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  • Why am I getting "ArgumentError: wrong number of arguments (1 for 0)" when running my rails function

    - by Hisham
    I'm stumped on what's causing this. I get this error and stack trace in all my functional tests where I call 'post'. Here is the full stack trace: 7) Error: test_should_validate(UsersControllerTest): ArgumentError: wrong number of arguments (1 for 0) /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:48:in `to_query' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:48:in `build_query_string' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:46:in `each' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:46:in `build_query_string' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:233:in `append_query_string' generated code (/Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route.rb:154):3:in `generate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:365:in `__send__' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:365:in `generate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:364:in `each' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:364:in `generate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/url_rewriter.rb:208:in `rewrite_path' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/url_rewriter.rb:187:in `rewrite_url' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/url_rewriter.rb:165:in `rewrite' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/test_process.rb:450:in `build_request_uri' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/test_process.rb:406:in `process' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/actionpack/lib/action_controller/test_process.rb:376:in `post' functional/users_controller_test.rb:57:in `test_should_validate' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/activesupport/lib/active_support/testing/setup_and_teardown.rb:60:in `__send__' /Users/hisham/src/rails/ftuBackend/vendor/rails/activesupport/lib/active_support/testing/setup_and_teardown.rb:60:in `run' This is the test I'm running: def test_should_validate post :validate, :user => { :email => '[email protected]', :password => 'quire', :password_confirmation => 'quire', :agreed_to_terms => "true" } assert assigns(:user).errors.empty? assert_response :success end

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  • JQuery, JSF and a4j:commandLink

    - by JQueryNeeded
    Hello ppl, I have a problem with using jQuery Dialog and Ajax submit in JSF. I have the following code for displaying Dialog windows: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function(){ // Dialog jQuery('#dialog').dialog({ dialogClass: 'alert', autoOpen: false, width: 300, height: 150, modal: true, resizable: false, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { "Ok": function() { jQuery(this).dialog("close"); return true; }, "Cancel": function() { jQuery(this).dialog("close"); return false; } } }); // Dialog Link jQuery('#dialog_link').click(function(){ jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }) .hover( function() { jQuery(this).addClass('ui-hover-state'); }, function() { jQuery(this).removeClass('ui-hover-state'); } ); }); </script> It works as it should - it displays box when link is clicked. Now, I have something like this, for deleting something: <a4j:commandLink actionListener="#some.action" reRender="something" onclick="if(!jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open')){return false}" ok, this commandLink is rendered as follows: <a href="#" id="some:long:id:j_id338" name="formName:something:j_id338" onclick="if(!jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open')){return false};A4J.AJAX.Submit('something:something'); return false;" >drop</a> now, after displaying the dialog box, the A4j.AJAX.Submit(..) is executed, is there anyway, that I can for example, pass the whole A4J.AJAX.Submit(...) to "dialog" and execute it from "ok" option? I simply need to execute submit if and only if user clicks OK. Thank you for help JQ

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  • JSON and jQuery.ajax

    - by Andreas
    Hello, im trying to use the jQuery UI autocomplete to communitate with a webservice with responseformate JSON, but i am unable to do so. My webservice is not even executed, the path should be correct since the error message does not complain about this. What strikes me is the headers, response is soap but request is json, is it supposed to be like this? Response Headersvisa källkod Content-Type application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8 Request Headersvisa källkod Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 The error message i get is as follows (sorry for the huge message, but it might be of importance): soap:ReceiverSystem.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server was unable to process request. ---> System.Xml.XmlException: Data at the root level is invalid. Line 1, position 1. at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Throw(Exception e) at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Throw(String res, String arg) at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseRootLevelWhitespace() at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseDocumentContent() at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Read() at System.Xml.XmlTextReader.Read() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapServerProtocol.SoapEnvelopeReader.Read() at System.Xml.XmlReader.MoveToContent() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapServerProtocol.SoapEnvelopeReader.MoveToContent() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapServerProtocolHelper.GetRequestElement() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.Soap12ServerProtocolHelper.RouteRequest() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapServerProtocol.RouteRequest(SoapServerMessage message) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapServerProtocol.Initialize() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.ServerProtocolFactory.Create(Type type, HttpContext context, HttpRequest request, HttpResponse response, Boolean& abortProcessing) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- This is my code: $('selector').autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { $.ajax({ url: "../WebService/Member.asmx", dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", type: "POST", data: JSON.stringify({prefixText: request.term}), success: function(data) { alert('success'); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ alert('error'); } }) }, minLength: 1, select: function(event, ui) { } }); And my webservice looks like this: [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] [ScriptService] public class Member : WebService { [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string[] GetMembers(string prefixText) { code code code } } What am i doing wrong? Thanks in advance :)

