respawn. Upstart thinks the job died and immediately starts another one. bug acknowledged by upstream A bug has been entered for upstart. The solutions presented are stick with the old sysvinit, rewrite your daemon, or wait for a re-write. rhel is close to 2 years behind the latest upstart package so by the time the rewrite is released and we get updated the wait will probably be 4 years. The daemon is written by a subcontractor of a subcontractor of a contractor so it will not be fixed any time soon either.

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• Hyper-V + RRAS NAT + Port Forwarding + RDP, can I get it all working together?

  - by Tom Bull

  I am running a Windows 2008 R2 server with various services running natively and two virtualised servers running on Hyper-V. The hardware server, I'm going to call it REAL1, has one external NIC, to which I can assign any of the following IP addresses: 1.2.3.4, 1.2.3.5, 1.2.3.6, etc... I need to achieve the following: I would like to be able to connect to REAL1 via remote desktop (RDP / port 3389) on one IP address (say 1.2.3.4), but also to the virtualised servers (I'm going to call them VIRTUAL1 and VIRTUAL2) on the other available IP addresses (say 1.2.3.5 and 1.2.3.6). The easiest way of doing this is to connect the virtual servers directly to the external interface and assign them each their own IP address. REAL1 will have 1.2.3.4, VIRTUAL1 will have 1.2.3.5 and VIRTUAL2 will have 1.2.3.6. Unfortunately, although I don't directly manage the two virtual servers, I have responsibility for their security. I would like to have some kind of firewall between the virtual servers an the internet. I have tried running a virtual machine firewall, but have found the performance on Hyper-V pretty terrible. The alternative I am now trying is Routing and Remote Access (RRAS): I have set up a virtual network called 'Internal' and REAL1 has a virtual network adapter connected to this virtual network I have connected each of the virtual servers to this network too I have assigned each server static IP addresses on this virtual network (REAL1 has 10.1.1.1, VIRTUAL1 has 10.1.1.2 and VIRTUAL2 has 10.1.1.3) I have installed RRAS and set up a NAT. The external interface is the external NIC, the internal interface is the virtual NIC connected to the internal network I have assigned all the available external IP addresses to the external NIC on REAL1. The virtual servers have been set up appropriately such that their default gateway is pointing to 10.1.1.1 and they can both access externally. Success! The RRAS is routing packets. The problem I have is that when I try to port forward services from the external IP address on REAL1, it only works if there is not already a service bound to the port. Remote desktop 'greedily' binds to every available IP address on port 3389 on REAL1 so I can't selectively forward incoming traffic for 1.2.3.5:3389 to 10.1.1.2:3389. RRAS will allow me to set up this port forwarding, and no errors come up. It just doesn't work. So the question I have is: Is there a better way of doing this? Or at least is there a way of resolving the apparant conflict between RRAS and everything else on the physical server?

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• Apache2 name based virtual host always redirect 301

  - by Francesco

  I've got a server (runnging Debian Squeeze) with Apache 2.2, there are 4 site running there. I'm using namebased virtulhosts because I've got a single IP. Initial configuration has been made with Webmin and probably something has been messed up.. firstdomain.com is my default domain and is working correctly, seconddomain.com is another site that is working. Now I want to add lastdomain.tk as a new site, so I've made this config file: root@webamp:/etc/apache2# cat sites-available/lastdomain.tk.conf <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /home/server/Condivisione/RAID/lastdomain.tk ServerName www.alazanes.tk ServerAlias alazanes.tk </VirtualHost> I've added it to enabled-sites and restarted apache. The problem is that if I go to lastdomain.tk (or www.lastdomain.tk) I'm redirected to firstdomain.com with a 301 redirect. Both lastdomain.tk and www.lastdomain.tk are A DNS records pointing to my IP address. Strange thing is that if a change DocumentRoot of lastdomain.tk to DocumentRoot /home/server/Condivisione/RAID/Sito_SecondDomain I correctly see seconddomain.com content without being redirected (lastdomain.tk is showed on address bar) These are the other configurations I'm using. root@webamp:/root# source /etc/apache2/envvars ; /usr/sbin/apache2 -S VirtualHost configuration: wildcard NameVirtualHosts and _default_ servers: *:443 webamp.firstdomain.com (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/ssl.bbteam:1) *:80 is a NameVirtualHost default server firstdomain.com (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/000-default:7) port 80 namevhost firstdomain.com (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/000-default:7) port 80 namevhost www.lastdomain.tk (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/lastdomain.tk.conf:1) ## other domains ## port 80 namevhost seconddomain.com (/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/seconddomain.com.conf:1) Syntax OK Content of default config file is root@webamp:/etc/apache2# cat sites-available/default <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName firstdomain.com ServerAlias www.firstdomain.com direct.firstdomain.com DocumentRoot /home/server/Condivisione/RAID/Sito_Web_Apache_su_80 ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error.log LogLevel warn CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log combined </VirtualHost> content of second domain config file is root@webamp:/etc/apache2# cat sites-available/seconddomain.com.conf <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /home/server/Condivisione/RAID/Sito_SecondDomain ServerName seconddomain.com ServerAlias www.seconddomain.com direct.seconddomain.com #redirect 301 / http://www.seconddomain.com/ <Directory "/home/server/Condivisione/RAID/Sito_SecondDomain"> allow from all Options +Indexes </Directory> </VirtualHost> Probably a file permission problem? root@webamp:/root# ls -lh /home/server/Condivisione/RAID/ total 7.1M drwxrwxr-x 15 www-data server 4.0K Jun 5 13:29 Sito_SecondDomain drwxrwxrwx 23 server server 4.0K Jun 7 16:22 Sito_Web_Apache_su_80 drwxrwxr-x 17 www-data server 4.0K Jun 8 09:56 alazanes.tk Do someone have an idea of what is happening? Thanks, Francesco

