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  • To OpenID or not to OpenID? Is it worth it?

    - by Eloff
    Does OpenID improve the user experience? Edit Not to detract from the other comments, but I got one really good reply below that outlined 3 advantages of OpenID in a rational bottom line kind of way. I've also heard some whisperings in other comments that you can get access to some details on the user through OpenID (name? email? what?) and that using that it might even be able to simplify the registration process by not needing to gather as much information. Things that definitely need to be gathered in a checkout process: Full name Email (I'm pretty sure I'll have to ask for these myself) Billing address Shipping address Credit card info There may be a few other things that are interesting from a marketing point of view, but I wouldn't ask the user to manually enter anything not absolutely required during the checkout process. So what's possible in this regard? /Edit (You may have noticed stackoverflow uses OpenID) It seems to me it is easier and faster for the user to simply enter a username and password in a signup form they have to go through anyway. I mean you don't avoid entering a username and password either with OpenID. But you avoid the confusion of choosing a OpenID provider, and the trip out to and back from and external site. With Microsoft making Live ID an OpenID provider (More Info), bringing on several hundred million additional accounts to those provided by Google, Yahoo, and others, this question is more important than ever. I have to require new customers to sign up during the checkout process, and it is absolutely critical that the experience be as easy and smooth as possible, every little bit harder it becomes translates into lost sales. No geek factor outweighs cold hard cash at the end of the day :) OpenID seems like a nice idea, but the implementation is of questionable value. What are the advantages of OpenID and is it really worth it in my scenario described above?

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  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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  • JAXB Annotated class - setting of a variable which is not an element

    - by sswdeveloper
    I have a JAXB annotated class say @XmlRootElement(namespace = "http://www.abc.com/customer") Class Customer{ @XmlElement(namespace = "http://www.abc.com/customer") private String Name; @XmlElement(namespace = "http://www.abc.com/customer") private String Address; @XmlTransient private HashSet set = new HashSet(); public String getName(){ return Name; } public void setName(String name){ this.Name = name; set.add("Name"); } public String getAddress(){ return Address; } public void setAddress(String address){ this.Address = address; set.add("Address"); } public void getSet(){ return set; } I have a XML of the form <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <Customer xmlns="http://www.abc.com/customer" > <Name>Ralph</Name> <Address>Newton Street</Address> </Customer> I use JAXB unmarshalling to get the object representation of the XML input. The values for Name and Address are set correctly. However the value of set gets lost(since it is @XMLTransient it gets ignored) Is there any way of ensuring that it is still set in the object which has been unmarshalled? Some other annotation which I can use?

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  • Android XML Preference issue. Can't make it persistent

    - by Budius
    I have a very simple activity just to show the preference fragment: public class PreferencesActivity extends Activity { Fragment frag = null; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); FragmentTransaction ft = getFragmentManager().beginTransaction(); if (frag == null) { // If not, instantiate and add it to the activity frag = new PrefsFragment(); ft.add(android.R.id.content, frag, frag.getClass().getName()); } else { // If it exists, simply attach it in order to show it ft.attach(frag); } ft.commit(); } private static class PrefsFragment extends PreferenceFragment { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.preferences); } } } and preferences.xml with persistent to true: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <PreferenceScreen xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:enabled="true" android:persistent="true" android:title="@string/settings" > <EditTextPreference android:dialogTitle="@string/dialog_ip" android:negativeButtonText="@android:string/cancel" android:persistent="true" android:positiveButtonText="@android:string/ok" android:title="@string/ip" /> </PreferenceScreen> if I open the EditTextPreference, write something, close the dialog and open it again. The value is still there. But that's it... if I click the Back button, and enter the again on the preferences screen, I already lost what was written. If you exit the application also doesn't save. Am I missing something here? Running on: Android 4.0.3 Asus TF300

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  • How to get rid of exceptions thrown by the .NET Framework

    - by Hans Løken
    In a recent project I'm using a lot of databinding and xml-serialization. I'm using C#/VS2008 and have downloaded symbol information for the .NET framework to help me when debugging. The app I'm working on has a global "catch all" exception handler to present a more presentable messages to users if there happens to be any uncaught exceptions being thrown. My problem is when I turn on Exceptions-Thrown to be able to debug exceptions before they are caught by the "catch all". It seems to me that the framework throws a lot of exceptions that are not immediately caught (for example in ReflectPropertyDescriptor) so that the exception I'm actually trying to debug gets lost in the noise. Is there any way to get rid of exceptions caused by the framework but keep the ones from my own code? Update: after more research and actually trying to get rid of the exceptions that get thrown by the framework (many which turn out to be known issues in the framework, example: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1127431/xmlserializer-giving-filenotfoundexception-at-constructor) I finally found a solution that works for me, which is turning on "Just my code" in Tools Options Debugging General Enable Just My Code in VS2008.