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  • Android Activity is displayed after user unlocks the screen

    - by Dave
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone understood how to make your application be displayed when you unlock the screen. I have an application where the user turns on a Bluetooth device, it connects to the phone, and the user should be presented with a UI. Having them hunt for the app or using the notification menu is not a workable option (too much work and not the obvious behavior). The problem is that: When the screen is unlocked: - you can popup the activity from the background service when Bluetooth connects to a device - User is happy because the UI is right there When the screen is locked: - The application gets started but is destroyed - User unlocks the phone and nothing is there but the homescreen One work around would be to disable the keyguard when the application gets woken up but the nuclear option is a pretty bad option. PS: I know the standard Android assumption is that you shouldn't do this. In the normal case this behavior is fine, but in this case I explicitly did something I want the phone to respond without adding more work for the user to do. As per Google's guidelines if you don't like this behavior there can be an option for you to turn this off or you can not use the application.

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  • JSF ui:repeat and f:ajax giving wrong value for h:inputText after rerender.

    - by Andrew
    I have a list of questions and I can display them ok using a ui:repeat, but after clicking the Edit button the rerendered inputText is given the wrong question.id. For some reason, if you click Edit on the first item, the inputText value assigned is that of the second item in the list, even though other outputs (other than the h:inputText element) are correct. <h:form id="questionnaireForm"> <ui:repeat value="#{ProjectManager.currentProject.preQuestions}" var="question" varStatus="current" id="preQuestionsRepeat"> <div> <ui:fragment rendered="#{!question.editing}"> <f:ajax render="@form"> <p>#{question.id} #{question.questionText}</p> <h:inputText value="#{question.id}"/> <h:commandLink styleClass="link" action="#{question.setEditing}" value="Edit"> </h:commandLink> </f:ajax> </ui:fragment> </div> <div> <ui:fragment rendered="#{question.editing}"> <f:ajax render="@form"> <p>#{question.id} #{question.questionText}</p> <h:inputText value="#{question.id}"/> </f:ajax> </ui:fragment> </div> </ui:repeat> </h:form> Obviously I don't really want to edit the id. I just want the correct question.something to show up in my inputText :-) Perhaps I'm not using correctly? It seems fine according to my reading so far. Many thanks for your assistance.

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  • Ruby on rails generates tests for you. Do those give a false sense of a safety net?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Disclaimer: I have not used RoR, and I have not generated tests. But, I will still dare to post this question. Quality Assurance is theoretically impossible to get 100% right in general (Undecidable problem ;), and it is hard in practice. So many developers do not understand that writing good automated tests is an art, and it is hard. When I hear that RoR generates the tests for you, I get very skeptical. It cannot be that easy. Testing is a general concept; it applies across languages. So does the concept of code contracts, it is similar for languages that support it. Code contracts do not generate themselves. The programmer must add the requirements and the promises manually, after doing some thinking about the algorithm / function. If a human gets it wrong, then the tools will propagate the error. Similarly with testing - it takes human judgement about what should happen. Tests do not write themselves, and we are far from the day when a business analyst can just have a conversation with a computer and tell it informally what the requirements are and have the computer do all the work. There is no magic ... how can RoR generate good tests for you? Please shed some light on this. Opinions are ok, for this is a community wiki. Thanks!

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  • Any way to avoid creating a huge C# COM interface wrapper when only a few methods needed?

