Search Results

Search found 39388 results on 1576 pages for 'two way'.

Page 138/1576 | < Previous Page | 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145  | Next Page >

  • How do I split ONE array to two separate arrays based on magnitude size and a threshold?

    - by youhaveaBigego
    I have an array which has BIG numbers and small numbers in it. I got it from after running a log from WireShark. It is the total number of Bytes of TCP traffic. But Wireshark does not discriminate(it would actually try, and hence it will tell you the traffic stats of ALL types of traffic, but since This is how the Array look like : @Array=qw(10912980 10924534 10913356 10910304 10920426 10900658 10911266 10912088 10928972 10914718 10920770 10897774 10934258 10882186 10874126 8531 8217 3876 8147 8019 68157 3432 3350 3338 3280 3280 7845 7869 3072 3002 2828 8397 1328 1280 1240 1194 1193 1192 1194 6440 1148 1218 4236 1161 1100 1102 1148 1172 6305 1010 5437 3534 4623 4669 3617 4234 959 1121 1121 1075 3122 3076 1020 3030 628 2938 2938 1611 1611 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 1541 583 370 178) When you look at these this array carefully, one thing is obvious to the human eye. There are really BIG numbers and small numbers. (Basically what I am saying is, there is the 1% class and low income class, no middle class). I want to split the array to two different arrays. That would require me to set a threshold. Array 1 should be ONLY the BIG numbers (10924534-10874126), and array 2 should be the smaller numbers (68157-178). Btw, the array is not sorted. User will NOT input the threshold, and hence should be determined smartly.

    Read the article

  • How to calculate how many business days are between two dates?

    - by mystify
    A friend asked me yesterday if this was possible on the iPhone. I took a look at NSCalendar and all the related Classes but couldn't find a solution to this. So I thought about this approach: If I had two dates dateA and dateB, I would have to make a for-loop and iterate over every single day in this interval. Then I would count the business days monday until friday, and return the result. Then I went to bed, and I woke up with this probably much better idea: I need to know what day is it when I start. Lets say it's thursday. And then I must know how many days are in that interval. The last part is not hard to figure out. For the first part, I have no clue yet, but I believe there's an day of week value in NSCalendar. With that, I could do some simple math to calculate the amount of business days. Did anyone do that already on the iPhone?

    Read the article

  • How can I use two or more COUNT()s in one SELECT statament?

    - by jjj
    i develop this code: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID), NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null) and (month = 1 or month = 2 or month = 3) GROUP BY NewEmployee.EmployeeID, EmployeeName order by EmployeeID from my previous two questions selecting null stuff and counting issue...that amazing code is working beautifully fine..but now i need to select more than one count... ...searched (google) .... found alias...tried: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as attenddays, COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as empabsent , NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON empabsent =NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) , attenddays = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) GROUP BY NewEmployee.EmployeeID, EmployeeName order by EmployeeID Incorrect syntax near '='. second try: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as attenddays, COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) as absentdays, NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON attenddays(NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3)) , absentdays(NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and NewTimeAttendance.TotalTime is null and (NewTimeAttendance.note = '' or NewTimeAttendance.note is null ) and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3)) GROUP BY NewEmployee.EmployeeID, EmployeeName order by EmployeeID Incorrect syntax near '='. not very good ideas... so ...help thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to sync (two way) tables betwen a mysql server and a local MS Access?

    - by Kailen
    Help me figure out a solution to a (not so unique) problem. My research group has gps devices attached to migratory animals. Every once in a while, a research tech will be within range of an animal and will get the chance to download all the logged points. Each individual spits out a single dbf and new locations are just appended to the end (so the file is just cumulative). These data need to be shared among a research group. Everyone else (besides me) wants to use access, so they can make small edits and prefer that interface. They do not like using MySQL. The solution I came up with is: a) The person who downloads the file goes to a web page, enters animal ID into a form, chooses .dbf file and uploads to a mysql database on the server (I still have to write php code to read the dbf and write sql insert statements from it). b) Everyone syncs from their local access database to the server. (This is natively possible from access but very clunky). Is there a tool (preferably open source), that can compare a access table to mysql table and sync the two (both ways)? Alternatively, does anyone have a more elegant solution? The ultimate goal is to allow everyone to have access to the most current data on their computers using their preferred database app.

    Read the article

  • Is there any trick to match two XML by one XSLT?