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • How does the NY Times iPhone app do this?

    - by ArgMan
    Alright, I have an RSS feed that gets arranged in a UITableView and then the user selects a story and it loads in a UIWebView. However, I'd like to stop using the UIWebView and just use a UITextView or UILabel. This png is what I am trying to do (just display the various text aspects of a news story): http://img411.imageshack.us/img411/2449/screenshot20100315at120.png Let me start off by saying that I have tried to use the usualNSString *myText = [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.documentElement.textContent"]; and assign it to a UILabel, but it doesn't work the way that I am implementing it (in webViewDidFinishLoad--is that not correct?) and I get a blank textView and normal webView. If I overlay a UITextView on top of a UIWebView on its own (that is, a webView that just loads one page), the code posted above works fine to display the text I require, but the problem arises when the RSS feed is added into the mix. Ideas and/or help, guys? I've been stuck wondering why this doesn't work as it should for a few days now. If you have a better, more efficient way of doing it then placing the code in webViewDidFinishLoad, please let me know! Does it go in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath? I'm lost here, guys. Thank you very much in advance!

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  • Problem with ModelAndView and ModelMap in AnnotationController, Springframework

    - by saltfactory
    I have a question that is a point difference between ModelAndView and ModelMap. I want to maintain modelAndView when requestMethod is "GET" and requestMethod is "POST". My modelAndView saved others. So I made modelAndView return type to "GET", "POST" methods. But, Request lost commandObject, form:errors..., if request return showForm on "POST" because request validation failed. example) private ModelAndView modelAndView; public ControllerTest{ this.modelAndView = new ModelAndView(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView showForm(ModelMap model) { EntityObject entityObject = new EntityObject(); CommandObject commandObject = new CommandObject(); commandObject.setEntityObject(entityObject); model.addAttribute("commandObject", commandObject); this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "GET"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView submit(@ModelAttribute("commandObject") CommandObject commandObject, BindingResult result, SessionStatus status) { this.commandValidator.validate(commandObject, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } else { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "after POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("success"); } status.setComplete(); return this.modelAndView; }

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  • Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

    - by Schnapple
    Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

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  • Resource placement (optimal strategy)

    - by blackened
    I know that this is not exactly the right place to ask this question, but maybe a wise guy comes across and has the solution. I'm trying to write a computer game and I need an algorithm to solve this question: The game is played between 2 players. Each side has 1.000 dollars. There are three "boxes" and each player writes down the amount of money he is going to place into those boxes. Then these amounts are compared. Whoever placed more money in a box scores 1 point (if draw half point each). Whoever scores more points wins his opponents 1.000 dollars. Example game: Player A: [500, 500, 0] Player B: [333, 333, 334] Player A wins because he won Box A and Box B (but lost Box C). Question: What is the optimal strategy to place the money? I have more questions to ask (algorithm related, not math related) but I need to know the answer to this one first. Update (1): After some more research I've learned that these type of problems/games are called Colonel Blotto Games. I did my best and found few (highly technical) documents on the subject. Cutting it short, the problem I have (as described above) is called simple Blotto Game (only three battlefields with symmetric resources). The difficult ones are the ones with, say, 10+ battle fields with non-symmetric resources. All the documents I've read say that the simple Blotto game is easy to solve. The thing is, none of them actually say what that "easy" solution is.

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  • git: remove 2nd commit

    - by cwolves
    I'm trying to remove the 2nd commit to a repo. At this point I could just blow away the .git dir and re-do it, but I'm curious how to do this... I've deleted commits before, but apparently never the 2nd one :) > git log commit c39019e4b08497406c53ceb532f99801793205ca Author: Me Date: Thu Mar 22 14:02:41 2012 -0700 Initializing registry directories commit 535dce28f1c68e8af9d22bc653aca426fb7825d8 Author: Me Date: Tue Jan 31 21:04:13 2012 -0800 First Commit > git rebase -i HEAD~2 fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream HEAD~2 > git rebase -i HEAD~1 at which point I get in my editor: pick c39019e Initializing registry directories # Rebase 535dce2..c39019e onto 535dce2 # # Commands: # p, pick = use commit # r, reword = use commit, but edit the commit message # e, edit = use commit, but stop for amending # s, squash = use commit, but meld into previous commit # f, fixup = like "squash", but discard this commit's log message # x, exec = run command (the rest of the line) using shell # # If you remove a line here THAT COMMIT WILL BE LOST. # However, if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted. # Now my problem is that I can't just blow away this 2nd commit since "if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted"