    - by Paul Accisano
    Greetings all, I’m working on a C# program that requires being able to get the index of the hot item in Windows 7 Explorer’s new ItemsView control. Fortunately, Microsoft has provided a way to do this through UI Automation, by querying custom properties of the control. Unfortunately, the System.Windows.Automation namespace inexplicably does not seem to provide a way to query custom properties! This leaves me with the undesirable position of having to completely ditch the C# Automation namespace and use only the unmanaged COM version. One way to do it would be to put all the Automation code in a separate C++/CLI module and call it from my C# application. However, I would like to avoid this option if possible, as it adds more files to my project, and I’d have to worry about 32/64-bit problems and such. The other option is to make use of the ComImport attribute to declare the relevant interfaces and do everything through COM-interop. This is what I would like to do. However, the relevant interfaces, such as IUIAutomation and IUIAutomationElement, are FREAKING HUGE. They have hundreds of methods in total, and reference tons and tons of interfaces (which I assume I would have to also declare), almost all of which I will never ever use. I don’t think the UI Automation interfaces are declared in any Type Library either, so I can’t use TLBIMP. Is there any way I can avoid having to manually translate a bajillion method signatures into C# and instead only declare the ten or so methods I actually need? I see that C# 4.0 added a new “dynamic” type that is supposed to ease COM interop; is that at all relevant to my problem? Thanks

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  • How do I run JUnit from NetBeans?

    - by FarmBoy
    I've been trying to understand how to start writing and running JUnit tests. When I'm reading this article: http://junit.sourceforge.net/doc/testinfected/testing.htm I get the the middle of the page and they write, "JUnit comes with a graphical interface to run tests. Type the name of your test class in the field at the top of the window. Press the Run button." I don't know how to launch this program. I don't even know which package it is in, or how you run a library class from an IDE. Being stuck, I tried this NetBeans tutorial: http://www.netbeans.org/kb/docs/java/junit-intro.html It seemed to be going OK, but then I noticed that the menu options for this tutorial for testing a Java Class Library are different from those for a regular Java application, or for a Java Web App. So the instructions in this tutorial don't apply generally. I'm using NetBeans 6.7, and I've imported JUnit 4.5 into the libraries folder. What would be the normal way to run JUnit, after having written the tests? The JUnit FAQ describes the process from the Console, and I'm willing to do that if that is what is typical, but given all that I can do inside netbeans, it seems hard to believe that there isn't an easier way. Thanks much. EDIT: If I right-click on the project and select "Test" the output is: init: deps-jar: compile: compile-test: test-report: test: BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds) This doesn't strike me as the desired output of a test, especially since this doesn't change whether the test condition is true or not. Any ideas?

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  • Will IOC solve our problems?

    - by user127954
    Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • externalizing junit stub objects.

    - by Ajay
    Hi!    In my project we created stub files for testing junits in java(factories) itself. However, we have to externalize these stubs. After seeing a number of serializers/deserializers, we settled on using XStream to serialize and deserialize these stub objects. XStream works like a charm. Its pretty good at what it claims to be. Previously, we had a single factory class say AFactory which produced all the stubs needed for testing different test cases. Now when externalizing each of the stub generated, we hit a road block. We had to create 1 xml file for each stub produced by the factory. For example, public final class AFactory{ public static A createStub1(){ /*Code here */} public static A createStub2(){ /*Code here */} public static A createStub3(){ /*Code here */} } Now, when trying to move this stubs to external files, we had to create 1 xml file for each stub created(A-stub1.xml, A-stub2.xml and A-stub3.xml). The problem with this approach is that, it leads to proliferation of xml stub files. I was thinking, how about keeping all the stubs related to a single bean class in a single xml file. <?xml version="1.0"?> <stubs class="A"> <stub id="stub1"> <!-- Here comes the externalized xml stub representation --> </stub> <stub id="stub2"> </stub> </stubs> Is there a framework which allows you keep all the stub in xml representation in a single xml file as above ? Or What do you guys suggest should be the right approach to adhere to ?