    - by brain_pusher
    Is there any trick to match two XML by one XSLT? I mean the way I can apply XSLT to a parameter passed. For example (I missed declarations to be short). XML1: XML to be transformed: <myData> <Collection> </Collection> </myData> XSLT need to be applied to the previous XML: <xsl:param name='items' /> <xsl:template match='Collection'> <!-- some transformation here --> </xsl:template> XML2: XML data passed as the parameter 'items': <newData> <Item>1</Item> <Item>2</Item> <Item>3</Item> </newData> And I need to create a set of nodes in the 'Collection' node in XML1 for each 'Item' element in XML2 using XSLT. And I do not know what XML2 contains exactly at design time. It is generated at runtime, so I can't place it inside XSLT, I know only its schema.

    Read the article

  • How to save data of two for loops in one array?

    - by Homer_Simpson
    I have two for loops and I wanna save that data in one array. The first for loop will create 5 rectangles in the array. After that, the second for loop will create 5 rectangles and add them to the array. But something doesn't work. I get that "Index was outside the bounds of the array" error message in the last line of the code and I don't know what to change. int framewidth = texture.Width / sourceRects.Length; int frameheight = texture.Height; private void vorrück(Rectangle[] sourceRects, int framewidth, int frameheight) { int doublelenght = sourceRects.Length * 2; for (int i = 0; i < sourceRects.Length; i++) sourceRects[i] = new Rectangle(i * framewidth, 0, framewidth, frameheight); for (int normallenght = sourceRects.Length; normallenght < doublelenght; normallenght++) sourceRects[normallenght] = new Rectangle((sourceRects.Length - 1 - normallenght) * framewidth, 0, framewidth, frameheight); }

    Read the article

  • Implement two functions with the same name but different, non-covariant return types due to multiple abstract base classes

    - by user1508167
    If I have two abstract classes defining a pure virtual function with the same name, but different, non-covariant return types, how can I derive from these and define an implementation for both their functions? #include <iostream> class ITestA { public: virtual ~ITestA() {}; virtual float test() =0; }; class ITestB { public: virtual ~ITestB() {}; virtual bool test() =0; }; class C : public ITestA, public ITestB { public: /* Somehow implement ITestA::test and ITestB::test */ }; int main() { ITestA *a = new C(); std::cout << a->test() << std::endl; // should print a float, like "3.14" ITestB *b = dynamic_cast<ITestB *>(a); if (b) { std::cout << b->test() << std::endl; // should print "1" or "0" } delete(a); return 0; } As long as I don't call C::test() directly there's nothing ambiguous, so I think that it should work somehow and I guess I just didn't find the right notation yet. Or is this impossible, if so: Why?

    Read the article

  • How do I add two lists in Linq so addedList[x] = listOne[x] + listTwo[x]?

    - by Audie
    I want to add two lists of a numeric type such that addedList[x] = listOne[x] + listTwo[x] The output of the list needs to be a Generic.IEnumerable that I can use in future linq queries. While I was able to do it using the code below, I can't help but feel like there must be a better way. Any ideas? List<int> firstList = new List<int>(new int[] { 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 7, 2, 5, 7, 8, 9, 0 }); List<int> secondList = new List<int>(new int[] { 4, 6, 8, 3, 1, 5, 9, 3, 0 }); int findex = 0; ILookup<int, int> flookup = firstList.ToLookup(f => { int i = findex; findex++; return i; }, p => p); var listsAdded = from grp in flookup select grp.First() + secondList.ElementAtOrDefault(grp.Key); foreach (int i in listsAdded) Console.WriteLine(i);

    Read the article

  • jQuery: .toggle() doesnt work properly on two different elements.

    - by Marius
    Hello there, This is my markup: <table class="col1table" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td><a class="tips_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_tips_venn.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="facebook_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_facebook.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="twitter_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_twitter.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="myspace_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_myspace.png" /></a></td> </tr> <tr> <td><a class="tips_trigger" href="#">TIPS EN VENN</a></td> <td><a class="facebook_trigger" href="#">FACEBOOK</a></td> <td><a class="twitter_trigger" href="#">TWITTER</a></td> <td><a class="myspace_trigger" href="#">MYSPACE</a></td> </tr> </table> This is the mark-up for a tool-tip: <div id="message_tips" class="toolTip">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet.<br /><br /><br /><br /><br /><br />Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet.</div> This is my code to hide/unhide tooltip for .tips_trigger (the tooltip has id: "#message_tips"). Notice that there is one .tips_trigger on each row in the table. And there will be one tooltip per "..._trigger-class". $('.tips_trigger').toggle(function(event){ event.preventDefault(); $('#message_tips').css('display', 'block'); }, function(event){ $('#message_tips').css('display', 'none'); }); I have two problems: 1. Each of the tips_trigger-classes seems to work the script independatly. What I mean by that is if I click tips_trigger in the first row, it displays the tool-tip. If i click tips_trigger in the second row straight after, it displays the tool-tip again. I have to click the exact same tips_trigger-class istance twice for it to hide it. How can I overcome this problem? 2. Each of the "..._trigger"-classes will have a tool-tip, not just ".tips_trigger". Is there a way to alter my current script so that it works for multiple unhides/hides instead of writing one script per class? Kind regards, Marius

