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• How to send java.util.logging to log4j?

  - by matt b

  I have an existing application which does all of its logging against log4j. We use a number of other libraries that either also use log4j, or log against Commons Logging, which ends up using log4j under the covers in our environment. One of our dependencies even logs against slf4j, which also works fine since it eventually delegates to log4j as well. Now, I'd like to add ehcache to this application for some caching needs. Previous versions of ehcache used commons-logging, which would have worked perfectly in this scenario, but as of version 1.6-beta1 they have removed the dependency on commons-logging and replaced it with java.util.logging instead. Not really being familiar with the built-in JDK logging available with java.util.logging, is there an easy way to have any log messages sent to JUL logged against log4j, so I can use my existing configuration and set up for any logging coming from ehcache? Looking at the javadocs for JUL, it looks like I could set up a bunch of environment variables to change which LogManager implementation is used, and perhaps use that to wrap log4j Loggers in the JUL Logger class. Is this the correct approach? Kind of ironic that a library's use of built-in JDK logging would cause such a headache when (most of) the rest of the world is using 3rd party libraries instead.

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• how to fetch data from Plist in Label

  - by SameSung Vs Iphone

  I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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• Receiving UDP on different Android phones gives different results

  - by user1868982

  I am willing to create a server and client program on my android mobile devices. The devices communicate with each other on the same wifi network, therefore, some simple scanning mechanism must be implemented - The client phones search for a server phone through some kind of broadcast. What I did: My protocol - the client phone broadcasts a message port p on the wifi, the server listens on port p. when the server gets the broadcast message it sends a message back, therefore discovering itself to the client. My code - I have opened a broadcast socket on my app, it sends a broadcast message. Meanwhile there is a python script on my PC that listens and replies - I use python so that my testing will be easier - Wireshark on the PC and I can see everything. What happens: When I use one of my Galaxy S phones - it works and I get a response. When I use the other Galaxy S phone - it doesn't work. Now this is what I know: The phone that works actually has Nexus ROM on it Ver. 4.1.1 The phone that doesn't work has 2.3.3 regular galaxy ROM The python code says it receives both of the broadcasts sent from both phones, and replies to both of them without raising any exception. So far I was thought the problem may be 1. the older version'd phone. 2. the windows firewall 3. the router firewall So I have opened Wireshark, and Indeed I saw that both phones are sending their broadcasts - it was logged on Wireshark. But the python script only responded to the first one. So this is why 1 & 3 are irrelevant - if the router firewall was blocking my UDP I would have still seen the python server response, same with the older versioned phone. To get rid of 2 i just disabled the windows firewall - still same problem. Does anyone has a clue to why this effect might happen? Thanks!

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• OOP + MVC advice on Member Controller

  - by dan727

  Hi, I am trying to follow good practices as much as possible while I'm learning using OOP in an MVC structure, so i'm turning to you guys for a bit of advice on something which is bothering me a little here. I am writing a site where I will have a number of different forms for members to fill in (mainly data about themselves), so i've decided to set up a Member controller where all of the forms relating to the member are represented as individual methods. This includes login/logout methods, as well as editing profile data etc. In addition to these methods, i also have a method to generate the member's control panel widget, which is a constant on every page on the site while the member is logged in. The only thing is, all of the other methods in this controller all have the same dependencies and form templates, so it would be great to generate all this in the constructor, but as the control_panel method does not have the same dependencies etc, I cannot use the constructor for this purpose, and instead I have to redeclare the dependencies and same template snippets in each method. This obviously isn't ideal and doesn't follow DRY principle, but I'm wondering what I should do with the control_panel method, as it is related to the member and that's why I put it in that controller in the first place. Am I just over-complicating things here and does it make sense to just move the control_panel method into a simple helper class? Here are the basic methods of the controller: class Member_Controller extends Website_Controller { public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); if (request::is_ajax()) { $this->auto_render = FALSE; // disable auto render } } public static function control_panel() { //load control panel view $panel = new View('user/control_panel'); return $panel; } public function login() { } public function register() { } public function profile() { } public function household() { } public function edit_profile() { } public function logout() { } }