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  • java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessag

    - by user362199
    Hi All, I'm using EasyMock(version 2.4) and TestNG for writing UnitTest. I have a following scenario and I cannot change the way class hierarchy is defined. I'm testing ClassB which is extending ClassA. ClassB look like this public class ClassB extends ClassA { public ClassB() { super("title"); } @Override public String getDisplayName() { return ClientMessages.getMessages("ClassB.title"); } } ClassA code public abstract class ClassA { private String title; public ClassA(String title) { this.title = ClientMessages.getMessages(title); } public String getDisplayName() { return this.title; } } ClientMessages class code public class ClientMessages { private static MessageResourse messageResourse; public ClientMessages(MessageResourse messageResourse) { this.messageResourse = messageResourse; } public static String getMessages(String code) { return messageResourse.getMessage(code); } } MessageResourse Class code public class MessageResourse { public String getMessage(String code) { return code; } } Testing ClassB import static org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock.createMock; import org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock; import org.testng.Assert; import org.testng.annotations.Test; public class ClassBTest { private MessageResourse mockMessageResourse = createMock(MessageResourse.class); private ClassB classToTest; private ClientMessages clientMessages; @Test public void testGetDisplayName() { EasyMock.expect(mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title")).andReturn("someTitle"); clientMessages = new ClientMessages(mockMessageResourse); classToTest = new ClassB(); Assert.assertEquals("someTitle" , classToTest.getDisplayName()); EasyMock.replay(mockMessageResourse); } } When I'm running this this test I'm getting following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessage("title") While debugging what I found is, it's not considering the mock method call mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title") as it has been called from the construtor (ClassB object creation). Can any one please help me how to test in this case. Thanks.

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  • Basic jUnit Questions

    - by Epitaph
    I was testing a String multiplier class with a multiply() method that takes 2 numbers as inputs (as String) and returns the result number (as String) `public String multiply(String num1, String num2); I have done the implementation and created a test class with the following test cases involving the input String parameter as 1) valid numbers 2) characters 3) special symbol 4) empty string 5) Null value 6) 0 7) Negative number 8) float 9) Boundary values 10) Numbers that are valid but their product is out of range 11) numbers will + sign (+23) 1) I'd like to know if "each and every" assertEquals() should be in it's own test method? Or, can I group similar test cases like testInvalidArguments() to contains all asserts involving invalid characters since ALL of them throw the same NumberFormatException ? 2) If testing an input value like character ("a"), do I need to include test cases for ALL scenarios? "a" as the first argument "a" as the second argument "a" and "b" as the 2 arguments 3) As per my understanding, the benefit of these unit tests is to find out the cases where the input from a user might fail and result in an exception. And, then we can give the user with a meaningful message (asking them to provide valid input) instead of an exception. Is that the correct? And, is it the only benefit? 4) Are the 11 test cases mentioned above sufficient? Did I miss something? Did I overdo? When is enough? 5) Following from the above point, have I successfully tested the multiply() method?

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  • Defining jUnit Test cases Correctly

    - by Epitaph
    I am new to Unit Testing and therefore wanted to do some practical exercise to get familiar with the jUnit framework. I created a program that implements a String multiplier public String multiply(String number1, String number2) In order to test the multiplier method, I created a test suite consisting of the following test cases (with all the needed integer parsing, etc) @Test public class MultiplierTest { Multiplier multiplier = new Multiplier(); // Test for 2 positive integers assertEquals("Result", 5, multiplier.multiply("5", "1")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 0 assertEquals("Result", 0, multiplier.multiply("5", "0")); // Test for 1 positive and 1 negative integer assertEquals("Result", -1, multiplier.multiply("-1", "1")); // Test for 2 negative integers assertEquals("Result", 10, multiplier.multiply("-5", "-2")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 1 non number assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("x", "1")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 1 empty field assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("5", "")); // Test for 2 empty fields assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("", "")); In a similar fashion, I can create test cases involving boundary cases (considering numbers are int values) or even imaginary values. 1) But, what should be the expected value for the last 3 test cases above? (a special number indicating error?) 2) What additional test cases did I miss? 3) Is assertEquals() method enough for testing the multiplier method or do I need other methods like assertTrue(), assertFalse(), assertSame() etc 4) Is this the RIGHT way to go about developing test cases? How am I "exactly" benefiting from this exercise? 5)What should be the ideal way to test the multiplier method? I am pretty clueless here. If anyone can help answer these queries I'd greatly appreciate it. Thank you.