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  • Snapshot agent obliterates conflicts

    - by mwolfe02
    We are using merge replication in SQL Server 2000. We have a snapshot agent that runs every night that updates the publication snapshot. About six months ago we updated from SQL Server 7.0 to 2000 (that's not a typo). We noticed a sharp decline in conflicts at that time but could not track down the reason. We finally found that the daily snapshot agent is recreating the conflict tables every night. This seems to be a change in functionality from SQL Server 7.0. We were running the snapshot agent before and the conflicts would accumulate. Is there some way to prevent the data in the conflict tables from being lost when the snapshot runs? Can anyone confirm a change in behavior between 7.0 and 2000? Our current plan is to simply stop automatically updating the publication snapshot. Is that a reasonable workaround? Here is the line from the script that is adding the snapshot: exec sp_addpublication_snapshot @publication = N'MyPub' , @frequency_type = 4 , @frequency_interval = 1 , @frequency_relative_interval = 1 , @frequency_recurrence_factor = 0 , @frequency_subday = 1 , @frequency_subday_interval = 5 , @active_start_date = 0 , @active_end_date = 0 , @active_start_time_of_day = 500 , @active_end_time_of_day = 235959 Here is the step that runs in the agent job: Step Name: Run agent. Type: Replication Snapshot Command: -Publisher [WCDBS02] -PublisherDB [TaxDB] -Distributor [WCDBS02] -Publication [TaxDB] -ReplicationType 2 -DistributorSecurityMode 1 This appears to be running the Replication Snapshot Agent Utility. There is no mention on that link about dropping and recreating system conflict tables, nor is there any flag that can be set to alter this behavior.

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  • php how to serialize array of objects?

    - by hequ
    Hello, I have small class called 'Call' and I need to store these calls into a flat file. I've made another class called 'CallStorage' which contains an array where I put these calls into. My problem is that I would like to store this array to disk so I could later read it back and get the calls from that array. I've tried to achieve this using serialize() and unserialize() but these seems to act somehow strange and part of the information gets lost. This is what I'm doing: //write array to disk $filename = $path . 'calls-' . $today; $serialized = serialize($this->array); $fp = fopen($filename, 'a'); fwrite($fp, $serialized); fclose($fp); //read array from serialized file $filename = $path . 'calls-' . $today; if (file_exists($filename)) { $handle = fopen($filename, 'r'); $contents = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); fclose($handle); $unserialized = unserialize($contents); $this->setArray($unserialized); } Can someone see what I'm doing wrong, or what. I've also tried to serialize and write arrays that contains plain strings. I didn't manage to get that working either.. I have a Java background so I just can't see why I couldn't just write an array to disk if it's serialized. :)

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  • Command or tool to display list of connections to a Windows file share

    - by BizTalkMama
    Is there a Windows command or tool that can tell me what users or computers are connected to a Windows fileshare? Here's why I'm looking for this: I've run into issues in the past where our deployment team has deployed BizTalk applications to one of our environments using the wrong bindings, leaving us with two receive locations pointing to the same file share (i.e. both dev and test servers point to dev receive location uri). When this occurs, the two environments in question tend to take turns processing the files received (meaning if I am attempting to debug something in one environment and the other environment has picked the file up, it looks as if my test file has disappeared into thin air). We have several different environments, plus individual developer machines, and I'd rather not have to check each individually to find the culprit. I'm looking for a quick way to detect what locations are connected to the share once I notice my test files vanishing. If I can determine the connections that are invalid, I can go directly to the person responsible for that environment and avoid the time it takes to randomly ask around. Or if the connections appear to be correct, I can go directly to troubleshooting where in the process the message gets lost. Any suggestions?

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  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

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  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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  • Some questions about special operators i've never seen in C++ code.

    - by toto
    I have downloaded the Phoenix SDK June 2008 (Tools for compilers) and when I'm reading the code of the Hello sample, I really feel lost. public ref class Hello { //-------------------------------------------------------------------------- // // Description: // // Class Variables. // // Remarks: // // A normal compiler would have more flexible means for holding // on to all this information, but in our case it's simplest (if // somewhat inelegant) if we just keep references to all the // structures we'll need to access as classstatic variables. // //-------------------------------------------------------------------------- static Phx::ModuleUnit ^ module; static Phx::Targets::Runtimes::Runtime ^ runtime; static Phx::Targets::Architectures::Architecture ^ architecture; static Phx::Lifetime ^ lifetime; static Phx::Types::Table ^ typeTable; static Phx::Symbols::Table ^ symbolTable; static Phx::Phases::PhaseConfiguration ^ phaseConfiguration; 2 Questions : What's that ref keyword? What is that sign ^ ? What is it doing protected: virtual void Execute ( Phx::Unit ^ unit ) override; }; override is a C++ keyword too? It's colored as such in my Visual Studio. I really want to play with this framework, but this advanced C++ is really an obstacle right now. Thank you.