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• redirecting _top page from asp:login control in iframe onloggedin

  - by jumpdart

  So yeah, Im building a little authenticated content(.NET app) to a large html site managed by another group. They are only comfortable with managing html so all my app content will be contained in iframes. Everything is working fine as far as navigation and calling services and whatnot but i cant bust out of the frame with my asp:login control. Im trying to register some JS on logged in but with no success. Thanks protected void login_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { StringBuilder strScript = new StringBuilder(); strScript.Append("<script language='javascript'>"); string sHome = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["AppHomePageURL"].ToString(); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.navigate('{0}');", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("parent.location.href='{0}';", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.open('{0}', '_top', '', false);", sHome); strScript.AppendFormat("top.location.href='{0}';", sHome); strScript.Append("WTF_let_me_outa_here();"); strScript.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(typeof(Page), "LoginGO", strScript.ToString()); }

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• How to insert rows in a many-to-many relationship

  - by GSound

  Hello, I am having an issue trying to save into an intermediate table. I am new on Rails and I have spent a couple of hours on this but can't make it work, maybe I am doing wrong the whole thing. Any help will be appreciated. =) The app is a simple book store, where a logged-in user picks books and then create an order. This error is displayed: NameError in OrderController#create uninitialized constant Order::Orderlist These are my models: class Book < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orderlists has_many :orders, :through => :orderlists end class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :orderlists has_many :books, :through => :orderlists end class OrderList < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :book belongs_to :order end This is my Order controller: class OrderController < ApplicationController def add if session[:user] book = Book.find(:first, :conditions => ["id = #{params[:id]}"]) if book session[:list].push(book) end redirect_to :controller => "book" else redirect_to :controller => "user" end end def create if session[:user] @order = Order.new if @order.save session[:list].each do |b| @order.orderlists.create(:book => b) # <-- here is my prob I cant make it work end end end redirect_to :controller => "book" end end Thnx in advance! Manuel

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• Core Data to-many relationship in code

  - by Jan Bezemer

  I have three entities: Session, User and Test. A session has 0-many users and a user can perform 0-6 tests. (I say 0 but in the real application always at least 1 is required, at least 1 user for a session and at least 1 test for a user. But I say 0 to express an empty start.) All entities have their own specific data attributes too. A user has a name, A session has a name, a test has six values to be filled in by the user, and so on. But my issue is with the relationships. How do I set multiple users and have them added to one session (same goes for multiple tests for one user). How do I show the content in a right way? How do I show a session that has multiple users and these users having completed multiple tests? Here's my code so far with regard to issue 1: Session *session = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Session" inManagedObjectContext:context]; session.name = @"Session 1"; User *users = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:context]; users.age = [NSNumber numberWithInt:28]; users.session = session; //sessie.users = users; [sessie addUserObject:users]; With regard to issue 2: I can log the session, but I can't get the user(s) logged from a session. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Session" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSArray *fetchedObjects = [context executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; for (Session *info in fetchedObjects) { NSLog(@"Name: %@", info.name); NSLog(@"Having problems with this: %@",info.user); //User *details = info.user; //NSLog(@"User: %@", details.age); }

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• Change cookies when doing jQuery.ajax requests in Chrome Extensions