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  • asp.net mvc - How to create fake test objects quickly and efficiently

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm currently testing the controller in my mvc app and I'm creating a fake repository for testing. However I seem to be writing more code and spending more time for the fakes than I do on the actual repositories. Is this right? The code I have is as follows: Controller public partial class SomeController : Controller { IRepository repository; public SomeController(IRepository rep) { repository = rep; } public virtaul ActionResult Index() { // Some logic var model = repository.GetSomething(); return View(model); } } IRepository public interface IRepository { Something GetSomething(); } Fake Repository public class FakeRepository : IRepository { private List<Something> somethingList; public FakeRepository(List<Something> somethings) { somthingList = somthings; } public Something GetSomething() { return somethingList; } } Fake Data class FakeSomethingData { public static List<Something> CreateSomethingData() { var somethings = new List<Something>(); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { somethings.Add(new Something { value1 = String.Format("value{0}", i), value2 = String.Format("value{0}", i), value3 = String.Format("value{0}", i) }); } return somethings; } } Actual Test [TestClass] public class SomethingControllerTest { SomethingController CreateSomethingController() { var testData = FakeSomethingData.CreateSomethingData(); var repository = new FakeSomethingRepository(testData); SomethingController controller = new SomethingController(repository); return controller; } [TestMethod] public void SomeTest() { // Arrange var controller = CreateSomethingController(); // Act // Some test here // Arrange } } All this seems to be a lot of extra code, especially as I have more than one repository. Is there a more efficient way of doing this? Maybe using mocks? Thanks

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  • TDD test data loading methods

    - by Dave Hanson
    I am a TDD newb and I would like to figure out how to test the following code. I am trying to write my tests first, but I am having trouble for creating a test that touches my DataAccessor. I can't figure out how to fake it. I've done the extend the shipment class and override the Load() method; to continue testing the object. I feel as though I end up unit testing my Mock objects/stubs and not my real objects. I thought in TDD the unit tests were supposed to hit ALL of the methods on the object; however I can never seem to test that Load() code only the overriden Mock Load My tests were write an object that contains a list of orders based off of shipment number. I have an object that loads itself from the database. public class Shipment { //member variables protected List<string> _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); protected string _id = "" //public properties public List<string> ListOrders { get{ return _listOfOrders; } } public Shipment(string id) { _id = id; Load(); } //PROBLEM METHOD // whenever I write code that needs this Shipment object, this method tries // to hit the DB and fubars my tests // the only way to get around is to have all my tests run on a fake Shipment object. protected void Load() { _listOfOrders = DataAccessor.GetOrders(_id); } } I create my fake shipment class to test the rest of the classes methods .I can't ever test the Real load method without having an actual DB connection public class FakeShipment : Shipment { protected new void Load() { _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); } } Any thoughts? Please advise. Dave

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  • IE error on jquery Line 4618

    - by eo
    I am trying to save some css information into cookies with the below jquery script. Everything is perfectly fine for Firefox however IE throws an error on jquery Line 4618, whenever i include this file jQuery(document).ready(function() { // cookie period var days = 365; // load positions and z-index from cookies $("div[id*='tqitem']").each( function( index ){ $(this).css( "left", $.cookie( "im_" + $(this).attr("id") + "_left") ); $(this).css( "top", $.cookie( "im_" + this.id + "_top") ); $(this).css( "zIndex", $.cookie( "tqz_" + this.id + "_zIndex") ); }); // bind event $(".pagenumbers").draggable({cursor: "move"}); $("div[id*='tqitem']").bind('dragstop', savePos); $("div[id*='tqitem']").bind('dragstop', savePot); // save positions into cookies function savePos( event, ui ){ $.cookie("im_" + $(this).attr("id") + "_left", $(this).css("left"), { path: '/', expires: days }); $.cookie("im_" + this.id + "_top", $(this).css("top"), { path: '/', expires: days }); $.cookie("im_" + this.id + "_zIndex", $(this).css("zIndex"), { path: '/', expires: days }); }; var thiss = $("div[id*='tqitem']"); function savePot(){ $("div[id*='tqitem']").each(function (i) { $.cookie("tqz_" + $(this).attr("id") + "_zIndex", $(this).css("zIndex"), { path: '/', expires: days }); }) }; }); /*ADDITIONAL INFO: SCRIPT HIERARCHY Jquery itself Jquery ui Jquery cookie plugin Save cookies js no matter how i ordered them the result did not change*/