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• XenServer 6.0.2 path to installation media contains non-ascii characters

  - by cmaduro

  XenServer 6.0.2 install fails no matter what I do. I have confirmed that the md5 checksum on my ISO file is good. I tried installing from a mounted ISO file (remotely via iKVM). I tried installing from physical media. I tried installing from a bootable USB stick (using syslinux + contents of the ISO) All attempts have yielded the same result: When verifying the installation media, at 0% initializing, the following is reported: "Some packages appeared to be damaged." followed by a list of pretty much all the gz2 and rpm packages. If I skip the media verification the installer proceeds and then gives me an error when it reaches "Installing from base pack" at 0% which states "An unrecoverable error has occurred. The error was: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0xff in position 20710: ordinal not in range(128) Please refer to your user guide, or contact a Technical Support Representative, for further details" there is one option left which is to reboot. Apparently at some point during the processing of the repositories on the installation media non-ascii characters are found, which causes the installer to quit. How do I fix this? Here are my specs TYAN S8236 motherboard 2 AMD Opteron 6234 processors LSI2008 card connected to 2 1TB Seagate Constellation drives SATA, 1 500GB Corsair m4 SSD SATA and 1 Corsair Forse 3 - 64GB SSD SATA Onboard SATA connected to a slim DVD-+RW. Onboard SAS connected to 2 IBM ESX 70GB 10K SAS drives (for XenServer) 256GB memory ================================================================================= Comments: According to pylonsbook.com "chances are you have run into a problem with character sets, encodings, and Unicode" – cmaduro 10 hours ago A clue is provided by "vmware.com/support/vsphere5/doc/…; Data migration fails if the path to the vCenter Server installation media contains non-ASCII characters When this problem occurs, an error message similar to: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0xd0 in position 30: ordinal not in range(128) appears, and the installer quits unexpectedly during the data migration process. – cmaduro 10 hours ago This is an error that python throws. And guess what, the .py extention of the file you have to edit in this link community.spiceworks.com/how_to/show/1168 means the installer is written in python. Python is interpreted, so now to find the install file responsible for this error. – cmaduro 6 hours ago The file that generates the error upon verification is /opt/xensource/installer/tui/repo.py. The error message appears around line 359. – cmaduro 2 hours ago I am fairly sure that the install error is generated somewhere in repository.py as the backend.py file throws errors while methods in that file are being called. Perhaps all errors can be traced back to this file. – cmaduro 1 hour ago

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• Setting up a transparent SSL proxy

  - by badunk

  I've got a linux box set up with 2 network cards to inspect traffic going through port 80. One card is used to go out to the internet, the other one is hooked up to a networking switch. The point is to be able to inspect all HTTP and HTTPS traffic on devices hooked up to that switch for debugging purposes. I've written the following rules for iptables: nat -A PREROUTING -i eth1 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 80 -j DNAT --to-destination 192.168.2.1:1337 -A PREROUTING -i eth1 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 80 -j REDIRECT --to-ports 1337 -A POSTROUTING -s 192.168.2.0/24 -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE On 192.168.2.1:1337, I've got a transparent http proxy using Charles (http://www.charlesproxy.com/) for recording. Everything's fine for port 80, but when I add similar rules for port 443 (SSL) pointing to port 1337, I get an error about invalid message through Charles. I've used SSL proxying on the same computer before with Charles (http://www.charlesproxy.com/documentation/proxying/ssl-proxying/), but have been unsuccessful with doing it transparently for some reason. Some resources I've googled say its not possible - I'm willing to accept that as an answer if someone can explain why. As a note, I have full access to the described set up including all the clients hooked up to the subnet - so I can accept self-signed certs by Charles. The solution doesn't have to be Charles-specific since in theory, any transparent proxy will do. Thanks! Edit: After playing with it a little, I was able to get it working for a specific host. When I modify my iptables to the following (and open 1338 in charles for reverse proxy): nat -A PREROUTING -i eth1 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 80 -j DNAT --to-destination 192.168.2.1:1337 -A PREROUTING -i eth1 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 80 -j REDIRECT --to-ports 1337 -A PREROUTING -i eth1 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 443 -j DNAT --to-destination 192.168.2.1:1338 -A PREROUTING -i eth1 -p tcp -m tcp --dport 443 -j REDIRECT --to-ports 1338 -A POSTROUTING -s 192.168.2.0/24 -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE I am able to get a response, but with no destination host. In the reverse proxy, if I just specify that everything from 1338 goes to a specific host that I wanted to hit, it performs the hand shake properly and I can turn on SSL proxying to inspect the communication. The setup is less than ideal because I don't want to assume everything from 1338 goes to that host - any idea why the destination host is being stripped? Thanks again