  - by haskellguy

  I have wrote a plugin for facebook that sends data to testing-fb.local. The request goes through if the user is logged in. Here is the workflow: User logs in from testing-fb.local Cookies are stored When $.ajax() are fired from the Chrome extension Chrome extension listen with chrome.webRequest.onBeforeSendHeaders Chrome extension checks for cookies from chrome.cookies.get Chrome changes the Set-Cookies header to be sent And the request goes through. I wrote this part of code that shoud be this: function getCookies (callback) { chrome.cookies.get({url:"https://testing-fb.local", name: "connect.sid"}, function(a){ return callback(a) }) } chrome.webRequest.onBeforeSendHeaders.addListener( function(details) { getCookies(function(a){ // Here something happens }) }, {urls: ["https://testing-fb.local/*"]}, ['blocking']); Here is my manifest.json: { "name": "test-fb", "version": "1.0", "manifest_version": 1, "description": "testing", "permissions": [ "cookies", "webRequest", "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*" ], "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*.facebook.com/*", "https://*.facebook.com/*"], "exclude_matches" : [ "*://*.facebook.com/ajax/*", "*://*.channel.facebook.tld/*", "*://*.facebook.tld/pagelet/generic.php/pagelet/home/morestories.php*", "*://*.facebook.tld/ai.php*" ], "js": ["jquery-1.8.3.min.js", "allthefunctions.js"] } ] } In allthefunction.js I have the $.ajax calls, and in background.js is where I put the code above which however looks not to run.. In summary, I have not clear: What I should write in Here something happens If this strategy is going to work Where should I put this code?

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• MVC2 AJAX - determining UpdateTargetId based on the returned data

  - by DanielJW

  The scenario: I'm creating a login form for an MVC2 application. How i'm doing it: The form submits to an MVC2 action which validates the username/password. If it fails validation the action returns the form (a partial view) for the user to try again. If it passes validation the action returns the page the user was visiting before they logged in (a view). What i want to happen: 1 - when the form is submitted and the user validates successfully, The returned result should replace the current page (like what happens if you don't set an UpdateTargetId). 2 - When the form is submitted and the user fails validation, the returned result should replace the form (like what happens if you set the UpdateTargetID to the form's containing element). The problem: I can make both of those things work, but not at the same time. I can either have it always replace the current page, or always just replace the contents of the UpdateTargetId element. But I need it to be able to do either depending on whether the user successfully validated or not. What I need The ideal solution would be to be able to examine the result of the ajax request and determine whether to use the UpdateTargetId (replacing just the form) or not (replacing the whole page). I expect it would involve some work with jquery (assuming it's possible) but i'm not really that great with jquery yet to figure out how to do it myself. If it can't be done this way I'm also open to other methods/solutions for making it work in a similar fashion. Thanks in advance ..

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• Best method to cache objects in PHP?

  - by Martin Bean

  Hi, I'm currently developing a large site that handles user registrations. A social networking website for argument's sake. However, I've noticed a lag in page loads and deciphered that it is the creation of objects on pages that's slowing things down. For example, I have a Member object, that when instantiated with an ID passed as a construct parameter, it queries the database for that members' row in the members database table. Not bad, but this is created each time a page is loaded; and called more than once when say, calling an array of that particular members' friends, as a new Member object is created for each friend. So on a single page I can have upwards of seven of the same object, but containing different properties. What I'm wanting to do is to find a way to reduce the database load, and to allow persist objects between page loads. For example, the logged in user's object to be created on login (which I can do) but then stored somewhere for retrieval so I don't have to keep re-creating the object between page loads. What is the best solution for this? I've had a look at Memcache, but with it being a third-party module I can't have the web host install it on this occasion. What are my alternatives, and/or best practices in my case? Thanks in advance.

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• Is there a way to sync (two way) tables betwen a mysql server and a local MS Access?

  - by Kailen

  Help me figure out a solution to a (not so unique) problem. My research group has gps devices attached to migratory animals. Every once in a while, a research tech will be within range of an animal and will get the chance to download all the logged points. Each individual spits out a single dbf and new locations are just appended to the end (so the file is just cumulative). These data need to be shared among a research group. Everyone else (besides me) wants to use access, so they can make small edits and prefer that interface. They do not like using MySQL. The solution I came up with is: a) The person who downloads the file goes to a web page, enters animal ID into a form, chooses .dbf file and uploads to a mysql database on the server (I still have to write php code to read the dbf and write sql insert statements from it). b) Everyone syncs from their local access database to the server. (This is natively possible from access but very clunky). Is there a tool (preferably open source), that can compare a access table to mysql table and sync the two (both ways)? Alternatively, does anyone have a more elegant solution? The ultimate goal is to allow everyone to have access to the most current data on their computers using their preferred database app.

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• Why does LogonUser place user profiles in c:\users of the server?