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  • style problem with jQueryUI Autocomplete widget (using remote datasource)

    - by blee
    <input class="ui-autocomplete-input"/> represents the text field to be autocompleted. <ul>...</ul> contains the list of matching items from the text field input. It is added to the document by remote call as you type. <ul>...</ul> is added just inside the closing </body> tag. I was expecting the <ul>...</ul> to be placed just after the <input class="ui-autocomplete-input"/>. Because this does not happen, the <ul>...</ul> falls outside of the containing div and the resulting style is broken. Suggestions? Can I specify where the <ul>...</ul> gets placed in the document? Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • How can I test this SQL Server performance Utility?

    - by Martin Smith
    As part of my MSc I need to do a three month project later this year. I have decided to do something which will likely be useful for me in the workplace and spend the time getting to understand SQL Server internals. The deliverable for this project will be a performance advisor looking at a variety of different rules. Some static such as finding redundant indexes, some more dynamic such as using XEvents to find outlying invocations of stored procedure execution times when certain parameters are passed. I am struggling to come up with a good way of testing this though. I can obviously design a "bad" database and a synthetic workload that my tool will pick up issues on but I also need to demonstrate that it has real world utility. Looking at the self tuning database literature it is common to use TPC benchmarks but I've had a look at the TPCC site and it looks very time consuming to implement and not that good a fit to my project's testing needs in any event (I would still be able to "rig" it by the decisions I made on indexing or physical architecture). Plan A would be to find willing beta tester(s) but in the event that isn't possible I will need a fallback plan. The best idea I have come up with so far is to use the various MS sample applications as examples of real world applications. e.g. http://msftdpprodsamples.codeplex.com/ http://www.asp.net/community/projects/ Does anyone have any better suggestions?

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • [Google Maps] Trouble with invalid argument when switching jQueryUI based tabs

    - by Chad
    Here's a page with the issue To reproduce the error, using IE - click the directions tab, then any of the others. What I'm trying to do is this: On page load, do nothing really. However, when the directions tab loads - setup the map. Like so: $('#tabs').bind('tabsshow', function(event, ui) { if (ui.panel.id == "tabs-5") { // get map for directions var dirMap = new GMap2($("div#dirMap").get(0)); dirMap.setCenter(new GLatLng(35.79648921414565,139.40663874149323), 12); dirMap.enableScrollWheelZoom(); dirMap.addControl(new PanoMapTypeControl()); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); $("#dirMap").resizable({ stop: function() { dirMap.checkResize(); } }); // clear dirText $("div#dirMapText").html(""); dirMap.clearOverlays(); var polygon = new GPolygon([new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297),new GLatLng(35.74748750802863,139.3363380432129),new GLatLng(35.75765724051559,139.34303283691406),new GLatLng(35.76545779822543,139.3418312072754),new GLatLng(35.767547103447725,139.3476676940918),new GLatLng(35.75835374997911,139.34955596923828),new GLatLng(35.755149755962755,139.3567657470703),new GLatLng(35.74679090345495,139.35796737670898),new GLatLng(35.74762682821177,139.36294555664062),new GLatLng(35.744422402303826,139.36346054077148),new GLatLng(35.74860206266584,139.36946868896484),new GLatLng(35.735644401200986,139.36843872070312),new GLatLng(35.73843117306677,139.36174392700195),new GLatLng(35.73592308277646,139.3531608581543),new GLatLng(35.72686543236113,139.35298919677734),new GLatLng(35.724496338474104,139.3444061279297)], "#f33f00", 5, 1, "#ff0000", 0.2);dirMap.addOverlay(polygon); // load directions directions = new GDirections(dirMap, $("div#dirMapText").get(0)); directions.load("from: [email protected],139.37083393335342 to: Ruby [email protected],139.40663874149323"); } }); What the heck is causing the error? The IE javascript debugger claims the error lies in main.js, line 139 character 28. (the google maps api file). Which is this line: function zf(a,b){a=a.style;a.width=b.getWidthString();a.height=b.getHeightString()} Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • jquery google link

    - by Val
    Has anyone got any idea how this google code works? i got the following: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>My Google AJAX Search API Application</title> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=blahblahblah" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="Javascript" type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1"); google.load("jqueryui", "1"); </script> </head> <body> <div class="ui-state-highlight"> hello world </div> </body> </html> However the <div></div> should display the error box with hello world. but it doesn't show the red background therefor the ui is not working ... What have i done wrong here?