    Read the article

  • What's the standard algorithm for syncing two lists of objects?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm pretty sure this must be in some kind of text book (or more likely in all of them) but I seem to be using the wrong keywords to search for it... :( A common task I'm facing while programming is that I am dealing with lists of objects from different sources which I need to keep in sync somehow. Typically there's some sort of "master list" e.g. returned by some external API and then a list of objects I create myself each of which corresponds to an object in the master list. Sometimes the nature of the external API will not allow me to do a live sync: For instance the external list might not implement notifications about items being added or removed or it might notify me but not give me a reference to the actual item that was added or removed. Furthermore, refreshing the external list might return a completely new set of instances even though they still represent the same information so simply storing references to the external objects might also not always be feasible. Another characteristic of the problem is that both lists cannot be sorted in any meaningful way. You should also assume that initializing new objects in the "slave list" is expensive, i.e. simply clearing and rebuilding it from scratch is not an option. So how would I typically tackle this? What's the name of the algorithm I should google for? In the past I have implemented this in various ways (see below for an example) but it always felt like there should be a cleaner and more efficient way. Here's an example approach: Iterate over the master list Look up each item in the "slave list" Add items that do not yet exist Somehow keep track of items that already exist in both lists (e.g. by tagging them or keeping yet another list) When done iterate once more over the slave list Remove all objects that have not been tagged (see 4.) Update Thanks for all your responses so far! I will need some time to look at the links. Maybe one more thing worthy of note: In many of the situations where I needed this the implementation of the "master list" is completely hidden from me. In the most extreme cases the only access I might have to the master list might be a COM-interface that exposes nothing but GetFirst-, GetNext-style methods. I'm mentioning this because of the suggestions to either sort the list or to subclass it both of which is unfortunately not practical in these cases unless I copy the elements into a list of my own and I don't think that would be very efficient. I also might not have made it clear enough that the elements in the two lists are of different types, i.e. not assignment-compatible: Especially, the elements in the master list might be available as interface references only.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

    Read the article

  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to get the combine two xml into one xml in Linux.

    - by Tattat
    XML one is something like that: <dict> <key>2</key> <array> <string>A</string> <string>B</string> </array> <key>3</key> <array> <string>C</string> <string>D</string> <string>E</string> </array> </dict> XML Two is something like that: <dict> <key>A</key> <array> <string>A1</string> <false/> <false/> <array> <string>Apple</string> <string>This is an apple</string> </array> <array> <string>Apple Pie</string> <string>I love Apple Pie.</string> </array> </array> <key>B</key> <array> <string>B7</string> <false/> <false/> <array> <string>Boy</string> <string>I am a boy.</string> </array> </array> </dict> I want to convert to this: <dict> <key>2</key> <array> <string>A, Apple, Apple Pie</string> <string>B, Boy</string> </array> ... </dict>

    Read the article

  • Searching for duplicate records within a text file where the duplicate is determined by only two fie