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• Installing drivers for switchable graphics

  - by Anonymous

  I recently bought a laptop that came with Windows 7 64-bit installed. I have some older (16-bit and 32-bit) software that doesn't work with 64-bit Windows, but works just fine with 32-bit. Since I also wanted to get rid of all of the pre-installed spam, I decided to wipe the hard drive and install a fresh copy of Windows 7 32-bit. I can't get the graphics cards working. This laptop uses switchable graphics, an Intel card and a Radeon card. I first tried installing this driver from Intel, which works for the Intel card. Of course, the Radeon card doesn't work with this driver and I need it for some of the newer games I have. I also tried this driver. Windows's device manager will recognize the Radeon card, but it will still use the Intel card. Also, even though that package says it contains the Intel driver, the Intel card still isn't properly recognized by Windows (leaving me with a nasty 800x600 resolution). On top of that, the Catalyst Control Center won't open (saying "The Catalyst Control Center is not supported by the driver version of your enabled graphics adapter") I tried installing HP's driver then installing Intel's driver on top of it. Device manager will then recognize both graphics cards properly. However, the laptop still uses the Intel card. The CCC still won't start (saying the same thing as before) and I can't find any of 'switching' graphics cards. Before formatting, I could right-click the desktop and click "Configure Switchable Graphics" This option hasn't been in the context menu regardless of what driver(s) I've installed. After some research, I found out that this menu entry runs the command "cli.exe Start PowerXpressHybrid" I've tried manually running this command, but I get the same unsupported message from CCC. So, does anyone know how I can get this working? I would like to be able to switch between the Intel and Radeon. But, if there's some way to disable the Intel and use only the Radeon, that would be fine I dual-boot with Linux (framebuffer uses the Intel, haven't even tried getting X set up yet) Here's the output of lspci # lspci -v | grep VGA 00:02.0 VGA compatible controller: Intel Corporation 2nd Generation Core Processor Family Integrated Graphics Controller (rev 09) (prog-if 00 [VGA controller]) 01:00.0 VGA compatible controller: ATI Technologies Inc NI Seymour [AMD Radeon HD 6470M] (prog-if 00 [VGA controller]) The laptop is a HP Pavilion g6t-1d00. HP doesn't support installing anything but Windows 7 64-bit, so calling tech support isn't an option. Thanks for any help UPDATE: I finally got it working. After a fresh install of Windows 7, I installed the HP driver (the one linked above). Then, there's an optional Windows update I installed (don't remember the exact name, but it'll stick out). After that, graphics switching works just like it's supposed to. Moab, thanks anyways for your help

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• multiple webapps in tomcat -- what is the optimal architecture?

  - by rvdb

  I am maintaining a growing base of mainly Cocoon-2.1-based web applications [http://cocoon.apache.org/2.1/], deployed in a Tomcat servlet container [http://tomcat.apache.org/], and proxied with an Apache http server [http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/]. I am conceptually struggling with the best way to deploy multiple web applications in Tomcat. Since I'm not a Java programmer and we don't have any sysadmin staff I have to figure out myself what is the most sensible way to do this. My setup has evolved through 2 scenarios and I'm considering a third for maximal separation of the distinct webapps. [1] 1 Tomcat instance, 1 Cocoon instance, multiple webapps -tomcat |_ webapps |_ webapp1 |_ webapp2 |_ webapp[n] |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) This was my first approach: just drop all web applications inside a single Cocoon webapps folder inside a single Tomcat container. This seemed to run fine, I did not encounter any memory issues. However, this poses a maintainability drawback, as some Cocoon components are subject to updates, which often affect the webapp coding. Hence, updating Cocoon becomes unwieldy: since all webapps share the same pool of Cocoon components, updating one of them would require the code in all web applications to be updated simultaneously. In order to isolate the web applications, I moved to the second scenario. [2] 1 Tomcat instance, each webapp in its dedicated Cocoon environment -tomcat |_ webapps |_ webapp1 | |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) |_ webapp1 | |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) |_ webapp[n] |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) This approach separates all webapps into their own Cocoon environment, run inside a single Tomcat container. In theory, this works fine: all webapps can be updated independently. However, this soon results in PermGenSpace errors. It seemed that I could manage the problem by increasing memory allocation for Tomcat, but I realise this isn't a structural solution, and that overloading a single Tomcat in this way is prone to future memory errors. This set me thinking about the third scenario. [3] multiple Tomcat instances, each with a single webapp in its dedicated Cocoon environment -tomcat |_ webapps |_ webapp1 |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) -tomcat |_ webapps |_ webapp2 |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) -tomcat |_ webapps |_ webapp[n] |_ WEB-INF (with Cocoon libs) I haven't tried this approach, but am thinking of the $CATALINA_BASE variable. A single Tomcat distribution can be multiply instanciated with different $CATALINA_BASE environments, each pointing to a Cocoon instance with its own webapp. I wonder whether such an approach could avoid the structural memory-related problems of approach [2], or will the same issues apply? On the other hand, this approach would complicate management of the Apache http frontend, as it will require the AJP connectors of the different Tomcat instances to be listening at different ports. Hence, Apache's worker configuration has to be updated and reloaded whenever a new webapp (in its own Tomcat instance) is added. And there seems no way to reload worker.properties without restarting the entire Apache http server. Is there perhaps another / more dynamic way of 'modularizing' multiple Tomcat-served webapps, or can one of these scenarios be refined? Any thoughts, suggestions, advice much appreciated. Ron

