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  • Where are the real risks in network security?

    - by Barry Brown
    Anytime a username/password authentication is used, the common wisdom is to protect the transport of that data using encryption (SSL, HTTPS, etc). But that leaves the end points potentially vulnerable. Realistically, which is at greater risk of intrusion? Transport layer: Compromised via wireless packet sniffing, malicious wiretapping, etc. Transport devices: Risks include ISPs and Internet backbone operators sniffing data. End-user device: Vulnerable to spyware, key loggers, shoulder surfing, and so forth. Remote server: Many uncontrollable vulnerabilities including malicious operators, break-ins resulting in stolen data, physically heisting servers, backups kept in insecure places, and much more. My gut reaction is that although the transport layer is relatively easy to protect via SSL, the risks in the other areas are much, much greater, especially at the end points. For example, at home my computer connects directly to my router; from there it goes straight to my ISPs routers and onto the Internet. I would estimate the risks at the transport level (both software and hardware) at low to non-existant. But what security does the server I'm connected to have? Have they been hacked into? Is the operator collecting usernames and passwords, knowing that most people use the same information at other websites? Likewise, has my computer been compromised by malware? Those seem like much greater risks. What do you think?

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  • Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

    - by polygenelubricants
    The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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  • I can't get datepicker to work

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I need a field that displays the datepicker. I followed the example given by the JQuery UI documentation and haven't managed to get it to work. My html where I have my text field is: <div class="editor-field"> <input type = "text" name = "DatePublished" id = "Published" /> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("DatePublished" ,"*") %> </div> This HTML is in a partial view, lets call it pv.ascx, and it is called in the main page as a modal box: <div id = "ModalBox"> <% Html.RenderAction("pv", "Example"); %> </div> The thing is, that I try to call the datepicker creation anytime I enter the main page, and I do it in my javascript file app.js: $().ready(function() { var place = window.location.pathname; var placesplit = place.split("/"); //Depending on the location we are on, we execute different subroutines $('#Published').datepicker(); }); But nothing happens when I focus on the text field. What is wrong? Could it be that being called from a partial view it doesn't work? Thank you everyone, vikitor

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  • Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

    - by Chris
    I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

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  • Qt Socket blocking functions required to run in QThread where created. Any way past this?

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    The title is very cryptic, so here goes! I am writing a client that behaves in a very synchronous manner. Due to the design of the protocol and the server, everything has to happen sequentially (send request, wait for reply, service reply etc.), so I am using blocking sockets. Here is where Qt comes in. In my application I have a GUI thread, a command processing thread and a scripting engine thread. I create the QTcpSocket in the command processing thread, as part of my Client class. The Client class has various methods that boil down to writing to the socket, reading back a specific number of bytes, and returning a result. The problem comes when I try to directly call Client methods from the scripting engine thread. The Qt sockets randomly time out and when using a debug build of Qt, I get these warnings: QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be enabled from another thread QSocketNotifier: socket notifiers cannot be disabled from another thread Anytime I call these methods from the command processing thread (where Client was created), I do not get these problems. To simply phrase the situation: Calling blocking functions of QAbstractSocket, like waitForReadyRead(), from a thread other than the one where the socket was created (dynamically allocated), causes random behaviour and debug asserts/warnings. Anyone else experienced this? Ways around it? Thanks in advance.

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  • SIGABRT on any UIView touch

    - by bitcruncher
    Hi. I'm afraid no amount of Googling has been able to save my hyde on this. I seem to be getting SIGABRT error anytime I touch the screen of the phone, on any UIView. The debugger console posts this error before the SIGABRT: .... [310:207] *** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0 .... [310:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0' (this is not my specific call to _exclusiveTouchView, of course.) I would gladly post some code, but the truth is I cannot find (or guess) where this problem may be coming from. This is not happening on any ONE UIView but on all the UIViews in my stack. I can summarize the display logic, though, perhaps that will shed some light. So the application is created and a UIWindow is alloc'd. A single viewcontroller is then alloc'd, which makes and adds its own blank self.view, to which the other UIViews, representing the different game states, are attached. Interestingly enough, this error is does NOT happen on the Simulator, but happens consistently on the device. And I should also mention that the application has yet to override/use any of the touchesBegan:/Ended:/Moved: etc... In other words, this error happens without these methods in the code. I'm really not understanding where this error is coming from... Any suggestions?