  - by Lalit_M

  We have developed a ASP.NET web application and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Does anyone know how to disable this behavior? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. I need either of the solution 1) Is there any way to stop the folder generation. 2) What parameter I need to pass this to work? Thanks

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• WIN32 API question - Looking for answer asap

  - by Lalit_M

  We have developed a ASP.NET web application and has implemented a custom authentication solution using active directory as the credentials store. Our front end application uses a normal login form to capture the user name and password and leverages the Win32 LogonUser method to authenticate the user’s credentials. When we are calling the LogonUser method, we are using the LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK as the logon type. The issue we have found is that user profile folders are being created under the C:\Users folder of the web server. The folder seems to be created when a new user who has never logged on before is logging in for the first time. As the number of new users logging into the application grows, disk space is shrinking due to the large number of new user folders getting created. Has anyone seen this behavior with the Win32 LogonUser method? Does anyone know how to disable this behavior? I have tried LOGON32_LOGON_BATCH but it was giving an error 1385 in authentication user. I need either of the solution 1) Is there any way to stop the folder generation. 2) What parameter I need to pass this to work? Thanks

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• Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

  - by John

  I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

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• Is my approach for persistent login secure ?

  - by Jay

  I'm very much stuck with the reasonable secure approach to implement 'Remember me' feature in a login system. Here's my approach so far, Please advice me if it makes sense and is reasonably secure: Logging: User provides email and password to login (both are valid).. Get the user_id from DB Table Users by comparing provided email Generate 2 random numbers hashed strings: key1, key2 and store in cookies. In DB Table COOKIES, store key1, key2 along with user_id. To Check login: If key1 and key2 both cookies exist, validate both keys in DB Table COOKIES (if a row with key1, and key2 exists, user is logged). if cookie is valid, regenrate key2 and update it in cookie and also database. Why re-genrating key: Because if someone steals cookie and login with that cookie, it will be working only until the real user login. When the real user will login, the stolen cookie will become invalid. Right? Why do I need 2 keys: Because if i store user_id and single key in cookie and database, and the user want to remember the password on another browser, or computer, then the new key will be updated in database, so the user's cookie in earlier browser/PC will become invalid. User wont be able to remember password on more than one place. Thanks for your opinions.

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• CakePHP: Missing database table

  - by Justin

  I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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• Unwanted redirection after authentication

  - by jodaha

  Hello world! We have a form to submit ratings for a certain restaurant in a in our views/restaurants/show.html.erb. We only want logged in users to create new ratings. We put before_filter :login_required, :only = [ :new, :create ] (but we also tried only ":create") on top of our RatingsController. If we click the submit button after typing in the rating details we are prompted to log in (which is what we want). After filling in username and password and submitting the login form we get redirected back to e. g. /restaurants/36/ratings, but we want to be redirected back to where we came from - e. g. /restaurants/36/. We tried redirect_to(:back), but this redirects us back to the login form. Also the new rating does not get saved to the database. Any idea how we can change the redirection and how to make sure the rating gets saved? Thanks!

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• "The system time has changed" events after waking from sleep

  - by Damir Arh

  Sometimes when my computer running Windows 7 wakes up from sleep, it has to adjust the time. When this happens the following system event is logged: <Event xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event'> <System> <Provider Name='Microsoft-Windows-Kernel-General' Guid='{A68CA8B7-004F-D7B6-A698-07E2DE0F1F5D}'/> <EventID>1</EventID> <Version>0</Version> <Level>4</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Opcode>0</Opcode> <Keywords>0x8000000000000010</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime='2010-03-06T19:09:57.500000000Z'/> <EventRecordID>10672</EventRecordID> <Correlation/> <Execution ProcessID='4' ThreadID='56'/> <Channel>System</Channel> <Computer>GAME</Computer> <Security/> </System> <EventData> <Data Name='NewTime'>2010-03-06T19:09:57.500000000Z</Data> <Data Name='OldTime'>2010-03-06T17:34:32.870117200Z</Data> </EventData> <RenderingInfo Culture='sl-SI'> <Message>The system time has changed to ?2010?-?03?-?06T19:09:57.500000000Z from ?2010?-?03?-?06T17:34:32.870117200Z.</Message> <Level>Information</Level> <Task></Task> <Opcode>Info</Opcode> <Channel>System</Channel> <Provider>Microsoft-Windows-Kernel-General</Provider> <Keywords> <Keyword>Time</Keyword> </Keywords> </RenderingInfo> </Event> When this happens (I noticed it twice until now) the old time always corresponds to the time when computer entered sleep. The problem is that if Windows Media Center is scheduled for recording during this time, it just skips it as if the computer was turned off. I never had this problem running Windows Vista on the same machine. Any ideas what could be causing this problem and how to solve it are welcome.