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• route lan traffic through wirless mifi

  - by Randall Blake

  I have a Windows 7 laptop accessing the internet through Verizon wireless MIFI configured as 192.168.1.1. It supports only 5 wireless connections, so I don't want to use up connections unnecessarily. That laptop has an ethernet nic which I have given a static IP of 192.168.0.5. Everything else on the 192.168.0.0 network acquires an address via DHCP from a DLink router whose address is 192.168.0.1. Also on that network are a printer, some network cameras, and a linux pc. The linux pc does not have a wireless card (and I don't want to buy one). The linux pc is located at 192.168.0.122. I can ping the linux pc from the windows pc. But I cannot access the internet from the linux pc. I can ping everything on the 192.168.0.0 network EXCEPT the ethernet card in the Windows PC. It seems as though my DLink router will not route requests to the 192.168.0.5 nic on the windows pc. My windows pc has a default route pointing to the 192.168.1.0 network. It also has a route telling it to route all traffic destined for the 192.168.0.0 network through the 192.168.0.5 interface. I have tried adding a default route to the linux pc to "gateway" 192.168.0.5, but that does not work. I have also tried adding a default route to the linux pc to the gateway 192.168.0.1 (the DLink router) but that will not give me internet access either (over the 192.168.1.0 network). I tried these two different routes at different times - I did not set them both at the same time. I suppose this is a simple problem to solve, but I cannot seem to solve it. How can I give internet access over the 192.168.1.1 MIFI to my linux pc on 192.168.0.122? Thanks EDIT: Additional Info Internet | | MIFI (192.168.1.1) (wireless) | | (192.168.1.3) (wireless) Windows 7 PC Dlink Router (192.168.0.1) ------------ (192.168.0.5) (wired) | | |linux pc (192.168.0.122) (wired) | |printer (192.168.0.100) (wireless) | |network cameras, etc (192.168.0.103) (wireless) Only the windows pc is multi-homed with a wireless nic that connects to the MIFI wirelessly, and an ethernet nic with a wired connection to the DLink router. (The DLink permits both wired and wireless connections.) I don't want to use Windows internet connection sharing because I believe it will set up the ethernet nic as a gateway on 192.168.0.1 and a DHCP server. I already have the Dlink performing that role and I don't want to change that if I do not have to. (The Dlink permits me to make DHCP reservations and I really like that feature. I don't want to lose it.)

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• Windows 7 x64 installation freezes on new PC build

  - by jhsowter

  Symptoms While attempting to install Windows 7 (64 bit) on my new PC build, it freezes usually at the point where it is expanding the windows image, but has frozen as early as accepting the licence agreement, and as late as just after the first restart. My specs are at the bottom of the post. So far I have tried the following to identify the problem, in rough chronological order: Tried different hard drives with different sata cables. Same symptoms. I later used a different computer to install windows on the same hard drive with no problems. Tried the RAM in different slots, and tried one RAM stick instead of two. Same symptoms. Updated the BIOS to 1.60. Same symptoms. Ran Memtest86+ with RAM in dual channel. It passed about 6 times when I left it running overnight. Used USB to install windows instead of an optical drive. Same symptoms. Change SATA configuration from AHCI to IDE. Same symptoms. Tried various different SATA ports. Same symptoms. Updated BIOS to 1.70. Same symptoms. I saw the RAM did not list my motherboard as being supported even though the motherboard did list the RAM as being supported. So I tried some Kingston DDR3 1333MHz RAM instead. Same symptoms. Other (possibly) pertinent information My CPU idles at about 30 °C. I can't tell what it gets to when it's working. When I installed the CPU, the lever which locks the CPU in place took quite a bit of force to pull down. Now I didn't just yank it down without rechecking the CPU was seated properly about 5 times, but it does seems unusual, and I wonder if the CPU was seated badly if I would see these symptoms? I am out of ideas and don't know how to diagnose any further. I suppose either the motherboard or CPU must be the problem. I am on the verge of taking it to a specialist. The Question How should I proceed from here? Is there anything I can rule out as being the source of the symptoms I am seeing? My Specs CPU: Intel i5 3570k RAM: G.Skill RipjawsX 8GB kit HDD: single 3.5" 500GB SATA or 160GB 2.5" SATA (at different times and sometime together. But no RAID or anything). MB: ASRock Extreme4 Z77 PSU: Silverstone Strider Plus 600W ST60F-P