    - by plg
    First, Python Newbie; be patient/kind. Next, once a month I receive a large text file (think 7 Million records) to test for duplicate values. This is catalog information. I get 7 fields, but the two I'm interested in are a supplier code and a full orderable part number. To determine if the record is dupliacted, I compress all special characters from the part number (except . and #) and create a compressed part number. The test for duplicates becomes the supplier code and compressed part number combination. This part is fairly straight forward. Currently, I am just copying the original file with 2 new columns (compressed part and duplicate indicator). If the part is a duplicate, I put a "YES" in the last field. Now that this is done, I want to be able to go back (or better yet, at the same time) to get the previous record where there was a supplier code/compressed part number match. So far, my code looks like this: Compress Full Part to a Compressed Part and Check for Duplicates on Supplier Code and Compressed Part combination import sys import re import time ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ start=time.time() try: file1 = open("C:\Accounting\May Accounting\May.txt", "r") except IOError: print sys.stderr, "Cannot Open Read File" sys.exit(1) try: file2 = open(file1.name[0:len(file1.name)-4] + "_" + "COMPRESSPN.txt", "a") except IOError: print sys.stderr, "Cannot Open Write File" sys.exit(1) hdrList="CIGSUPPLIER|FULL_PART|PART_STATUS|ALIAS_FLAG|ACQUISITION_FLAG|COMPRESSED_PART|DUPLICATE_INDICATOR" file2.write(hdrList+chr(10)) lines_seen=set() affirm="YES" records = file1.readlines() for record in records: fields = record.split(chr(124)) if fields[0]=="CIGSupplier": continue #If incoming file has a header line, skip it file2.write(fields[0]+"|"), #Supplier Code file2.write(fields[1]+"|"), #Full_Part file2.write(fields[2]+"|"), #Part Status file2.write(fields[3]+"|"), #Alias Flag file2.write(re.sub("[$\r\n]", "", fields[4])+"|"), #Acquisition Flag file2.write(re.sub("[^0-9a-zA-Z.#]", "", fields[1])+"|"), #Compressed_Part dupechk=fields[0]+"|"+re.sub("[^0-9a-zA-Z.#]", "", fields[1]) if dupechk not in lines_seen: file2.write(chr(10)) lines_seen.add(dupechk) else: file2.write(affirm+chr(10)) print "it took", time.time() - start, "seconds." ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ file2.close() file1.close() It runs in less than 6 minutes, so I am happy with this part, even if it is not elegant. Right now, when I get my results, I import the results into Access and do a self join to locate the duplicates. Loading/querying/exporting results in Access a file this size takes around an hour, so I would like to be able to export the matched duplicates to another text file or an Excel file. Confusing enough? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I link two Java serialised objects back together?

    - by Kidburla
    Sometimes (quite a lot, actually) we get a situation in Java where two objects are pointing to the same thing. Now if we serialise these separately it is quite appropriate that the serialised forms have separate copies of the object as it should be possible to open one without the other. However if we now deserialise them both, we find that they are still separated. Is there any way to link them back together? Example follows. public class Example { private static class ContainerClass implements java.io.Serializable { private ReferencedClass obj; public ReferencedClass get() { return obj; } public void set(ReferencedClass obj) { this.obj = obj; } } private static class ReferencedClass implements java.io.Serializable { private int i = 0; public int get() { return i; } public void set(int i) { this.i = i; } } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { //Initialise the classes ContainerClass test1 = new ContainerClass(); ContainerClass test2 = new ContainerClass(); ReferencedClass ref = new ReferencedClass(); //Make both container class point to the same reference test1.set(ref); test2.set(ref); //This does what we expect: setting the integer in one (way of accessing the) referenced class sets it in the other one test1.get().set(1234); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test2.get().get())); //Now serialise the container classes java.io.ObjectOutputStream os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); os.writeObject(test1); os.close(); os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); os.writeObject(test2); os.close(); //And deserialise them java.io.ObjectInputStream is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); ContainerClass test3 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); ContainerClass test4 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); //We expect the same thing as before, and would expect a result of 4321, but this doesn't happen as the referenced objects are now separate instances test3.get().set(4321); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test4.get().get())); } }

    Read the article

  • php script gets two ajax requests, only returns one?