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• Informix "Database locale information mismatch"

  - by lmmortal

  I have informix 11.5 running in my Win-2003 box and few databases running in it. System databases have locale en_us.819 My custom databases have locale en_us.57372 (UTF8). There is also application deployed to JBoss 4.0.2 which has few datasources configured for those custom databases. <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>InformixDS</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:informix-sqli://@database.server@:@database.port@/tcs_catalog:[email protected]@</connection-url> <driver-class>com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver</driver-class> <user-name>@database.username@</user-name> <password>@database.password@</password> <new-connection-sql>set lock mode to wait 5</new-connection-sql> <check-valid-connection-sql>select '1' from dual</check-valid-connection-sql> <metadata> <type-mapping>InformixDB</type-mapping> </metadata> I'm logged in as Administrator and when I start JBoss the following error is shown Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: Database locale information mismatch. at com.informix.util.IfxErrMsg.getSQLException(IfxErrMsg.java:373) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqli.a(IfxSqli.java:3208) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqli.E(IfxSqli.java:3518) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqli.dispatchMsg(IfxSqli.java:2353) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqli.receiveMessage(IfxSqli.java:2269) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqli.executeOpenDatabase(IfxSqli.java:1786) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqliConnect.<init>(IfxSqliConnect.java:1327) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.java:27) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Constructor.java:501) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver.connect(IfxDriver.java:254) at org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.local.LocalManagedConnectionFactory.createManagedConnection(LocalManagedConnectionFactory.java:151) ... 160 more Caused by: java.sql.SQLException at com.informix.util.IfxErrMsg.getSQLException(IfxErrMsg.java:373) at com.informix.jdbc.IfxSqli.E(IfxSqli.java:3523) ... 170 more DB_LOCALE and CLIENT_LOCALE are set to en_us.utf8 for Administrator. When I set in Server Studio DB_LOCALE and CLIENT_LOCALE to en_us.utf8 I can connect my databases. Where should I set DB_LOCALE and CLIENT_LOCALE to avoid this Database locale information mismatch error? Thanks.

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• VPN iptables Forwarding: Net-to-net