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• D-Link DIR-300 slows down / loses network

  - by basic6

  Hi there, there are 2 buildings (A and B). In bldg A is an open WLAN (which I'm allowed to use btw). In bldg B is a computer that I want to connect to that network. So I flashed an old D-Link DIR-300 AP with DD-WRT, mounted it to the wall (bldg B) near a window, attached a 13 dBi directional antenna (pointing to bldg A) and configured it as AP client in that wireless network. Then there's another AP, connected to the D-Link AP, acting as standard access point, which the computer is connected to. That's basically working so far, but: Every now and then the connection is lost. Not the connection between the computer and the D-Link (I can access the DD-WRT admin page normally) or the connection between the D-Link and the WLAN (in Status - Wireless it says it's still connected to the network), but when I want to access a web page (which only works if I'm connected to the wireless network from bldg A), my Firefox keeps "Looking for" (name resolution) without finding anything. When I reset the D-Link (power off, power on) in this situation, after some moments, everything's working fine again (Internet access). I've no idea why this is happening, but usually it's at most every few weeks (most times when nobody was using the computer, so no traffic). Compared to the connection speed when I connect directly to the WLAN in bldg A (Laptop), the speed in bldg B is rather slow, but I have the impression that this difference is worse in the last few days. A few minutes ago, I got 582 KB/s down and 911 KB/s up in bldg A (directly/laptop) and 84 KB/s down and 9 KB/s up in bldg B. The speed in bldg B used to be way higher (I remember 200 KB/s up) while the actual network speed in bldg A was lower than it is now (close to those 200). I'm aware that the wireless connection between those buildings should slow things down, but I'm wondering why this difference has become that extreme. Thanks for any tips... Update: I currently want to upload a large file (1.5 GB) via FTP (FileZilla). Since that caused the D-Link to disconnect (as described in first post), I took my laptop to bldg A, connected directly to the original WLAN (bypassing my D-Link) and tried the same upload. Guess what - same issue: At some point the connection is dead (at this point I would have reset my D-Link if I was connected to it). Just as the D-Link, my laptop is still connected, but not even name resolution is working ("Looking for..." in Firefox). After reconnecting, it's working again. Maybe my D-Link isn't the problem at all...

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• How Do I Restrict Repository Access via WebSVN?

  - by kaybenleroll

  I have multiple subversion repositories which are served up through Apache 2.2 and WebDAV. They are all located in a central place, and I used this debian-administration.org article as the basis (I dropped the use of the database authentication for a simple htpasswd file though). Since then, I have also started using WebSVN. My issue is that not all users on the system should be able to access the different repositories, and the default setup of WebSVN is to allow anyone who can authenticate. According to the WebSVN documentation, the best way around this is to use subversion's path access system, so I looked to create this, using the AuthzSVNAccessFile directive. When I do this though, I keep getting "403 Forbidden" messages. My files look like the following: I have default policy settings in a file: <Location /svn/> DAV svn SVNParentPath /var/lib/svn/repository Order deny,allow Deny from all </Location> Each repository gets a policy file like below: <Location /svn/sysadmin/> Include /var/lib/svn/conf/default_auth.conf AuthName "Repository for sysadmin" require user joebloggs jimsmith mickmurphy </Location> The default_auth.conf file contains this: SVNParentPath /var/lib/svn/repository AuthType basic AuthUserFile /var/lib/svn/conf/.dav_svn.passwd AuthzSVNAccessFile /var/lib/svn/conf/svnaccess.conf I am not fully sure why I need the second SVNParentPath in default_auth.conf, but I just added that today as I was getting error messages as a result of adding the AuthzSVNAccessFile directive. With a totally permissive access file [/] joebloggs = rw the system worked fine (and was essentially unchanged), but as I soon as I start trying to add any kind of restrictions such as [sysadmin:/] joebloggs = rw instead, I get the 'Permission denied' errors again. The log file entries are: [Thu May 28 10:40:17 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'joebloggs' GET websvn:/ [Thu May 28 10:40:20 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'joebloggs' GET svn:/sysadmin What do I need to do to get this to work? Have configured apache wrong, or is my understanding of the svnaccess.conf file incorrect? If I am going about this the wrong way, I have no particular attachment to my overall approach, so feel free to offer alternatives as well. UPDATE (20090528-1600): I attempted to implement this answer, but I still cannot get it to work properly. I know most of the configuration is correct, as I have added [/] joebloggs = rw at the start and 'joebloggs' then has all the correct access. When I try to go repository-specific though, doing something like [/] joebloggs = rw [sysadmin:/] mickmurphy = rw then I got a permission denied error for mickmurphy (joebloggs still works), with an error similar to what I already had previously [Thu May 28 10:40:20 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'mickmurphy' GET svn:/sysadmin Also, I forgot to explain previously that all my repositories are underneath /var/lib/svn/repository UPDATE (20090529-1245): Still no luck getting this to work, but all the signs seem to be pointing to the issue being with path-access control in subversion not working properly. My assumption is that I have not conf