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  • magento, making a grouped product show on sale based on product children prices

    - by thrice801
    Hi, Question regarding Magento and sale items. So I have to use grouped items to link multiple items which are the same style but different colors, these are the items I have showing on my search results/category pages. - I am trying to figure out how I can make the master sku, show as on sale, when the children items are marked on sale. I am able to make it show up on the product page, but anytime I have tried calling any of the getchildren methods outside of grouped.phtml, I have failed, horribly. I think I worked on that method for probably 36 hours unsuccessfully calling it from any other page. So, I thought I would ask here. Does anyone know how I could call the getchildskus or whatever it is method, from the category page, so that I can do something like, for each child product, compare sale price with active price, if there is a difference, calculate the percentage off, and display the largest difference as "ON SALE, UP TO 30% OFF!", or whatever it may be? Any help would be much appreciated. (oh, and I cant set a price on the main group sku, I sell sunglasses and watches mainly and many times a different color will differ in price quite significantly.)

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  • CheckBox won't toggle in Android ListView with focusable="false"

    - by user3563124
    I'm creating a ListView with a custom Adapter for displaying my entries. Each row contains a checkbox, and my adapter contains the following code: CheckBox cb = (CheckBox) v.findViewById(R.id.item_sold); cb.setChecked(p.isSold); setupCheckboxListener(cb, v, position); ... private void setupCheckboxListener(CheckBox check, final View v, final int position) { check.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { CheckBox cb = (CheckBox) v; if (cb.isChecked()) { System.out.println("Should become false!"); cb.setChecked(false); } else { System.out.println("Should become true!"); cb.setChecked(true); } } }); My row XML file includes the following: <CheckBox android:id="@+id/item_sold" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="0.10" android:layout_gravity="center" android:gravity="center" android:focusable="false" android:clickable="false"/> But anytime I press one of the checkboxes, check.isChecked() returns true, even if the box is unchecked. I even checked to make sure that the checkboxes were distinct and weren't picking up just the last value/etc. Setting up the listeners inline instead of in a method doesn't seem to help, either. It's literally just the isChecked() condition that isn't working appropriately - it seems to always give me the inverse value. Setting an onClick on the row is not acceptable in this case because I need to allow row selection for something else. What could be causing this issue?

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  • Really annoying bug with Topmost property in Windows Forms

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I have this Windows Forms application where it sits in the notification area. Clicking on the icon brings it up front, clicking it again (or clicking on the app X icon) sends it back. This is the type of app that having the window always on top is important when it's displayed by clicking the icon, but it's optional. Right-clicking the icon brings up a context menu where one can select to enable the "always on top" option or not. When the application first starts up, the app settings are read from an XML file and I'm 99% that this is working as it should, the Topmost properly is properly read (and written). After some time (minutes, hours, days, whatever, I normally hibernate and rarely shutdown) the Topmost stops working. I don't change the option, I don't think anything is changing the option but I click the notification area icon and app is not brought up front. It shows up (it displays on Alt+Tab) but it's on the background, it's not topmost as it should. I bring up the context menu, disable the option (cause it's enabled) and enable it back and it starts to work after that. The app is now topmost. However, it can lose this ability anytime after while. I can't understand why this happens and how this happens. Does anyone have any idea why? If not, any idea how could I try to debug such behavior?

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  • Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010

    - by Coco
    Has anyone an idea, how I can make TValue using a reference to the original data? In my serialization project, I use (as suggested in XML-Serialization) a generic serializer which stores TValues in an internal tree-structure (similar to the MemberMap in the example). This member-tree should also be used to create a dynamic setup form and manipulate the data. My idea was to define a property for the Data: TDataModel <T> = class {...} private FData : TValue; function GetData : T; procedure SetData (Value : T); public property Data : T read GetData write SetData; end; The implementation of the GetData, SetData Methods: procedure TDataModel <T>.SetData (Value : T); begin FData := TValue.From <T> (Value); end; procedure TDataModel <T>.GetData : T; begin Result := FData.AsType <T>; end; Unfortunately, the TValue.From method always makes a copy of the original data. So whenever the application makes changes to the data, the DataModel is not updated and vice versa if I change my DataModel in a dynamic form, the original data is not affected. Sure I could always use the Data property before and after changing anything, but as I use lot of Rtti inside my DataModel, I do not realy want to do this anytime. Perhaps someone has a better suggestion?