  - by Mike Holler

  I've tried to look elsewhere on this site but I couldn't find anything matching this problem. Right now I have an ipsec tunnel open between our local network and a remote network. Currently, the local box running Openswan ipsec with the tunnel open can ping the remote ipsec box and any of the other computers in the remote network. When logged into on of the remote computers, I can ping any box in our local network. That's what works, this is what doesn't: I can't ping any of the remote computers via a local machine that is not the ipsec box. Here's a diagram of our network: [local ipsec box] ----------\ \ [arbitrary local computer] --[local gateway/router] -- [internet] -- [remote ipsec box] -- [arbitrary remote computer] The local ipsec box and the arbitrary local computer have no direct contact, instead they communicate through the gateway/router. The router has been set up to forward requests from local computers for the remote subnet to the ipsec box. This works. The problem is the ipsec box doesn't forward anything. Whenever an arbitrary local computer pings something on the remote subnet, this is the response: [user@localhost ~]# ping 172.16.53.12 PING 172.16.53.12 (172.16.53.12) 56(84) bytes of data. From 10.31.14.16 icmp_seq=1 Destination Host Prohibited From 10.31.14.16 icmp_seq=2 Destination Host Prohibited From 10.31.14.16 icmp_seq=3 Destination Host Prohibited Here's the traceroute: [root@localhost ~]# traceroute 172.16.53.12 traceroute to 172.16.53.12 (172.16.53.12), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 router.address.net (10.31.14.1) 0.374 ms 0.566 ms 0.651 ms 2 10.31.14.16 (10.31.14.16) 2.068 ms 2.081 ms 2.100 ms 3 10.31.14.16 (10.31.14.16) 2.132 ms !X 2.272 ms !X 2.312 ms !X That's the IP for our ipsec box it's reaching, but it's not being forwarded. On the IPSec box I have enabled IP Forwarding in /etc/sysctl.conf net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1 And I have tried to set up IPTables to forward: *filter :INPUT ACCEPT [0:0] :FORWARD ACCEPT [0:0] :OUTPUT ACCEPT [759:71213] -A INPUT -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p icmp -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 25 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p udp -m state --state NEW -m udp --dport 500 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p udp -m state --state NEW -m udp --dport 4500 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -m policy --dir in --pol ipsec -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p esp -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -j REJECT --reject-with icmp-host-prohibited -A FORWARD -s 10.31.14.0/24 -d 172.16.53.0/24 -j ACCEPT -A FORWARD -m policy --dir in --pol ipsec -j ACCEPT -A FORWARD -j REJECT --reject-with icmp-host-prohibited COMMIT Am I missing a rule in IPTables? Is there something I forgot? NOTE: All the machines are running CentOS 6.x Edit: Note 2: eth1 is the only network interface on the local ipsec box.

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• Windows 7 is shutting down unexpectedly, according to the logs.

  - by dlamblin

  Here's a message from my eventvwr EventLog (Windows Logs System): The previous system shutdown at 11:51:15 AM on ?7/?29/?2009 was unexpected. This is funny because I was wondering why the system shut down while I was playing Civilizations IV full screen. Now I know. It was unexpected. Has anyone encountered and resolved this? A little background: I am running Windows 7 RC inside VMWare Fusion 2 (just updated a few months back) on a MacBook (Bitterly not Pro) aluminum-body. Windows 7 occasionally will shut down. This isn't a quick turn-off, it's a shutdown where all the programs are exited, the system waits until they quit (and Civ4 doesn't prompt me to save), it even installed Windows Updates before restarting. And yes it is restarting right after the shutdown. Because I run a game in full screen mode I do not notice any dialog with a countdown timer or anything like that that might be a warning. As I have iStat on my dashboard widgets I can see about 8 temperature monitors. I have seen the CPU get up to 74C before, but during the shutdown, though it seemed hot to the touch (always is), it read 61C for the CPU, 60C for heatsink A, 50C for heatsink B and in the 30s-40s for the enclosure and harddrives. As I type this now, the temps are actually higher, so I don't think the temperature caused it. I have at least six such events dating first from 5/17 which was a week after installing Windows 7. I did find one information level warning from USER32 in the system log that says: The process C:\Windows\system32\svchost.exe (DLAMBLIN-WIN7) has initiated the restart of computer DLAMBLIN-WIN7 on behalf of user NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM for the following reason: Operating System: Recovery (Planned) Reason Code: 0x80020002 Shutdown Type: restart Comment: And another 15 minutes before that from Windows Update: Restart Required: To complete the installation of the following updates, the computer will be restarted within 15 minutes: - Cumulative Security Update for Internet Explorer 8 for Windows 7 Release Candidate for x64-based Systems (KB972260) Which I think kind of explains it. Though I don't know why restarting after an update would create an error event of "shutdown was unexpected", isn't that pretty odd? Now, how do I set it to never restart after an update unless I click something. Application of solution: As fretje reminded me, there's a couple of configurable settings for this, in windows 7 they're much in the same place as in Windows 2000 SP3 and XP SP1. Running gpedit.msc pops up a window that looks like: Windows 7 has changed the order and added a couple of newer options I've italicized: Do not display 'Install Updates and Shut Down' in Shut Down Windows dialog box Do not adjust default option to 'Install Updates and Shut Down' in Shut Down Windows dialog box Enabling Windows Power Management to automatically wake up the system to install scheduled updates Configure Automatic Updates Specify intranet Microsoft update service location Automatic Updates detection frequency Allow non-administrators to receive update notifications Turn on Software Notifications Allow Automatic Updates immediate installation Turn on recommended updates via Automatic Updates No auto-restart with logged-on users for scheduled Automatic Updates Re-prompt for restart with scheduled installations. Delay Restart for scheduled installations Reschedule Automatic Updates schedule

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• Can I set up two computers up with the same monitors/keyboard/mouse in a modular way?