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• Is dual-booting an OS more or less secure than running a virtual machine?

  - by Mark

  I run two operating systems on two separate disk partitions on the same physical machine (a modern MacBook Pro). In order to isolate them from each other, I've taken the following steps: Configured /etc/fstab with ro,noauto (read-only, no auto-mount) Fully encrypted each partition with a separate encryption key (committed to memory) Let's assume that a virus infects my first partition unbeknownst to me. I log out of the first partition (which encrypts the volume), and then turn off the machine to clear the RAM. I then un-encrypt and boot into the second partition. Can I be reasonably confident that the virus has not / cannot infect both partitions, or am I playing with fire here? I realize that MBPs don't ship with a TPM, so a boot-loader infection going unnoticed is still a theoretical possibility. However, this risk seems about equal to the risk of the VMWare/VirtualBox Hypervisor being exploited when running a guest OS, especially since the MBP line uses UEFI instead of BIOS. This leads to my question: is the dual-partitioning approach outlined above more or less secure than using a Virtual Machine for isolation of services? Would that change if my computer had a TPM installed? Background: Note that I am of course taking all the usual additional precautions, such as checking for OS software updates daily, not logging in as an Admin user unless absolutely necessary, running real-time antivirus programs on both partitions, running a host-based firewall, monitoring outgoing network connections, etc. My question is really a public check to see if I'm overlooking anything here and try to figure out if my dual-boot scheme actually is more secure than the Virtual Machine route. Most importantly, I'm just looking to learn more about security issues. EDIT #1: As pointed out in the comments, the scenario is a bit on the paranoid side for my particular use-case. But think about people who may be in corporate or government settings and are considering using a Virtual Machine to run services or applications that are considered "high risk". Are they better off using a VM or a dual-boot scenario as I outlined? An answer that effectively weighs any pros/cons to that trade-off is what I'm really looking for in an answer to this post. EDIT #2: This question was partially fueled by debate about whether a Virtual Machine actually protects a host OS at all. Personally, I think it does, but consider this quote from Theo de Raadt on the OpenBSD mailing list: x86 virtualization is about basically placing another nearly full kernel, full of new bugs, on top of a nasty x86 architecture which barely has correct page protection. Then running your operating system on the other side of this brand new pile of shit. You are absolutely deluded, if not stupid, if you think that a worldwide collection of software engineers who can't write operating systems or applications without security holes, can then turn around and suddenly write virtualization layers without security holes. -http://kerneltrap.org/OpenBSD/Virtualization_Security By quoting Theo's argument, I'm not endorsing it. I'm simply pointing out that there are multiple perspectives here, so I'm trying to find out more about the issue.

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• Stack-based keyboard delay using Logitech MX3100 keyboard

  - by Mark S. Rasmussen

  I've been using a Logitech Cordless Desktop MX3100 keyboard for quite a while. I've never really had any problems, except for the occasional typo. I noticed however that I tended make the typo "Laod" instead of "Load", quite a bit more often than any other typos. As it started to get on my nerves, I decided to do some testing. What I found out was than when I write lowercase "load", I'd never make the typo. All uppercase, or just uppercase L, I'd make the typo quite often. My actual (very scientific) testing is probably best described by showing the output: moatmoatmoat MoatMoatMoat loatloatloat LaotLaotLaot loafloafloaf LaofLaofLaof hoathoathoat HoatHoatHoat hoadhoadhoad HoadHoadHoad lortlortlort LrotLrotLrot What i found out was that whenever shift was depressed, typing an uppercase "L" would induce a significant lag if the next character was an "o", compared to the lag of the any other key: High "o" lag: LoLoLoLoLoLo No "a" lag: LaLaLaLaLaLa No lag for neither "o" nor "a": lolololololo lalalalalala By realizing this I regained a slight bit of sanity as I knew I wasn't coming down with a case of Parkinsons. I was actually typing correctly, the lag just interpreted it wrongly. Now, what really bugs me is that I can't fathom how this is occurring. What I'm actually typing, in physical order, is this: L - o - a - d, and yet, the "a" is output before the "o", even though "o" was pressed before "a". So while the keyboard is processing the "Lo" combo, the "a" gets prioritized and is inserted before the "o" is done processing, resulting in Laod instead of Load. And this only happens when typing "Lo", not when typing lowercase "lo". This problem could stem from the keyboard hardware, the receiver hardware or the keyboard software driver. No matter the fault location however, I can't imagine how this could be implemented as anything but a FIFO queue. A general delay, sure, I could live with that, albeit I'd be irritated. But a lag affecting different keys differently, and even resulting in unpredictable outcome - that just doesn't make any sense. I've solved the problem by just switching to a wired keyboard. I just can't shake it off me though; what kind of bug/error/scenario would result in a case like this? Edit: It's been suggested that I stop drinking Red Bull and stick to water instead. While that may actually help solve the issue, I'm really not looking for a solution as such. I'm more interested in an explanation of how this could happen, as I can't imagine any viable technical solution that could result in this behavior.