    - by Dan.StackOverflow
    I'll start from the beginning. I'm building a wordpress plugin that does double duty, in that it can be inserted in to a post via a shortcode, or added as a sidebar widget. All it does is output some js to make jquery.post requests to a local php file. The local php file makes a request to a webservice for some data. (I had to do it this way instead of directly querying the web service with jquery.ajax because the url contains a license key that would be public if put in the js). Anyway, When I am viewing a page in the wordpress blog that has both the sidebar widget and the plugin output via shortcode only one of the requests work. I mean it works in that it gets a response back from the php script. Once the page is loaded they both work normally when manually told to. Webpage view - send 2 post requests to my php script - both elements should be filed in, but only one is. My php script is just: <?php if(isset($_POST["zip"])) { // build a curl object, execute the request, // and basically just echo what the curl request returns. } ?> Pretty basic. here is some js some people wanted to see: function widget_getActivities( zip ){ jQuery("#widget_active_list").text(""); jQuery.post("http://localhost/wordpress/wp-content/ActiveAjax.php", { zip: zip}, function(text) { jQuery(text).find("asset").each(function(j, aval){ var html = ""; html += "<a href='" + jQuery(aval).find("trackback").text() + "' target='new'> " + jQuery(aval).find("assetName").text() + "</a><b> at </b>"; jQuery("location", aval).each(function(i, val){ html += jQuery("locationName", val).text() + " <b> on </b>"; }); jQuery("date", aval).each(function(){ html += jQuery("startDate", aval).text(); <!--jQuery("#widget_active_list").append("<div id='ActivityEntry'>" + html + " </div>");--> jQuery("#widget_active_list") .append(jQuery("<div>") .addClass("widget_ActivityEntry") .html(html) .bind("mouseenter", function(){ jQuery(this).animate({ fontSize: "20px", lineHeight: "1.2em" }, 50); }) .bind("mouseleave", function(){ jQuery(this).animate({ fontSize: "10px", lineHeight: "1.2em" }, 50); }) ); }); }); }); } Now imagine there is another function identical to this one except everything that is prepended with 'widget_' isn't prepended. These two functions get called separately via: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ w_zip = jQuery("#widget_zip").val(); widget_getActivities( w_zip ); jQuery("#widget_updateZipLink").click(function() { //start function when any update link is clicked widget_c_zip = jQuery("#widget_zip").val(); if (undefined == widget_c_zip || widget_c_zip == "" || widget_c_zip.length != 5) jQuery("#widget_zipError").text("Bad zip code"); else widget_getActivities( widget_c_zip ); }); }) I can see in my apache logs that both requests are being made. I'm guessing it is some sort of race condition but that doesn't make ANY sense. I'm new to all this, any ideas? EDIT: I've come up with a sub-optimal solution. I have my widget detect if the plugin is also being used on the page, and if so it waits for 3 seconds before performing the request. But I have a feeling this same thing is going to happen if multiple clients perform a page request at the same time that triggers one of the requests to my php script, because I believe the problem is in the php script, which is scary.

    Read the article

  • How to merge two xml files in classic asp?

    - by Alex
    hi i using classic asp in my project i wand to merge two xml's together? how i merge xml's togethe? Below is my sample code XML 1 <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <CATALOG> <CD> <TITLE>1</TITLE> <ARTIST>Bob Dylan</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>USA</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>Columbia</COMPANY> <PRICE>10.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1985</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>2</TITLE> <ARTIST>Bonnie Tyler</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>UK</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>CBS Records</COMPANY> <PRICE>9.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1988</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>3</TITLE> <ARTIST>Dolly Parton</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>USA</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>RCA</COMPANY> <PRICE>9.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1982</YEAR> </CD> </CATALOG> XML2 <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> <CATALOG> <CD> <TITLE>4</TITLE> <ARTIST>Gary Moore</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>UK</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>Virgin records</COMPANY> <PRICE>10.20</PRICE> <YEAR>1990</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>5</TITLE> <ARTIST>Eros Ramazzotti</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>EU</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>BMG</COMPANY> <PRICE>9.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1997</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>6</TITLE> <ARTIST>Bee Gees</ARTIST> <COUNTRY>UK</COUNTRY> <COMPANY>Polydor</COMPANY> <PRICE>10.90</PRICE> <YEAR>1998</YEAR> </CD> </CATALOG> This is asp code, now i use <% Dim doc1 'As MSXML2.DOMDocument30 Dim doc2 'As MSXML2.DOMDocument30 Dim doc2Node 'As MSXML2.IXMLDOMNode Set doc1 = createobject("MSXML2.DOMDocument.3.0") Set doc2 = createobject("MSXML2.DOMDocument.3.0") doc1.Load "01.xml" doc2.Load "02.xml" For Each doc2Node In doc2.documentElement.childNodes doc1.documentElement.appendChild doc2Node Next response.write doc1.xml %> Now i getting an error Microsoft VBScript runtime error '800a01a8' Object required: 'documentElement'

    Read the article

  • How to select chosen columns from two different entities into one DTO using NHibernate?