  - by CodeJunkie

  I have a desktop computer computer (running Windows 7), and a laptop (running OSX Mountain Lion, and maybe Ubuntu 12 eventually). When the laptop is at home, I want both the desktop and the laptop to use the same (2+) monitors, the keyboard, and the mouse (or mice, if I add a track pad). I know about KVM switches, but I want something more complicated. I like to use Synergy to use both computers with one keyboard and mouse at the same time. Synergy requires that the keyboard and mouse be connected to one computer (the server), which shares them with other computers (clients) over wifi. the issue is that when one computer isn't logged in, Synergy doesn't work on it. Sometimes, I want my laptop to be the server (physically connected to the keyboard and mouse), and sometimes I want my desktop to be the server. This means that I need the keyboard/mouse/other USB devices to be able to switch computers without me playing musical plugs. To complicate things further, I don't always want the same desktop set up in terms of monitors. Sometimes, I want the desktop to have both monitors. Other times, I want the laptop to control both monitors. Sometimes I want the desktop to control one monitor, and the laptop to control the other. In any case, the keyboard and mouse need to be able to be physically connected to either computer without lots of fussing with plugs. This breaks down to at least this set of possible combinations: Desktop controls both monitors, and has a physical connection to keyboard and mouse Laptop controls both monitors, and has a physical connection to keyboard and mouse Desktop and laptop each control a monitor, but the desktop has a physical connection to the keyboard and mouse (which it shares with the laptop via wifi) Desktop and laptop each control a monitor, but the laptop has a physical connection to the keyboard an mouse (which it shares with the desktop via wifi) some usb devices connected via a usb hub need to be able to switch physical connection between computers, ideally without the keyboard and mouse switching computer connection There may be other combinations, but these are the main ones at the moment. Basically, I need a KVM switch which allows me to switch individual monitors/keyboard/mouse/usb hub between computers independently of each other, or a better solution. How can I set two computers up with the same monitors/mice/keyboard/usb hub without having to switch everything to one computer or the other all at the same time?

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• Why I am getting "Problem loading the page" after enabling HTTPS for Apache on Windows 7?

  - by Anish

  I enabled HTTPS on the Apache server (2.2.15) Windows 7 Enterprise by uncommenting: Include /private/etc/apache2/extra/httpd-ssl.conf in C:\Program Files (x86)\Apache Software Foundation\Apache2.2\conf\httpd.conf and modifying C:\Program Files (x86)\Apache Software Foundation\Apache2.2\conf\httpd-ssl.conf to include: DocumentRoot "C:/Program Files (x86)/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/htdocs" ServerName myserver.com:443 ServerAdmin [email protected] ... SSLCertificateFile "SSLCertificateFile "C:/Program Files (x86)/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/conf/cert.pem SSLCertificateKeyFile "SSLCertificateFile "C:/Program Files (x86)/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/conf/key.pem" Then I restart apache (going to start-All Progranms-Apache Server 2.2-Control-restart) and go to localhost on port 443 in Firefox , where I get: <<!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2 Final//EN"> <html> <head> <title>Index of /</title> </head> <body> <h1>Index of /</h1> <ul><li><a href="MyPageLinks/"> Links/</a></li> ..... .... </ul> </body></html> But on Display of WebPage I see: Unable to connect Firefox can't establish a connection to the server at localhost. *The site could be temporarily unavailable or too busy. Try again in a few moments. *If you are unable to load any pages, check your computer's network onnection. *If your computer or network is protected by a firewall or proxy, make sure that Firefox is permitted to access the Web. I read: Why am I getting 403 Forbidden after enabling HTTPS for Apache on Mac OS X? and added default web server configuration block to match my DocumentRoot The error Log C:\Program Files (x86)\Apache Software Foundation\Apache2.2\logs\error.log gives following error: The Apache2.2 service is running. (OS 5)Access is denied. : Init: Can't open server certificate file C:/Program Files (x86)/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/conf/cert.pem I checked the permissions for cert.pem and it indicates: All the permissions (Full control, Read, Read and modify, execute, Write) are marked for Admin and I am currently logged in as Admin. I tried using oldcert.pem and oldkey.pem on the same server and it works fine. Is there anything that I missed?