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  • jQueryUI: Sortable <thead> messes up ie ANY IE when css display property is set to RELATIVE

    - by Zlatev
    As the title describes most of the problem. Here is the example code that works as expected in Firefox. Could someone provide a workaround or fix? In action JavaScript $(function() { $('table thead').sortable({ items: 'th', containment: 'document', helper: 'clone', cursor: 'move', placeholder: 'placeHold', start: function(e, ui) { $overlay=$('<div>').css({ position: 'fixed', left: 0, top: 0, backgroundColor: 'black', opacity: 0.4, width: '100%', height: '100%', zIndex: 500 }).attr('id','sortOverlay').prependTo(document.body); $(this).parent().css({ position: 'relative', zIndex: 1000}); }, stop: function(e, ui){ $('#sortOverlay').remove(); $(this).parent().css({ position: 'static' }); } }); }); CSS <style type="text/css"> table { background-color: #f3f3f3; } table thead { background-color: #c1c1c1; } .placeHold { background-color: white; } </style> HTML <table> <thead><th>th1</th><th>th2</th><th>th3</th><th>th4</th></thead> <tbody> <tr> <td>content</td><td>content</td><td>content</td><td>content</td> </tr> </tbody> </table>

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  • jQuery Autocomplete with _renderItem and catagories

    - by LillyPop
    As a newb to jQuery im wondering if its possible to have both jQuery _renderItem (for custom list item HTML/CSS) AND the categories working together in harmony? Ive got my _renderItem working great but I have no idea how to incorporate categories into the mix. My code so far $(document).ready(function () { $(':input[data-autocomplete]').each(function () { $(':input[data-autocomplete]').autocomplete({ source: $(this).attr("data-autocomplete") }).data("autocomplete")._renderItem = function (ul, item) { var MyHtml = "<a>" + "<div class='ac' >" + "<div class='ac_img_wrap' >" + '<img src="../../uploads/' + item.imageUrl + '.jpg"' + 'width="40" height="40" />' + "</div>" + "<div class='ac_mid' >" + "<div class='ac_name' >" + item.value + "</div>" + "<div class='ac_info' >" + item.info + "</div>" + "</div>" + "</div>" + "</a>"; return $("<li></li>").data("item.autocomplete", item).append(MyHtml).appendTo(ul); }; }); }); The jQuery documentation for the autocomplete gives the following code example : $.widget("custom.catcomplete", $.ui.autocomplete, { _renderMenu: function (ul, items) { var self = this, currentCategory = ""; $.each(items, function (index, item) { if (item.category != currentCategory) { ul.append("<li class='ui-autocomplete-category'>" + item.category + "</li>"); currentCategory = item.category; } self._renderItem(ul, item); }); } }); Id like to get my custom HTML (_renderItem) and categories working together, can anyone help me to merge these two together or point me in the right direction. Thanks

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  • N-tier architecture and unit tests (using Java)

    - by Alexandre FILLATRE
    Hi there, I'd like to have your expert explanations about an architectural question. Imagine a Spring MVC webapp, with validation API (JSR 303). So for a request, I have a controller that handles the request, then passes it to the service layer, which passes to the DAO one. Here's my question. At which layer should the validation occur, and how ? My though is that the controller has to handle basic validation (are mandatory fields empty ? Is the field length ok ? etc.). Then the service layer can do some tricker stuff, that involve other objets. The DAO does no validation at all. BUT, if I want to implement some unit testing (i.e. test layers below service, not the controllers), I'll end up with unexpected behavior because some validations should have been done in the Controller layer. As we don't use it for unit testing, there is a problem. What is the best way to deal with this ? I know there is no universal answer, but your personal experience is very welcomed. Thanks a lot. Regards.

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  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

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