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• shell script to start multiple Java programs from a directory at boot

  - by zcourts

  I'm not sure if this is the best approach to this, It's my first time doing all of this (including writing shell scripts). OS: Centos My problem: I want to start multiple shell scripts at boot. One of the shell scripts is to start my own services and 3 others are for third party services. The shell script to start my own services will be looking for jar files. I currently have two services (will change), written in Java. All services are named under convention prefix-service-servicename What I've done: I created the following directory structure /home/username/scripts init.sh boot/ boot/startthirdprtyservice1.sh boot/startthirdprtyservice2.sh boot/startthirdprtyservice3.sh boot/startmyservices.sh /home/username/services prefix-lib-libraryname.jar prefix-lib-libraryname.jar prefix-service-servicename.jar prefix-service-servicename.jar prefix-service-servicename.jar In init.sh I have the following: #!/bin/sh #This scripts run all executable scripts in the boot directory at boot #done by adding this script to the file /etc/rc.d/rc.local #nohup #run-parts /home/username/scripts/boot/* #for each file in the boot dir... # ignore the HUP (hangup) signal for s in ./boot/*;do if [ -x $s ]; then echo "Starting $s" nohup $s & fi done echo "Done starting bootup scripts " echo "\n" In the script boot/startmyservices.sh I have #!/bin/sh fnmatch () { case "$2" in $1) return 0 ;; esac ; return 1 ; } ##sub strin to match for SUBSTRING="prefix-service" for s in /home/username/services/*;do if [ -x $s ]; then #match service in the filename , i.e. only services are started if fnmatch "$SUBSTRING" "$s" ; then echo "Starting $s " nohup $s & fi fi done echo "Done starting Services" echo "\n" Finally: Usually you can stick a program in /etc/rc.d/rc.local for it to be run at boot but I don't think this works in this case, or rather I don't know what to put in there I've just learnt how to do this by reading up a bit so I'm not sure its particularly the best thing to do so any advice is appreciated. When I run init.sh nohup.out contains Starting the thirdparty daemon... thirdparty started... .... but nothing from myservices.sh and my Java services aren't running I'm not sure where to start debugging or what could be going wrong. Edit Found some issues and got it to work, used -x instead of -n to check if the string is none zero, needed the sub string check to also be if [[ $s = $SUBSTRING ]] ; then and this last one was just stupid, missing java -jar in front of $s Still unsure of how to get init.sh to run at boot though

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• Clonezilla restore from Samba - no 'restoredisk' option

  - by MT_Head

  I used a CloneZilla LiveCD to back up a couple of Windows machines to a Samba share. Now I'm trying to restore those images, and CloneZilla won't even give me the 'restoredisk' or 'restorepart' options on the menu. I'm guessing that this is because CZ isn't recognizing a valid image... but why? Here's a listing of the folder on the Samba share: -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 319 May 31 03:45 blkdev.list -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 5307 May 31 04:41 clonezilla-img -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 4 May 31 04:31 disk -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 16091 May 31 04:31 Info-dmi.txt -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 11029 May 31 04:31 Info-lshw.txt -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 1502 May 31 04:31 Info-lspci.txt -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 170 May 31 04:31 Info-packages.txt -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 80 May 31 04:41 Info-saved-by-cmd.txt -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 10 May 31 04:31 parts -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 2097152000 May 31 04:06 sda1.ntfs-ptcl-img.gz.aa -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 247361656 May 31 04:08 sda1.ntfs-ptcl-img.gz.ab -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 823182034 May 31 04:31 sda2.ntfs-ptcl-img.gz.aa -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 36 May 31 03:45 sda-chs.sf -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 31744 May 31 03:45 sda-hidden-data-after-mbr -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 512 May 31 03:45 sda-mbr -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 315 May 31 03:45 sda-pt.parted -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 285 May 31 03:45 sda-pt.parted.compact -rwxrwxrwx 1 marc users 259 May 31 03:45 sda-pt.sf (I've been experimenting with various permissions trying to get this to work; that's why they're currently all "rwxrwxrwx"...) I've got my CZ LiveCD stuck in a (different) machine with a 160GB SATA disk that I'm fine with overwriting; although CZ doesn't show a directory listing, it does show that the correct folder is mounted as /home/partimag. But a moment later, after selecting either Beginner or Expert, I'm only presented with the "savedisk", "saveparts", and "exit" options. What am I doing wrong? I am confident that the initial backup was successful; I can post the log if desired, or any other information that might be germane. Edit: I've copied the contents of the folder onto a 16GB USB stick and set THAT as /home/partimag. Still nothing. What the hell is CZ looking for?