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• DSL Modem with Wireless Router

  - by David

  I have a D-Link WBR-1310 wireless router and a TP-Link TD-8616 DSL modem. My old DSL modem died recently and I got the TP-Link as a replacement. With my old DSL modem, I plugged it into the WAN port on my D-Link and I could reach the internet through wireless and through the network. However, when I plugged the new TP-Link into the WAN port, I was not able to get any internet connectivity (either on the network ports or through wireless). So I plugged my labtop directly into the TP-Link DSL modem and I was able to get internet connectivity. I'm trying to figure out why my labtop can see the internet connection, but not the D-Link router. I think that the problem is due to the IP networking. My D-Link was originally set to have IP address 192.168.1.1. According to the documentation for the TP-Link DSL modem, it uses 192.168.1.1 as its IP address. I do not believe that my old DSL modem had an IP address. I logged into my D-Link router and changed its IP address to 192.168.1.2 and restarted it. Unfortunately, I still could not see the internet from my wireless devices. I've read a few forum postings which implied that I needed to setup a "bridge" between the two networks. Does that sound correct? Why didn't my old DSL modem require a bridge? I read pg. 12-13 of my D-Link's manual and they suggest that I need to disable UPnP, DHCP, and then plug the DSL modem into one of the LAN ports on my router. I'm concerned about doing this since I don't think that the firewall will work if I plug my DSL modem into one of the LAN ports. I also have a home NAS on my network and I wouldn't want that to be available over the internet. Does anyone have any advice about how I can get my TPLink DSL modem to work with my D-Link router? Thanks!

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• "The system time has changed" avents after waking from sleep

  - by Damir Arh

  Sometimes when my computer running Windows 7 wakes up from sleep, it has to adjust the time. When this happens the following system event is logged: <Event xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event'> <System> <Provider Name='Microsoft-Windows-Kernel-General' Guid='{A68CA8B7-004F-D7B6-A698-07E2DE0F1F5D}'/> <EventID>1</EventID> <Version>0</Version> <Level>4</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Opcode>0</Opcode> <Keywords>0x8000000000000010</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime='2010-03-06T19:09:57.500000000Z'/> <EventRecordID>10672</EventRecordID> <Correlation/> <Execution ProcessID='4' ThreadID='56'/> <Channel>System</Channel> <Computer>GAME</Computer> <Security/> </System> <EventData> <Data Name='NewTime'>2010-03-06T19:09:57.500000000Z</Data> <Data Name='OldTime'>2010-03-06T17:34:32.870117200Z</Data> </EventData> <RenderingInfo Culture='sl-SI'> <Message>The system time has changed to ?2010?-?03?-?06T19:09:57.500000000Z from ?2010?-?03?-?06T17:34:32.870117200Z.</Message> <Level>Information</Level> <Task></Task> <Opcode>Info</Opcode> <Channel>System</Channel> <Provider>Microsoft-Windows-Kernel-General</Provider> <Keywords> <Keyword>Time</Keyword> </Keywords> </RenderingInfo> </Event> When this happens (I noticed it twice until now) the old time always corresponds to the time when computer entered sleep. The problem is that if Windows Media Center is scheduled for recording during this time, it just skips it as if the computer was turned off. I never had this problem running Windows Vista on the same machine. Any ideas what could be causing this problem and how to solve it are welcome.

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