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  • Can I add a portrait layout on top of a landscape Camera SurfaceView?

    - by Uwe Krass
    My application should hold a camera preview surface. The camera is fixed to landscape view via AndroidMainfest.xml <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="Camera"> <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> <uses-feature android:name="android.hardware.camera" /> <uses-feature android:name="android.hardware.camera.autofocus" /> <activity android:name=".CameraPreview" android:label="Camera" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> If there is another way to get the camera preview itself to behave correctly, please let me know. Now I need to have an overlay that holds a bunch of buttons. Due to usability, the user interface should be set to portrait view (or even better orientation aware). Is there a way to have a transparent layout (for buttons and other GUI elements) in portrait orientation? I tried to write a special rotated layout by extending a RelativeLayout, but the onDraw method isn't called at anytime. public class RotatedOverlay extends RelativeLayout { private static final String TAG = "RotatedOverlay"; public RotatedOverlay(Context context, AttributeSet attrs ) { super(context, attrs); } @Override protected void onDraw(Canvas canvas) { canvas.rotate(90); super.onDraw(canvas); } I am quite new to the Android plattform programming. Of course I dont know much about the programming tricks and workarounds yet. I did a lot of research over the last two weeks (even studied the native Camera implementation), but couldnt find a good solution so far. Maybe it works with two seperate Activities, but I dont think, that this can the right solution.

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  • How to access a variable in other class?

    - by Christine
    Hi! I've problem regarding GUI with one Menu and one Order Class. I've created a variable to store how many items have been selected in the Menu Class. private int totalSelected; The var totalSelected is live updated. It can be changed anytime depending on actionPerformed() function.(Exp: totalSelected will add up all the selected items) In the Order Class, how can I access to the live update variable totalSelected in order to retrieve the live update value? When I invoke getTotalSelected() function inside the Menu Class, I will only obtain a 0 value. Thanks for your help ^^! Please allow me to specify my question clearer. public class MenuTab extends JPanel { private JLabel display; private int totalSelected; public MenuTab() { .... } } public getTotalSelected(){ return totalSelected; } private class SelectedListener implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed() { ....... //Assume that totalSelected has been updated! display = new JLabel("Total: " + totalSelected); // OK to display totalSelected live value here. } } // A new class is the confirmation of order public class OrderConfirmedTab extends JPanel{ private JLabel displayTotal; private MenuTab order = new MenuTab(); public OrderConfirmedTab() { ...... int totalSelected = order.getTotalSelected(); displayTotal = new JLabel("Total: " + totalSelected); // Problem to display totalSelected live value here. // Will obtain 0; // How can I obtain the live updated value from class MenuTab? Thanks! } }

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  • SSL + Jquery + Ajax

    - by chobo2
    Hi I starting too look at a bit of security into my site. My site I would consider a very low security risk as it has really no personal information from the user other than email. However the security risk will go up a bit as I am partnering with a company and the initial password for this companies users will be the same password they use essentially to get onto the network and every piece of software. So I have up my security( what is fine by me...I wanted to get around to this anyways). So one of my security concerns is this. A user logs in. form submit(non ajax is done). Password is hashed & Salted and compared to one in the database. Reject or let them proceed. So this uses no jquery or ajax but is just asp.net mvc and C#. Still if my understanding is right the password is sent in clear text. So if a use SSL and I would not need to worry about that is this correct? If that is true is that all I need? Second the user can change their password at anytime. This is done through ajax. So when the password is sent it is sent in clear text( and I can verify this by looking at firebug). So if I have SSL enabled on this page is that all I need or do I need to do more? So I am just kinda confused of what I need to make the password being sent to the server(both ajax and full post ways secure). I am not sure if I need to do more then SSL or if that is enough and if it is not enough what is the next layer of security?

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  • Javascript private member on prototype...