    - by Pawel Krakowiak
    I have two classes (just recreating the problem): public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public virtual IList<OrgUnitMembership> OrgUnitMemberships { get; set; } } public class OrgUnitMembership { public virtual int UserId { get; set; } public virtual int OrgUnitId { get; set; } public virtual DateTime JoinDate { get; set; } public virtual DateTime LeaveDate { get; set; } } There's a Fluent NHibernate map for both, of course: public class UserMapping : ClassMap<User> { public UserMapping() { Table("Users"); Id(e => e.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(e => e.FirstName); Map(e => e.LastName); HasMany(x => x.OrgUnitMemberships) .KeyColumn(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(p => p.UserId))).ReadOnly().Inverse(); } } public class OrgUnitMembershipMapping : ClassMap<OrgUnitMembership> { public OrgUnitMembershipMapping() { Table("OrgUnitMembership"); CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x=>x.UserId) .KeyProperty(x=>x.OrgUnitId); Map(x => x.JoinDate); Map(x => x.LeaveDate); References(oum => oum.OrgUnit) .Column(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(oum => oum.OrgUnitId)).ReadOnly(); References(oum => oum.User) .Column(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(oum => oum.UserId)).ReadOnly(); } } What I want to do is to retrieve some users based on criteria, but I would like to combine all columns from the Users table with some columns from the OrgUnitMemberships table, analogous to a SQL query: select u.*, m.JoinDate, m.LeaveDate from Users u inner join OrgUnitMemberships m on u.Id = m.UserId where m.OrgUnitId = :ouid I am totally lost, I tried many different options. Using a plain SQL query almost works, but because there are some nullable enums in the User class AliasToBean fails to transform, otherwise wrapping a SQL query would work like this: return Session .CreateSQLQuery(sql) .SetParameter("ouid", orgUnitId) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean<UserDTO>()) .List<UserDTO>() I tried the code below as a test (a few different variants), but I'm not sure what I'm doing. It works partially, I get instances of UserDTO back, the properties coming from OrgUnitMembership (dates) are filled, but all properties from User are null: User user = null; OrgUnitMembership membership = null; UserDTO dto = null; var users = Session.QueryOver(() => user) .SelectList(list => list .Select(() => user.Id) .Select(() => user.FirstName) .Select(() => user.LastName)) .JoinAlias(u => u.OrgUnitMemberships, () => membership) //.JoinQueryOver<OrgUnitMembership>(u => u.OrgUnitMemberships) .SelectList(list => list .Select(() => membership.JoinDate).WithAlias(() => dto.JoinDate) .Select(() => membership.LeaveDate).WithAlias(() => dto.LeaveDate)) .TransformUsing(Transformers.AliasToBean<UserDTO>()) .List<UserDTO>();

    Read the article

  • Why does one of two identical Javascripts work in Firefox?

    - by Gigpacknaxe
    Hi, I have two image swap functions and one works in Firefox and the other does not. The swap functions are identical and both work fine in IE. Firefox does not even recognize the images as hyperlinks. I am very confused and I hope some one can shed some light on this for me. Thank you very much in advance for any and all help. FYI: the working script swaps by onClick via DIV elements and the non-working script swaps onMouseOver/Out via "a" elements. Remember both of these work just fine in IE. Joshua Working Javascript in FF: <script type="text/javascript"> var aryImages = new Array(); aryImages[1] = "/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_profile.jpg"; aryImages[2] = "/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_tread.jpg"; aryImages[3] = "/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_side.jpg"; for (i=0; i < aryImages.length; i++) { var preload = new Image(); preload.src = aryImages[i]; } function swap(imgIndex, imgTarget) { document[imgTarget].src = aryImages[imgIndex]; } <div id="image-container"> <div style="text-align: right">Click small images below to view larger.</div> <div class="thumb-box" onclick="swap(1, 'imgColor')"><img src="/tires/images/thumbs/mich_prim_mxv4_profile_thumb.jpg" width="75" height="75" /></div> <div class="thumb-box" onclick="swap(2, 'imgColor')"><img src="/tires/images/thumbs/mich_prim_mxv4_tread_thumb.jpg" width="75" height="75" /></div> <div class="thumb-box" onclick="swap(3, 'imgColor')"><img src="/tires/images/thumbs/mich_prim_mxv4_side_thumb.jpg" width="75" height="75" /></div> <div><img alt="" name="imgColor" src="/tires/images/mich_prim_mxv4_profile.jpg" /></div> <div><a href="mich-prim-102-large.php"><img src="/tires/images/super_view.jpg" border="0" /></a></div> Not Working in FF: <script type="text/javascript"> var aryImages = new Array(); aryImages[1] = "/images/home-on.jpg"; aryImages[2] = "/images/home-off.jpg"; aryImages[3] = "/images/services-on.jpg"; aryImages[4] = "/images/services-off.jpg"; aryImages[5] = "/images/contact_us-on.jpg"; aryImages[6] = "/images/contact_us-off.jpg"; aryImages[7] = "/images/about_us-on.jpg"; aryImages[8] = "/images/about_us-off.jpg"; aryImages[9] = "/images/career-on.jpg"; aryImages[10] = "/images/career-off.jpg"; for (i=0; i < aryImages.length; i++) { var preload = new Image(); preload.src = aryImages[i]; } function swap(imgIndex, imgTarget) { document[imgTarget].src = aryImages[imgIndex]; } <td> <a href="home.php" onMouseOver="swap(1, 'home')" onMouseOut="swap(2, 'home')"><img name="home" src="/images/home-off.jpg" alt="Home Button" border="0px" /></a> </td>

    Read the article

  • 32 bit unsigned int php

    - by Zeta Two
    Hello! Does anyone know of a class/library/etc. that can simulate 32 bit unsigned integers on a 32 bit platform in PHP? I'm porting a C lib into PHP and it uses a lot of integers that are greater than the maximum for 32 bit signed int.