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  • CoreData is saving model without the save: method being called

    - by chris
    I have a list of items with a plus button in the navigation bar that opens up a modal window containing a table of the models attributes, that displays a form when the table items are clicked (pretty standard form style). For some reason if I click the plus button to open the form to create a new model, then immediately click the done button, the person model is saved. The action linked to the done button does nothing but call on a delegate method notifying the personListViewController to close the window. The apple docs do state that the model is not saved after calling the insertNewObjectForEntityName: ... Simply creating a managed object does not cause it to be saved to a persistent store. The managed object context acts as a scratchpad. I am at a lost to why this is happening, but every time I click the done button I have a new blank item in the original tableView. I am using SDK v3.1.3 // PersonListViewController - open modal window - (void)addPerson { // Load the new form PersonNewViewController *newController = [[PersonNewViewController alloc] init]; newController.modalFormDelegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:newController animated:YES]; [newController release]; } // PersonFormViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if ( person == nil ) { MyAppDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.person = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Person" inManagedObjectContext:appDelegate.managedObjectContext]; } ... UIBarButtonItem *doneButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(done)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = doneButton; [doneButton release]; } - (IBAction) done { [self.modalFormDelegate didCancel]; } // delegate method in the original listViewController - (void) didCancel { [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }

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  • Entity Framework + MySQL - Why is the performance so terrible?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    When I decided to use an OR/M (Entity Framework for MySQL this time) for my new project I was hoping it would save me time, but I seem to have failed it (for the second time now). Take this simple SQL Query SELECT * FROM POST ORDER BY addedOn DESC LIMIT 0, 50 It executes and gives me results in less than a second as it should (the table has about 60,000 rows). Here's the equivalent LINQ To Entities query that I wrote for this var q = (from p in db.post orderby p.addedOn descending select p).Take(50); var q1 = q.ToList(); //This is where the query is fetched and timed out But this query never even executes it times out ALWAYS (without orderby it takes 5 seconds to run)! My timeout is set to 12 seconds so you can imagine it is taking much more than that. Why is this happening? Is there a way I can see what is the actual SQL Query that Entity Framework is sending to the db? Should I give up on EF+MySQL and move to standard SQL before I lose all eternity trying to make it work? I've recalibrated my indexes, tried eager loading (which actually makes it fail even without the orderby clause) Please help, I am about to give up OR/M for MySQL as a lost cause.

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  • NHibernate - Retrieving Lots of Data Becomes Exponentially Slow

    - by nfplee
    Hi, I have an issue when I retrieve lots of data in NHibernate (such as when producing a report) the page becomes exponentially slower the more data it has to retrieve. I found the following article: http://nhforge.org/blogs/nhibernate/archive/2008/10/30/bulk-data-operations-with-nhibernate-s-stateless-sessions.aspx It explains how doing bulk data operations in NHibernate is slow since the first level cache grows too large and how you should use the IStatelessSession instead. The trouble I have is that I don't wish to tie my application to NHibernate so I've added a wrapper around ISession. I then use Linq as my query mechanism but IStatelessSession does not support Linq (it may do in NHibernate 3 but the Linq provider is not stable as it stands at the moment). I then read that you could do a clear after so many iterations to clear out the first level cache. The problem now is that you can't use lazy loading. The linq provider doesn't allow you to override the mapping defined (or eagerly fetch the additional data) so whenever I grab data which is lazy loaded after I have cleared the session an exception is thrown. I'm completely lost on what do now. I like the ease of producing reports with linq but the limitations of the inbuilt linq provider in NHibernate seem to be holding me back. I'd really appreciate it if someone could show me an alternative approach. Thanks

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  • How do I stop a page from unloading (navigating away) in JS?

    - by Natalie Downe
    Does anyone know how to stop a page from reloading or navigating away? jQuery(function($) { /* global on unload notification */ warning = true; if(warning) { $(window).bind("unload", function() { if (confirm("Do you want to leave this page") == true) { //they pressed OK alert('ok'); } else { // they pressed Cancel alert('cancel'); return false; } }); } }); I am working on an e-commerce site at the moment, the page that displays your future orders has the ability to alter the quantities of items ordered using +/- buttons. Changing the quantities this way this doesn't actually change the order itself, they have to press confirm and therefore committing a positive action to change the order. However if they have changed the quantities and navigate away from the page I would like to warn them they are doing so in case this is an accident, as the changed quantities will be lost if they navigate away or refresh the page. In the code above I am using a global variable which will be false by default (its only true for testing), when a quantity is changed I will update this variable to be true, and when they confirm the changes I will set it to false. If warning is true and the page is unloaded, I offer them a confirmation box, if they say no they would like to stay on this page I need to stop it from unloading. return false isn't working, it still lets the user navigate away (the alerts are there for debugging only) Any ideas?