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• Adding a Microsoft Exchange 2010 account to my Windows Phone 7.5 mobile (Nokia Lumia 800) without trusted certificate

  - by MAXE

  I have problems in creating an account on my Nokia Lumia 800 (OS version: 7.10.8773.98, of course with Windows Phone 7.1 mounted with all updates) to one of my company's Microsoft Exchange 2010 server, because it cannot provide a trusted certificate...but only when contacting it from outside my network (like https ://mail.(CompanyName).com). Accessing the server from inside my network (pointing directly to the machine name or internal IP address: https ://(MachineName) or https ://10.0.1.200) gives me NO PROBLEM AT ALL! Setting correctly (I guess) all the parameters for the account (accessing from outside my network), the connection (after correctly set my credentials as asked) will not be established. It gives the next error (translated from my language manually): Error of <CompanyName> There is a problem with the certificate of (Server Address). Please contact support or the provider. Last try: X minutes ago Error code: 80072F06 I've tried all possible configurations and parameters (including the check The server requires an encrypted (SSL) connection, of course), but no way. EDITED: As suggested by Oliver Salzburg, I also tried this way without any results. I tried so: I went to my OWA (Outlook Web Access) that gives me the same problem (problems the certificate, it's not trusted) After accepting to continue, I clicked on the Error in Certificate button of the Internet Explorer 9 address bar - Show Certificates - page Details, show: - Copy to file... button - in the exporting wizard: Next - Binary encoding DER X.509 (.cer) (but there was also Base binary 64 X.509 (.cer), no way) - Next - saved to a new file From my Google Mail Account, I sent a mail to myself the certificate as attachment I read the mail from my WP7 phone, saved the attachment and then ran it: answering Yes to Do you wany to install the certificate? of course... Closed any active program and rebooted the phone Re-tried in synchronizing my account....:(...SAME PROBLEM! EDITED 2: Thanks again to Oliver Salzburg, I tried the next solution: I went to the site https://www.testexchangeconnectivity.com/ I selected Exchange ActiveSync option, as suggested I setted all my parameters, as I made for my phone I also setted the option Ignore SSL attendibility (and in another test I didn't) I performed my test This is the complete log (I removed my parameters): Seems the same problem (machine name in the certificate is different from the external Exchange website domain name?)! It is possible to get rid of this annoying (I know by myself who is this server!) problem? Thank you very much.

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• Dual booting Windows 7 & 8.1, using the Windows 8 Startup Options Menu, when Windows 8.1 is already installed and you want to add Windows 7

  - by Josh

  There are many excellent guides out there that explain how to dual-boot Windows 7 & 8. However, they are written for people starting with a Windows 7 installation and add a Windows 8 installation to separate partition. From what I'm reading, following this procedure will result in Windows 8 installing and configuring the Startup Options Menu with an option to boot Windows 7 & 8. However, in my situation I have a Windows 8.1 machine that I want to install Windows 7 on, and enable dual-boot, where I can use the Startup Options Menu to select the OS to boot. I haven't been able to determine how to do this. From everything I've been able to find, it looks like if I install Windows 7, it is going to take over the boot loader process, and I won't have access to the Windows 8 "Startup Options Menu." This answer suggests I boot to VHD, but notes a drawback: You can't do this if the C:\drive is encrypted using ANY encryption shceme. Be that BitLocker or 3rd party. The location of the .VHD file you are booting to must reside on an unencrypted volume. Well, that's a bummer, because that's exactly what I wanted to do--I wanted my Windows 7 partition to be encrypted, and my Windows 8 partition to also be encrypted. The idea being that when OS was booted, it was completely locked out from accessing data on the other OS's partition. At this point, I'm thinking my only option is to install Windows 7, and then re-install Windows 8, which will give me the dual-boot option... am I right? Or is there a way to make this work. I'm thinking that I would need to figure out a process like this: Configure the Windows Startup Options Menu with a "blank" entry for Windows 7, pointing to an empty partition Insert the Windows 7 installation media, install Windows 7, and somehow restrict it to that partition (i.e., prevent it from "taking over" from the Startup Options Menu" Is this possible, and if so, how can I accomplish this? My concern is that if I simply install Windows 7 to a separate partition, Windows 7 will take over the entire boot process and I won't be able to get to my Windows 8 installation any more.

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