    Read the article

  • How do I drag and drop between two listboxes in XUL?

    - by pc1oad1etter
    I am trying to implement drag and drop between two listboxes. I have a few problems 1) I am not detecting any drag events of any kind from the source list box/ I do not seem to be able to drag from it 2) I can drag from my desktop to the target listbox and I am able to detect 'dragenter' 'dragover' and 'dragexit' events. I am noticing that the event parameter is undefined in my 'dragenter' callback - is this a problem? 3) I cannot figure out how to complete the drag and drop operation. From https://developer.mozilla.org/En/DragDrop/Drag_Operations#Performing_... "If the mouse was released over an element that is a valid drop target, that is, one that cancelled the last dragenter or dragover event, then the drop will be successful, and a drop event will fire at the target. Otherwise, the drag operation is cancelled and no drop event is fired." This seems to be referring to a 'drop' event, though there is not one listed at https://developer.mozilla.org/en/XUL/Events . I can't seem to detect the end of the drag in order to call one of the example 'doDrop()' functions that I find on MDC. My example, so far: http://pastebin.mozilla.org/713676 <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/ there.is.only.xul" onload="initialize();"> <vbox> <hbox> <vbox> <description>List1</description> <listbox id="source" draggable="true"> <listitem label="1"/> <listitem label="3"/> <listitem label="4"/> <listitem label="5"/> </listbox> </vbox> <vbox> <description>List2</description> <listbox id="target" ondragenter="onDragEnter();"> <listitem label="2"/> </listbox> </vbox> </hbox> </vbox> <script type="application/x-javascript"> <![CDATA[ function initialize(){ jsdump('adding events'); var origin = document.getElementById("source"); origin.addEventListener("drag", onDrag, false); origin.addEventListener("dragdrop", onDragDrop, false); origin.addEventListener("dragend", onDragEnd, false); origin.addEventListener("dragstart", onDragStart, false); var target = document.getElementById("target"); target.addEventListener("dragenter", onDragEnter, false); target.addEventListener("dragover", onDragOver, false); target.addEventListener("dragexit", onDragExit, false); target.addEventListener("drop", onDrop, false); target.addEventListener("drag", onDrag, false); target.addEventListener("dragdrop", onDragDrop, false); } function onDrag(){ jsdump('onDrag'); } function onDragDrop(){ jsdump('onDragDrop'); } function onDragStart(){ jsdump('onDragStart'); } function onDragEnd(){ jsdump('onDragEnd'); } function onDragEnter(event){ //debugger; if(event){ jsdump('onDragEnter event.preventDefault()'); event.preventDefault(); }else{ jsdump("event undefined in onDragEnter"); } } function onDragExit(){ jsdump('onDragExit'); } function onDragOver(event){ //debugger; if(event){ //jsdump('onDragOver event.preventDefault()'); event.preventDefault(); }else{ jsdump("event undefined in onDragOver"); } } function onDrop(event){ jsdump('onDrop'); var data = event.dataTransfer.getData("text/plain"); event.target.textContent = data; event.preventDefault(); } function jsdump(str) { Components.classes['[email protected]/consoleservice;1'] .getService(Components.interfaces.nsIConsoleService) .logStringMessage(str); } ]]> </script> </window>

    Read the article

  • When building a web application project, TFS 2008 builds two separate projects in _PublishedFolder.