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  • How to maintain form state after Post-Redirect-Get in ASP.net?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Imagine a page with a form input: Search Criteria: crackers                   From: [email protected]           To: [email protected]       Subject: How to maintain form state with PRG? Message: Imagine a page with form input:                         Send After the user clicks Send, the server will instruct to client to Redirect, as part of the Post-Redirect-Get pattern. POST /mail/u/compose HTTP/1.1 303 See Other Location: http://stackoverflow.com/mail/u/compose And the client will issue a GET of the new page. The problem is that some elements of the existing form are lost: Search Criteria:                    It gets worse when there are a few drop-downs, and checkboxes. How can i maintain form state in using Post-Redirect-Get in ASP.net, given that the viewstate is then non-existent. Bonus Reading ASP.NET: How to redirect, prefilling form data?

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  • Load page for validation but do not display it to user in ASP.NET

    - by Kevin
    We have a site requiring users pay $2 to view the details of a record. We occasionally get complaints because we send them to the payment page, and once they pay it turns out the record isn't valid, or it was lost, or the data couldn't be generated. So we want to add in a check to ensure the page constructs properly before the user is required to pay for it. However, we don't want the user to have access to the page until they pay for it. Is there anything in ASP.NET 3.5 or just general web design that would allow something like this? The data on the record is real time and computed on a backend server before sent to the client. Occasionally this computation fails for whatever reason. Our alternative is to call all of the loading methods and validate the data, then redirect them to the payment page. The problem is A) this will be a relatively involved process rewriting all of these methods to return validation information, and B) it still doesn't guarentee us the page will load properly. Any thoughts?

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  • What do you call the highlight as you hover over an OPTION in a SELECT, and how can I "un"highlight

    - by devils-avacado
    I'm working on dropdowns in IE6 (SELECT with OPTIONs as children). I'm experiencing the problem where, in IE6, dropdown menus are truncated to the width of the SELECT element. I used this jquery to fix it: var css_expanded = { 'width' : 'auto', 'position' : 'absolute', 'left' : '564px', 'top' : '393px' } var css_off = { 'width' : '190px', 'position' : 'relative', 'left' : '0', 'top' : '0' } if($.browser.msie) { $('#dropdown') .bind('mouseover', function() { $(this).css(css_expanded); }) .bind('click', function() { $(this).toggleClass('clicked'); }) .bind('mouseout', function() { if (!$(this).hasClass('clicked')) { $(this).css(css_off); } }) .bind('change blur focusout', function() { $(this).removeClass('clicked') .css(css_off) }); }; It works fine in IE7+8, but in IE6, if the user clicks on a SELECT and does not click any OPTION but instead clicks somewhere else on the page, outside the SELECT (blur), the SELECT still has a "highlight", the same as if they were hovering over an OPTION with my mouse (in my case, a blue color), and the width is not restored until the user clicks outside the SELECT a second time. In other browsers, blur causes every OPTION to not be highlighted. Using JS, how can I de-highlight an option after the dropdown has lost focus.

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  • JavaScript onClick() Display

    - by junaidkaps
    I have an array consisting of several objects containing Strings. I am successfully able to display the array by using: <td><p onclick="theMiddle(this)">The Middle</td> As you see from the td tag this is part of a table. Issue is that the browser opens up a new page to display my text. I have been trying to display the array above my table in a p tag. //JavaScript var arrayTheMiddle = new Array (showName.theMiddle, beginingTime.theMiddle, network.abc, duration.thirty, rating.general, description.theMiddle, showImage.theMiddle); function theMiddle(obj){ for(i=0; i < arrayTheMiddle.length; i++) { document.write(arrayTheMiddle[i] + "<br>"); } } //HTML File <p>Would like the array/function displayed here while the user clicks within the table below (entire table has not been listed)</p> <td><p onclick="theMiddle(this)">The Middle</td> Unfortunately I am constantly failing at utilizing get element by id to call my function which consists of an array. I have searched for all sorts of stuff, yet frankly I'm lost. Not even sure if my approach is correct at this point. I'm sure this is one of those simple things that are blowing over my head!

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