    - by Wilq32
    Well I tried to figure out is this possible in any way. Here is code: a=function(text) { var b=text; if (!arguments.callee.prototype.get) arguments.callee.prototype.get=function() { return b; } else alert('already created!'); } var c=new a("test"); // creates prototype instance of getter var d=new a("ojoj"); // alerts already created alert(c.get()) // alerts test alert(d.get()) // alerts test from context of creating prototype function :( As you see I tried to create prototype getter. For what? Well if you write something like this: a=function(text) { var b=text; this.getText=function(){ return b} } ... everything should be fine.. but in fact every time I create object - i create getText function that uses memory. I would like to have one prototypical function lying in memory that would do the same... Any ideas? EDIT: I tried solution given by Christoph, and it seems that its only known solution for now. It need to remember id information to retrieve value from context, but whole idea is nice for me :) Id is only one thing to remember, everything else can be stored once in memory. In fact you could store a lot of private members this way, and use anytime only one id. Actually this is satisfying me :) (unless someone got better idea). someFunc = function() { var store = new Array(); var guid=0; var someFunc = function(text) { this.__guid=guid; store[guid++]=text; } someFunc.prototype.getValue=function() { return store[this.__guid]; } return someFunc; }() a=new someFunc("test"); b=new someFunc("test2"); alert(a.getValue()); alert(b.getValue());

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  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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  • Silverlight 4 webclient authentication - anyone have this working yet?

    - by Toran Billups
    So one of the best parts about the new Silverlight 4 beta is that they finally implemented the big missing feature of the networking stack - Network Credentials! In the below I have a working request setup, but for some reason I get a "security error" when the request comes back - is this because twitter.com rejected my api call or something that I'm missing in code? It might be good to point out that when I watch this code execute via fiddler it shows that the xml file for cross domain is pulled down successfully, but that is the last request shown by fiddler ... public void RequestTimelineFromTwitterAPI() { WebRequest.RegisterPrefix("https://", System.Net.Browser.WebRequestCreator.ClientHttp); WebClient myService = new WebClient(); myService.AllowReadStreamBuffering = true; myService.UseDefaultCredentials = false; myService.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); myService.UseDefaultCredentials = false; myService.OpenReadCompleted += new OpenReadCompletedEventHandler(TimelineRequestCompleted); myService.OpenReadAsync(new Uri("https://twitter.com/statuses/friends_timeline.xml")); } public void TimelineRequestCompleted(object sender, System.Net.OpenReadCompletedEventArgs e) { //anytime I query for e.Result I get a security error }

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  • Tying in .addClass() with other functions?

    - by Anders H
    Assuming an accordion dropdown with the standard form of: <ul> <li> <a href="#">Main Element</a> <ul> <li> <a href="#">Dropdown Element</a> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> I'm using jQuery to expand when the parent element link is clicked: var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function initMenus() { $j('ul.menu ul').hide(); $j.each($j('ul.menu'), function(){ $j('#' + this.id + '.expandfirst ul:first').show(); }); $j('ul.menu li a').click( function() { var checkElement = $j(this).next(); var parent = this.parentNode.parentNode.id; if($j('#' + parent).hasClass('noaccordion')) { $j(this).next().slideToggle('normal'); return false; } if((checkElement.is('ul')) && (checkElement.is(':visible'))) { if($j('#' + parent).hasClass('collapsible')) { $j('#' + parent + ' ul:visible').slideUp('normal'); } return false; } if((checkElement.is('ul')) && (!checkElement.is(':visible'))) { $j('#' + parent + ' ul:visible').slideUp('normal'); checkElement.slideDown('normal'); return false; } } ); } $j(document).ready(function() {initMenus();}); To add a class to the Main Element when clicked (aka the class is enabled anytime the dropdown is expanded) I'm trying to use .toggleClass(className) without luck, most likely to my positioning. Where can I add this element to get the desired effect?

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  • Editable, growable DataGrid that retains values on postback and updates underlying DataTable

    - by jlstrecker
    I'm trying to create an ASP.NET/C# page that allows the user to edit a table of data, add rows to it, and save the data back to the database. For the table of data, I'm using a DataGrid whose cells contain TextBoxes or CheckBoxes. I have a button for adding rows (which works) and a button for saving the data. However, I'm quite stuck on two things: The TextBoxes and CheckBoxes should retain their values on postback. So if the user edits a TextBox and clicks the button to add more rows, the edits should be retained when the page reloads. However, the edits should not be saved to the database at this point. When the user clicks the save button, or anytime before, the DataTable underlying the DataGrid needs to be updated with the values of the TextBoxes and CheckBoxes so that the DataTable can be sent to the database. I have a method that does this, but I can't figure out when to call it. Any help getting this to work, or suggestions of alternative user interfaces that would behave similarly, would be appreciated.