    - by Steve Johnson
    I am trying to perform build automation on one of my web application projects built using VS 2008. The _PublishedWebSites contains two folders: Web and Deploy. I want TFS 2008 to generate only the deploy folder and not the web folder. Here is my TFSBuild.proj file: <Project ToolsVersion="3.5" DefaultTargets="Compile" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Import Project="$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\Microsoft\VisualStudio\TeamBuild\Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.targets" /> <Import Project="$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v9.0\Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets" /> <ItemGroup> <SolutionToBuild Include="$(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/MySoftware.sln"> <Targets></Targets> <Properties></Properties> </SolutionToBuild> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <ConfigurationToBuild Include="Release|AnyCPU"> <FlavorToBuild>Release</FlavorToBuild> <PlatformToBuild>Any CPU</PlatformToBuild> </ConfigurationToBuild> </ItemGroup> <!--<ItemGroup> <SolutionToBuild Include="$(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/MySoftware.sln"> <Targets></Targets> <Properties></Properties> </SolutionToBuild> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <ConfigurationToBuild Include="Release|x64"> <FlavorToBuild>Release</FlavorToBuild> <PlatformToBuild>x64</PlatformToBuild> </ConfigurationToBuild> </ItemGroup>--> <ItemGroup> <AdditionalReferencePath Include="C:\3PR" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="GetCopyToOutputDirectoryItems" Outputs="@(AllItemsFullPathWithTargetPath)" DependsOnTargets="AssignTargetPaths;_SplitProjectReferencesByFileExistence"> <!-- Get items from child projects first. --> <MSBuild Projects="@(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent)" Targets="GetCopyToOutputDirectoryItems" Properties="%(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent.SetConfiguration); %(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent.SetPlatform)" Condition="'@(_MSBuildProjectReferenceExistent)'!=''"> <Output TaskParameter="TargetOutputs" ItemName="_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPathNotFiltered"/> </MSBuild> <!-- Remove duplicates. --> <RemoveDuplicates Inputs="@(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPathNotFiltered)"> <Output TaskParameter="Filtered" ItemName="_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath"/> </RemoveDuplicates> <!-- Target outputs must be full paths because they will be consumed by a different project. --> <CreateItem Include="@(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath->'%(FullPath)')" Exclude= "$(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/Web/Bin*.pdb; *.refresh; *.vshost.exe; *.manifest; *.compiled; $(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/Web/Auth/MySoftware.dll; $(BuildProjectFolderPath)/../../Development/Main/Web/BinApp_Web_*.dll;" Condition="'%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='Always' or '%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='PreserveNewest'" > <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="AllItemsFullPathWithTargetPath"/> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="_SourceItemsToCopyToOutputDirectoryAlways" Condition="'%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='Always'"/> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="_SourceItemsToCopyToOutputDirectory" Condition="'%(_AllChildProjectItemsWithTargetPath.CopyToOutputDirectory)'=='PreserveNewest'"/> </CreateItem> </Target> <!-- To modify your build process, add your task inside one of the targets below and uncomment it. Other similar extension points exist, see Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets. <Target Name="BeforeBuild"> </Target> <Target Name="BeforeMerge"> </Target> <Target Name="AfterMerge"> </Target> <Target Name="AfterBuild"> </Target> --> </Project> I want to build everything that the builtin Deploy project is doing for me. But I don't want the generated web project as it contains App_Web_xxxx.dll assemblies instead of a single compiled assembly. How can I do this?

    Read the article

  • Refer to te current directory in a shell script

    - by One Two Three
    How do I refer to the current directory in a shell script So I have this script which calls another script in the same directory #! /bin/sh #Call the other script ./foo.sh # do something ... For this I got ./foo.sh: No such file or directory So I changed it to: #! /bin/sh #Call the other script foo.sh # do something ... But this would call the foo script which is, by default, in the PATH. This is not what I want. So the question is, what's the syntax of doing './` in a shell script?

    Read the article

  • What is the preferred sql server column definition to use for a LINQ to SQL Version property?

    - by Mike Two
    We are using the IsVersion property on the ColumnAttribute on a property in a LINQ to SQL class for optimistic concurrency checks. What should the column definition be in the database? Currently we are using version_number int NOT NULL IDENTITY (1, 1) Do we need Identity? Can we get LINQ to SQL to update the version number for us? The only issue with Identity is that every row has a different number. We'd like to see the number increment by 1 when the row is updated.

    Read the article

  • lighten background color on button click per binding

    - by one of two
    I want to lighten a buttons background on click. So I did the following: <converter:ColorLightConverter x:Key="colorLightConverter" /> ... <Style BasedOn="{StaticResource default}" TargetType="{x:Type controls:Button}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type controls:Button}"> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <SolidColorBrush Color="{Binding Path=Background.Color, RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Converter={StaticResource colorLightConverter}}" /> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Border Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> ... </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> The converter: class ColorLightConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { Color color = (Color)value; System.Drawing.Color lightColor = ControlPaint.Light(System.Drawing.Color.FromArgb(color.A, color.R, color.G, color.B)); return Color.FromArgb(lightColor.A, lightColor.R, lightColor.G, lightColor.B); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } But the converter isn't called when I click the button. I think there is anything wrong with the binding, but I can't see the error... Can you help me? Maybe I'm completely wrong. What I basically want to do: When clicking the button, take the current background color and lighten it. Not more...

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145  | Next Page >