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  • Is it possible that two requests at the same time double this code? (prevent double database entry)

    - by loostro
    1) The controller code (Symfony2 framework): $em = $this->getDoctrine()->getEntityManager(); // get latest toplist $last = $em->getRepository('RadioToplistBundle:Toplist')->findOneBy( array('number' => 'DESC') ); // get current year and week of the year $week = date('W'); $year = date('Y'); // if: // [case 1]: $last is null, meaning there are no toplists in the database // [case 2]: $last->getYear() or $last->getWeek() do not match current // year and week number, meaning that there are toplists in the // database, but not for current week // then: // create new toplist entity (for current week of current year) // else: // do nothing (return) if($last && $last->getYear() == $year && $last->getWeek() == $week) return; else { $new = new Toplist(); $new->setYear($year); $new->setWeek($week); $em->persist($new); $em->flush(); } This code is executed with each request to view toplist results (frontend) or list of toplists (backend). Anytime someone wants to access the toplist we first check if we should create a new toplist entity (for new week). 2) The question is: Is it possible that: User A goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:01 on Monday - the code should generate new entity the server slows down and it takes him 3 seconds to execute the code so new toplist entity is saved to database at 00:00:04 on Monday User B goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:02 on Monday at 00:00:02 there the toplist is not yet saved in database, thus UserB's request triggers the code to create another toplist entity And so.. after a few seconds we have 2 toplist entities for current week. Is this possible? How should I prevent this?

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  • Asynchronous URL connection objective C

    - by tweety
    I created an asynchronous URL connection to call a web service using HTTP POST method. after I am pinging the web i set an NSTimerInterval in the completion handler. my problem is when I'm trying to display the time on the view controller it is not doing promptly. I know block is stored in the heap and gets executed later on anytime and probably that's why i'm not getting prompt answer. I was wondering is there any other way to do this? Thanks in advance. my code: __block NSDate *start= [NSDate date]; __block NSDate *end; __block double miliseconds; __block NSTimeInterval time; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:queue completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error) { if([data length]==0 && error==nil){ end=[NSDate date]; time=[end timeIntervalSinceDate:start]; NSLog(@"Successfully Pinged"); miliseconds = time; // calling a method to display ping time [self label:miliseconds]; } -(void) label:(double) mili{ double miliseconds=mili*1000; self.timeDisplay.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Time: %.3f ms", miliseconds];

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  • SQL left join with multiple rows into one row

    - by beardedd
    Basically, I have two tables, Table A contains the actual items that I care to get out, and Table B is used for language translations. So, for example, Table A contains the actual content. Anytime text is used within the table, instead of storing actual varchar values, ids are stored that relate back to text stored in Table B. This allows me to by adding a languageID column to Table B, have multiple translations for the same row in the database. Example: Table A Title (int) Description (int) Other Data.... Table B TextID (int) - This is the column whose value is stored in other tables LanguageID (int) Text (varchar) My question is more a call for suggestions on how to best handle this. Ideally I want a query that I can use to select from the table, and get the text as opposed to the ids of the text out of the table. Currently when I have two text items in the table this is what I do: SELECT C.ID, C.Title, D.Text AS Description FROM (SELECT A.ID, A.Description, B.Text AS Title FROM TableA A, TranslationsTable B WHERE A.Title = B.TextID AND B.LanguaugeID = 1) C LEFT JOIN TranslationsTable D ON C.Description = D.TextID AND D.LanguaugeID = 1 This query gives me the row from Table A I am looking for (using where statements in the inner select statement) with the actual text based on the language ID used instead of the text ids. This works fine when I am only using one or two text items that need to be translated, but adding a third item or more, it starts to get really messy - essentially another left join on top of the example. Any suggestions on a better query, or at least a good way to handle 3 or more text items in a single row?

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  • Animate absolutely positioned div, but stop if a condition is true?

    - by Alex
    Hello all, I have a div which I place at the top right-hand corner of a website, absolutely positioned at top: 0px and right : 0px. I want to use jquery's animate function to animate the div left or right a certain amount when a button is clicked, but stop the animation if at anytime, the div's offset to the left or right is less than a certain number. I want to do this to accomodate users who click the left or right buttons more than once, so that the div does not fly out of sight. How does one accomplish this? Below is my relevant css, html, and jquery code: CSS: #scorecardTwo { position:absolute; padding:5px; width: 300px; background-color:#E1E1E1; right:0px; top:0px; display:none; } HTML: <div id = "scorecardTwo"> <span id = "dealHolder"><a href="some/link">some text</a></span> <br /> <span id = "scoreHolder">some text</span> <br /> <button type="button" id="moveLeft">Left</button>&nbsp;<button type="button" id="moveRight">Right</button> </div> jQuery (at the moment): $("#scorecardTwo").fadeIn("slow"); $("#moveLeft").bind("click", function() { $("#scorecardTwo").animate({"right":"+=76%"}, "slow"); // how to stop animation if offset is less than appropriate number? }); $("#moveRight").bind("click", function() { $("#scorecardTwo").animate({"right" : "-=76%"}, "slow"); // how to stop animation if offset is less than appropriate number? });

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  • How do I simplify my code?

    - by Mitchell Skurnik
    I just finished creating my first major application in C#/Silverlight. In the end the total line count came out to over 12,000 lines of code. Considering this was a rewrite of a php/javascript application I created 2 years that was over 28,000 lines I am actually quite proud of my accomplishment. After reading many questions and answers here on stackoverflow and other sites online, I followed many posters advice: I created classes, procedures, and such for things that I would have a year ago copied and pasted; I created logic charts to figure out complex functions; making sure there are no crazy hidden characters (used tabs instead of spaces); and a few others things; place comments where necessary (I have lots of comments). My application consists of 4 tiles laid out horizontally that have user controls loaded into each slice. You can have between one and four slices loaded at anytime. If you have once slice loaded, the slice takes up the entire artboard...if you have 2 loaded, each take up half, 3 a third, 4 a quarter. Each one of these slices represent (for the sake of this example) a light control. Each slice has 3 slider controls in it. Now when I coded the functionality of the sliders, I used a switch/case statement inside of a public function that would run the command on the specified slice/slider. The made for some duplicate code but I saw no way around it as each slice was named differently. So I would do slice1.my.commands(); slice2.my.commands(); etc. My question to you is how do I clean up my code even futher? (Sadly I cannot post any of my code). Is there any way to take this repetion out of my code?

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  • Using Gem Dependencies if a server is 2.0 instead of 2.1

    - by user548744
    At work for internal Rails applications, the server is running Rails 2.0.4 and Ruby 1.86. As far as I know, that's not going to change anytime soon and I have no control over it. I was going to try and test this out between a couple of computers and was curious if anyone knew what would happen. Being the server is on 2.0.4, I'd like to build Rails 2.3.5 applications for that server if at all possible. From what I understand so far, it won't be a problem if I freeze gems and upack dependancies. Does that sound right? Also, the internal work server has no gems beyond what Rails installs. What I'm wondering is, if I can successfully run a 2.3.5 application on the 2.0.4 server, can I also use extra gems and unpack those to use even though the server doesn't have them? I know that it was version 2.1 that introduced Gem Dependencies so would a 2.3.5 Rails app running on a 2.0.4 server be able to use required gems that are unpacked into an application? One of the worst things with this situation is even if the above stuff works, the server being on 1.86 would exclude me from using a lot of really cool gems that require Ruby 1.87 (like Formtastic). Thanks

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  • Calling a method from another view in objective-c. (iphone sdk).

    - by MarcZero
    Hello. I am currently creating a multi-view game on the iPhone platform. I have my main view start to play some background music upon loading. I then go to another view and start the game. I am trying to get the background music from the original view to stop once I start the game. I am having trouble getting the stop playing music message to my original view. Here is the relevant info: The main view where the sound is played from is just a subView of the programViewController class called *viewController. The heading is in the programAppDelegate class. The sound is done using the AVAudioPlayer class and plays fine when the program starts up and when I navigate to other subviews that are added on by going through the menu system. In the view that I want to start the game, I attempt to call the instance of the class to turn of the player but anytime I use this format of code: [viewController #######]; It gives a build error of "viewController undeclared" no matter what I put after the "viewController" in the message.I have attempted to import the programAppDelegate.h file but it still gives the same error. I realize this might be a simple misunderstanding of the objective-c language but I cannot find any info on this issue. I am a recent convert from Java so I am trying to wrap my head around everything. Thank you for your time!

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